Internet
Explorer 11 will no longer play the videos I have embedded below.
As far as I can tell they play as intended in other Browsers.
However, if you have
Privacy Badger [PB] installed, they won't play in Google Chrome unless you
disable PB for this site
(anti-dialectics.co.uk).
[I have
since discovered they play in IE11 if you have
upgraded to Windows 10 or 11. It looks like the problem is with Windows 7 and earlier
versions of that operating system.]
If you are using Internet Explorer 10 (or later), you might find some of the
links I have used won't work properly unless you switch to 'Compatibility View'
(in the Tools Menu); for IE11 select 'Compatibility View Settings' and add
this site (address above). Microsoft's browser, Edge, automatically
renders these links compatible, as do Windows 10 and 11.
However, if you are using Windows 10 or
11,
IE11 and Edge unfortunately appear to colour these links
somewhat erratically. They are meant to be mid-blue, but those two browsers
render them intermittently light blue, yellow, purple and even red!
Firefox, Opera, Vivaldi, DuckDuckGo,
Brave, and Chrome reproduce them correctly,
as far as I can tell. Edge now seems to be colouring them correctly, too, if you
are using Windows 11.
Unfortunately, one or two browsers also
underline these links inconsistently. Many are underscored boldly in black, others
in light blue! They are all meant to be underlined in the same colour as the
link itself.
If you are viewing this
with Mozilla Firefox, you might not be able to read all the symbols I have
used; Mozilla often replaces them with an "ş'.
There are no problems with Chrome,
Opera, Edge, DuckDuckGo, or Internet Explorer, as
far as I can determine.
Finally: for some reason, Google Chrome
will take the reader to the exact spot to which I have linked at this
site -- but, it will then automatically scroll down at least half a page! I
have no idea why it is doing this. I have tried to correct this glitch but
all my efforts have so far failed. Readers will need to keep this in mind, and
scroll back up half a page, if they use any of the aforementioned links via
Chrome.
As far as
I can tell, there are no problems with links to other sites or web-pages.
In addition, it seems
that Firefox, Opera, Edge, Vivaldi, Brave, and DuckDuckGo
all take the reader to the exact spot in these Essays, with none of the above scrolling involved.
If any of my readers use other browsers (such as Apple's Safari,
which I can't check on my computer), and they find that they also take them to
the exact spot, I would greatly appreciate it if they
informed me to that effect.
[DM = Dialectical
Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context; HM = Historical
Materialism/Materialist, again depending on the context.]
As is the case with all my Essays, nothing here should be read as an attack
either on HM -- a scientific theory I fully accept --, or,
indeed,
on revolutionary socialism. I remain as committed to the self-emancipation of the
working class and the dictatorship of the proletariat as I was when I first became a revolutionary
thirty-nine years ago. The
difference between
DM and HM, as I see it, is explained
here.
Some
readers might wonder why I have quoted extensively from a wide variety of
DM-sources in the Essays published at this site. In fact a good 10-20% of the
material in many of them is comprised of just such quotations. Apologies
are therefore owed the reader in advance for the length and
extremely repetitive nature of most of these passages. The
reason for their inclusion is as follows: Long experience has taught me that
Dialectical Marxists simply refuse to accept that their own classicists
-- e.g., Engels, Plekhanov, Lenin, Trotsky and Mao, alongside countless 'lesser' DM-theorists
--,
actually said the things
I have attributed to them. That isespecially the case when they are confronted
with the absurd consequences that follow from their ideas. That remains the
case unless they are shown chapter and verse, in extensive detail.
Partial quotes, paraphrases or
summaries in my own words they reject as "distortions",
"mis-interpretations", "mis-representations", or even "manipulations".
Furthermore, in debate when I quote only one or two passages in support of what
I allege they are simply brushed off as "outliers" or "atypical". Indeed, in the
absence ofdozens of proof texts drawn from a wide range of sources,
quoted
from across all areas of Dialectical Marxism,
and reproduced in full) they tend to regard whatever any one
particular theorist might have to say -- regardless of who they are, even if they
turn out to be one of the
aforementioned classicists -- as either "far too crude",
"unrepresentative" or even(!) unreliable. Failing that they
often complain that any such passages have been "taken out of context".
Many in fact object since -- surprising and sad though
this is to say --, they are largely ignorant of the finer details of their own theory, or,
perhaps even worse, they simply haven't read the DM-classics and have little to
no idea what they contain!
[Rather like so many Christians who have never read the Bible!]
The only way to counter repeated attempts to deflect, reject and deny along
these lines is to quote
a wide selection of DM-material frequently and at length.
But even that
doesn't always work!
Furthermore,
because of the highly sectarianand partisan nature of Dialectical Marxism,
I have also found it necessary to quote sources from across the entire 'dialectical spectrum'.
That is because Trotskyists object if I quote Stalin
or Mao, Maoists and Stalinists complain if I reference Trotsky -- or even
if I cite "Brezhnev era revisionists".
Non-Leninist Marxists bemoan the fact that I haven't confined my remarks
to what Marx or Hegel had to say, advising me to ignore the confused, even
"simplistic", ideas expressed by Engels, Plekhanov, Lenin, Stalin, Mao
and Trotsky! This often means I have
to quote the lot!
That itself has had the
(indirect) benefit of revealing how much and to what extent they (the classicists and
subsequent epigones across all areas of Dialectical Marxism) largely agree with each other
despite sectarian rhetoric to the contrary, at least
with respect to DM -- but, clearly, not so much over how to apply it!
Some have complained that my linking to Wikipedia completely undermines the credibility of
these Essays. When I launched this project on the Internet in 2005, there was
precious little material easily available on-line
related to the vast majority of topics to which I could link other than Wikipedia. In the intervening years
alternative sites have become available (for example, the excellent
Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy, the InternetEncyclopedia
of Philosophy, and the Encyclopedia Britannica), so I have been progressively replacing most of the old
Wikipedia links with links to these other sources. Having said that, I
haven't done so for someof the links -- for
instance, those that relate to geographical, historical, scientific,
biographical (etc.) topics
whicharen't deemed controversial, at least among
Dialectical Marxists. In every case, I have endeavoured to avoid linking to
Wikipedia in relation to key areas of my case against DM, so that at no
point do my criticisms depend exclusively on such links. However, it will take several years to complete this change-over!
In addition to the above (as readers will soon
discover
if they consult the
Bibliography and
End Notes attached
to each Essay), I have added copious references to other published
academic and non-academic books and articles (posted on-line or printed in hard
copy) to the End Notes, which further develop or substantiate
anything I argue, claim, allege or propose.
Others have complained about the sheer number of
links I have added to these Essays (because they say it makes them very difficult
to read). Of course, DM-supporters can hardly lodge that complaint since they
believe everything is inter-connected, which must surely apply even to
Essays that attempt to debunk that
very idea. However, to those who find the links make these Essays
difficult to read I say this: ignore them! -- unless,
of course, you want to access
further supporting evidence and argument for a particular point or a certain
topic fires your interest.
Still others wonder why I have linked to familiar
topics that are part of common knowledge (such as the names of recent Presidents
of the USA, UK Prime Ministers, the names of rivers, lakes and mountains, the
titles of popular films, or certain words that are in common usage). I have done
so for the following reason: My Essays are read all over the world and by people
from entirely different backgrounds so I can't
assume that something which is part of common knowledge in 'the west' is equally
well-known across the planet -- or, indeed, by those who haven't had the benefit
of the sort of education that is generally available in the 'advanced economies',
or any at
all. Many of my readers also speak English only as a second language, so any help I can give them
I will continue to provide.
Finally on this specific issue, several of the aforementioned links
connect to
web-pages that regularly change their addresses or which even vanish from the
Internet altogether. While I try to update them when it becomes apparent
that they have changed or have disappeared, I can't possibly keep on top of
this. I would greatly appreciate it, therefore, if readers
informed me
of any dead or incorrect links they happen to notice. In general, links to Haloscan
no longer seem to work, so readers needn't tell me about them! Links to
RevForum, RevLeft, Socialist Unity and The North Star also appear to have died.
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
It is worth pointing out that at least 30% of my case
against DM has been relegated to the
End Notes
(link above). Indeed, in this particular Essay much of the supporting evidence is to
be found there. This approach has been adopted in order to allow the main body of the Essay to flow a little more
smoothly. This means that if readers want fully to appreciate my case against DM, they will need to
consult this material, too. In many instances, I have added several qualifications,
clarifications and considerably more detail to what I have to say in the main
body. In addition, I have raised numerous objections (some obvious, many not --
and some that will even have occurred to the reader) to my own arguments, to which I
have then responded.
[I explain why I have adopted this tactic in
Essay One.] If readers skip this material, then my
response to any
qualms or objections they might have will be missed, as will my expanded comments
and clarifications.
Since I have been debating this theory
with Dialectical Marxists for well over thirty years, I have heard all the
objections there are! Many of the more recent debates have been listed here.
(Unfortunately, most of the links on that page have now died!)
Furthermore, phrases like "ruling-class theory", "ruling-class view of reality",
"ruling-class ideology" (etc.), employed throughout this site (in connection with
Traditional Philosophy and DM), aren't meant to
suggest that all or even most members of various ruling-classes
actually invented these ways of thinking or of
seeing the world (although some of them did -- for example,
Heraclitus,
Plato,
Cicero,
and
Marcus Aurelius).
They are intended to
highlight theories (or, indeed, "ruling ideas") that are conducive to, or which rationalise, the
interests of the various ruling-classes history has inflicted on humanity, whoever invents them.
Up until recently, this dogmatic approach to knowledge
has almost exclusively been promoted by thinkers who either relied on
ruling-class patronage, or who, in one capacity or another, helped run the system
for the elite.**
However, such questions will become the
central topic of Parts Two and Three of Essay Twelve (when they are published); until then, the reader is
directed
here,
here, and
here for
further
details.
[**Exactly
how this applies to DM will, of course, be explained in the other Essays
published at this site (especially
here,
here,
and here).
In addition to the three links in the previous paragraph, I have summarised the
argument -- but this time written for absolute beginners --
here.]
Five final
points:
First: throughout this site I have
used the term "Dialectical Marxism". I have done so in order to
distinguish Marxism from the dialectical aberration that has completely dominated
(and I claim has helped cripple) revolutionary socialism for over a
hundred-and-fifty years. So, the terms
"Dialectical Marxism" and "Dialectical
Marxist" refer to the mainstream 'Marxist tradition'
that has accepted in one form or another the validity of DM and, as a result, has
either applied it to all of 'reality' or has restricted it to social and
historical development (i.e., where it has largely been
inserted into HM). However, I distance Marx himself from this toxic
amalgam, to which conclusion many Dialectical Marxists have taken great exception
(perhaps more so than anything else published at this site!). Why that is so has
also been explained,
here and
here. Furthermore,
why this
Hegelianised Hybrid (Dialectical Marxism, not Marxism itself) has been
such anabject failure for well over
a century is explained here and
here. [That argument has been
summarised
here
and here.] The
word "Marxist" has been put in 'scare quotes' in this paragraph for
the reasons briefly expressed earlier but in greater detail throughout
Essay One (link above).
Second:
readers will soon notice that in what follows the word "reality" has
sometimes also been
put in 'scare' quotes. That doesn't
mean I think the world doesn't exist, or that everything is just an 'illusion',
a 'simulation' or even that language actually constructs the
world! In so doing I am indirectly highlighting the fact that I disagree with the
philosophical use of this word. I explain why that is so
here and
here -- but in much greater detail
throughout Essay Twelve Part One.
Third: If readers manage to spot any errors, interpretive mistakes or typos, I would
greatly appreciate it if they brought them
to my attention. I have absolutely no interest in spreading error or
misinformation.
Fourth: In what
follows,
the words, "use-value" and "exchange-value" have been
hyphenated (except where I am quoting Marx or other theorists).
Fifth: Anyone puzzled by the
unremittingly hostile tone I have adopted toward DM and Dialectical Marxism
in general might find it
helpful to read
this first.
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
As of May 2026, this Essay is just under 145,000 words long; a
much shorter summary of some its main ideas can be accessed
here.
The
material presented below does not represent my final view of any of the
issues raised; it is merely 'work in progress'.
Anyone
following these links must remember that
they will be skipping past supporting argument and evidence set out in earlier
sections.
If your Firewall/Browser has a pop-up blocker, you will need to press the
"Ctrl" key at the same time or these and the other links below won't work!
I have adjusted the
font size used at this site to ensure that even those with impaired
vision can read what I have to say. However, if the text is still either too
big or too small for you, please adjust your browser settings!
In this
Second Part of Essay Eight I intend to substantiate a claim that was advanced in Part
One: i.e., that it isn't possible to equate 'dialectical contradictions' with
'opposing forces', either literally or figuratively. Hence, the aim
in what follows is to sever
the link that most
Dialectical Marxists believe exists between 'opposing forces' and 'dialectical contradictions'.
In
Part Three, I will further
develop the ideas explored in Part Two by answering the question: What
sense, if any, can be made of the term "dialectical contradiction"?
[Spoiler Alert:
None whatsoever!]
[As with other Essays published at this site, much of the material below has been
deliberately restricted to the use of DM-terminology, the employment of which
doesn't imply I accept its validity, or even that it makes any sense. It
is only being employed in order to assist in its long-overdue demise.]
Be this as it may,
Dialectical Marxists
nevertheless continue to assert that 'dialectical
contradictions' (in nature or society) may be understood as, or be modelled by, the
inter-relationship between "opposing forces". These forces allegedly condition
one another, operating either in equilibrium or disequilibrium, depending on
the prevailing circumstances -- and, of course, on exactly who is telling the
story!
But, they also claim this view of forces is only valid if it is backed-up
(in every case) by a careful scientific and theoretical analysis of all the
relevant issues, the results
having been thoroughly and repeatedly tested in practice.
"Motion is the mode of existence of matter…. All rest, all equilibrium,
is only relative, only has meaning in relation to one or another form of
motion…. Matter without motion is just as inconceivable as motion without
matter…. Each separate movement strives toward equilibrium, and the total motion
puts an end to the equilibrium...." [Engels
(1976), pp.74-77. Italic emphasis in the
original.]
"So long as we consider things at rest and lifeless, each one by itself…we do
not run up against any contradictions in them…. But the position is quite
different as soon as we consider things in their motion, their change, their
life, their reciprocal influence. Then we immediately become involved in
contradictions. Motion itself is a contradiction…. [T]here is a contradiction
objectively present in things and processes themselves, a contradiction is
moreover an actual force...." [Ibid.,
pp.152-53.]
"Processes which in their nature are antagonistic, contain internal
contradiction; transformation of one extreme into its opposite…. [This is] the
negation of the negation…. [which is a] law of development of nature, history
and thought; a law which…holds good in the animal an the vegetable kingdoms, in
geology, in mathematics, in history and in philosophy…. [D]ialectics is nothing
more than the science of the general laws of motion and development of nature,
human society and thought." [Ibid.,
pp.179-80.]
"The great basic thought that the world is not to be comprehended as a complex
of ready-made things, but as a complex of
processes, in which the things apparently stable…go through an uninterrupted
change of coming into being and passing away…. [T]he transformation of energy,
which has demonstrated to us that all the so-called forces operative in the
first instance in inorganic nature -- mechanical force and its complement,
so-called potential energy, heat, radiation (light, or radiant heat),
electricity, magnetism and chemical energy -- are different forms of
manifestation of universal motion…. [W]e have now arrived at the point where we
can demonstrate the interconnection between the processes in nature not only in
particular spheres but also the interconnection of these particular spheres on
the whole…by means of the facts provided by empirical natural science itself." [Engels
(1888), pp.609-11. Italic emphasis in the
original.]
"All
motion is bound up with some change of
place…. The whole of nature accessible to us forms a system, an interconnected
totality of bodies…. [These] react one on another, and it is precisely this
mutual reaction that constitutes motion…. When two bodies act on each other…they
either attract each other or they repel each other…in short, the old polar
opposites of attraction and repulsion…. It is expressly to be
noted that attraction and repulsion are not regarded here as so-called
'forces', but as simple forms of motion...." [Engels (1954),
pp.70-71. Italic emphases in the original.]
"All motion consists in the interplay of attraction and repulsion. Motion,
however, is only possible when each individual attraction is compensated by a
corresponding repulsion somewhere else…. Hence, all attraction and all
repulsions in the universe must mutually balance one another…. Dialectics
has proved from the results of our experience of nature so far that all polar
opposites in general are determined by the mutual action of the two opposite
poles on each other, that the separation and opposition of these poles exist
only within their mutual connection and union...." [Ibid.,
p.72. Bold emphasis added.]
"All natural processes are two-sided, they are based on the relation of at least
two operative parts, action and reaction. The notion of force, however, owing to
its origin from the action of the human organism on the external world…implies
that only one part is active, the other part being passive…[and appearing] as a
resistance...." [Ibid.,
p.82.]
"Dialectics…prevails throughout nature…. [T]he motion through opposites which
asserts itself everywhere in nature, and which by the continual conflict of
the opposites…determines the life of nature...." [Ibid.,
p.211. Bold emphasis added.]
"[A]ttraction is a necessary property of matter, but not repulsion. But
attraction and repulsion are as inseparable as positive and negative, and hence
from dialectics itself it can already be predicted that the true theory of
matter must assign a place to repulsion as to attraction, and that a theory
of matter based on mere attraction is false…. Equilibrium is inseparable from
motion…. All equilibrium is only relative and
temporary…. Motion of the heavenly bodies [is an] approximate equilibrium
of attraction and repulsion in motion." [Ibid.,
pp.243-46. Bold emphases alone added.]
This is how Bukharin made a similar point:
"[T]he world consists of forces, acting many ways, opposing each other.
These forces are balanced for a moment in exceptional cases only. We then have a
state of 'rest', i.e., their actual 'conflict' is concealed. But if we change
only one of these forces, immediately the 'internal contradictions' will be
revealed, equilibrium will be disturbed, and if a new equilibrium is again
established, it will be on a new basis, i.e., with a new combination of
forces, etc. It follows that the 'conflict,' the 'contradiction,' i.e., the
antagonism of forces acting in various directions, determines the motion of the
system…." [Bukharin
(1925), p.74. Bold emphasis added.]
And here are
Lenin's thoughts:
"The identity of opposites…is the recognition…of the contradictory, mutually
exclusive, opposite tendencies in all
phenomena and processes of nature…. Development is the 'struggle' of
opposites." [Lenin
(1961), pp.357-58. Bold emphasis alone added.]
Here, too, is
Stalin:
"Dialectics comes
from the Greek
dialego, to discourse, to debate. In ancient times dialectics was the art of
arriving at the truth by disclosing the contradictions in the argument of an
opponent and overcoming these contradictions. There were philosophers in ancient
times who believed that the disclosure of contradictions in thought and the
clash of opposite opinions was the best method of arriving at the truth. This
dialectical method of thought, later extended to the phenomena of nature,
developed into the dialectical method of apprehending nature, which regards the
phenomena of nature as being in constant movement and undergoing constant
change, and the development of nature as the result of the development of the
contradictions in nature, as the result of the interaction of opposed forces in
nature." [Stalin (1976b), p.836, quoted from
here.
Bold emphasis alone added.]
Mao added his two cents' worth (but he confined his comments to
the connection between social forces and contradictions):
"What
is even more fundamental for the study of the particular features of the two
parties is the examination of the class basis of the two parties and the
resultant contradictions which have arisen between each party and other forces
at different periods.
For instance, in the period of its first cooperation with the Communist Party,
the Kuomintang stood in contradiction to foreign imperialism and was therefore
anti-imperialist; on the other hand, it stood in contradiction to the great
masses of the people within the country -- although in words it promised many
benefits to the working people, in fact it gave them little or nothing. In the
period when it carried on the anti-Communist war, the Kuomintang collaborated
with imperialism and feudalism against the great masses of the people and wiped
out all the gains they had won in the revolution, and thereby intensified its
contradictions with them. In the present period of the anti-Japanese war, the
Kuomintang stands in contradiction to Japanese imperialism and wants
co-operation with the Communist Party, without however relaxing its struggle
against the Communist Party and the people or its oppression of them. As for the
Communist Party, it has always, in every period, stood with the great masses of
the people against imperialism and feudalism, but in the present period of the
anti-Japanese war, it has adopted a moderate policy towards the Kuomintang and
the domestic feudal forces because the Kuomintang has pressed itself in favour
of resisting Japan. The above circumstances have resulted now in alliance
between the two parties and now in struggle between them, and even during the
periods of alliance there has been a complicated state of simultaneous alliance
and struggle.
If we do not study the particular features of both aspects of the contradiction,
we shall fail to understand not only the relations of each party with the other
forces, but also the relations between the two parties....
"There are still two points in the problem of the particularity of contradiction
which must be singled out for analysis, namely, the principal contradiction and
the principal aspect of a contradiction. There are many contradictions in the
process of development of a complex thing, and one of them is necessarily the
principal contradiction whose existence and development determine or influence
the existence and development of the other contradictions.
For instance, in capitalist society
the two forces in contradiction, the proletariat and the bourgeoisie, form the
principal contradiction.
The other contradictions, such as those between the remnant feudal class and the
bourgeoisie, between the peasant petty bourgeoisie and the bourgeoisie, between
the proletariat and the peasant petty bourgeoisie, between the non-monopoly
capitalists and the monopoly capitalists, between bourgeois democracy and
bourgeois fascism, among the capitalist countries and between imperialism and
the colonies, are all determined or influenced by this principal contradiction."
[Mao (1937), pp,327-31.
Bold emphases added; several paragraphs merged.]
Veteran communist philosopher,
Maurice
Cornforth, had this to say:
"If we consider the real, complex
movements and interconnections of real complex things, then we find that
contradictory tendencies can and do exist in them. For example, if the forces
operating in a body combine tendencies of attraction and of repulsion, that is a
real contradiction…. [C]ontradiction is the driving force of change…. [O]nly
the presence of contradictions in a process…provides the internal conditions
making change necessary…. The real universe is…full of contradictions -- the
contradictions of attraction and repulsion studied by physics…." [Cornforth
(1976), pp.92-95. Bold emphases added.]
The author
of TAR, John Rees,
remarked as follows:
"The conservatism of Hegel's system is
thus buried in his notion of contradiction. Contradictions in Hegel are merely
intellectual contradictions to be resolved by merely intellectual methods….
The dialectic is therefore only a pseudo-dialectic; its contradictions are never
those of opposed material forces capable of doing real damage or of effecting
real progress…. Marx was, however, obliged to transform completely the
terms of the dialectic when he altered its starting point from abstract concepts
to real material forces…. The contradictions are no longer simply between
concepts but between real, material forces…. Marx and Engels's dialectic is
utterly different from Hegel's. It starts from real, material, empirically
verifiable contradictions." [Rees (1998), pp.67-69, 83. Bold emphases added.]
Here is
leading Trotskyist Dialectician, the late George Novack:
"The
unified process of development is the universality of the dialectic, which
maintains that everything is linked together and interactive, in continuous
motion and change, and that this change is the outcome of the conflict of
opposing forces within nature as well as everything to be found in it."
[Quoted in Green Left, 20/10/1993. I owe this reference to Petersen
(1994), p.156. Bold emphasis added.]
Our old
friends, Woods and
Grant [henceforth, W&G] expressed themselves as follows:
"Dialectics explains that change and
motion involve contradiction and can only take place through contradictions....
Dialectics is the logic of contradiction.... So fundamental is this idea to
dialectics that Marx and Engels considered motion to be the most basic
characteristic of matter.... [Referring to a quote from Aristotle] [t]his is not
the mechanical conception of motion as something imparted to an inert mass by an
external 'force' but an entirely different notion of matter as self-moving.... The essential point of dialectical
thought is not that it is based on the idea of change and motion but that it
views motion and change as phenomena based on contradiction.... Contradiction
is an essential feature of all being. It lies at the heart of matter itself.
It is the source of all motion, change, life and development. The dialectical
law which expresses this idea is the unity and interpenetration of opposites....
The universal phenomena of the unity of opposites is, in reality, the
motor-force of all motion and development in nature. It is the reason why it
is not necessary to introduce the concept of external impulse to explain
movement and change -- the fundamental weakness of all mechanistic theories.
Movement, which itself involves a contradiction, is only possible as a result of
the conflicting tendencies and inner tensions which lie at the heart of all
forms of matter.... The opposing tendencies can exist in a
state of uneasy equilibrium for long periods of time, until some change, even a
small quantitative change, destroys the equilibrium and gives rise to a critical
state which can produce a qualitative transformation. In 1936, Bohr compared the
structure of the nucleus to a drop of liquid, for example, a raindrop hanging
from a leaf. Here the force of gravity struggles with that of surface tension
striving to keep the water molecules together. The addition of just a few
more molecules to the liquid renders it unstable. The enlarged droplet begins to
shudder, the surface tension is no longer able to hold the mass to the leaf and
the whole thing falls.
"Attraction
and Repulsion
"This is an extension of the law of the
unity and interpenetration of opposites. It is a law which permeates the
whole of nature, from the smallest phenomena to the largest. At the base of the
atom are immense forces of attraction and repulsion.... Engels points out the
universal role of attraction and repulsion:
'All motion consists in the interplay of
attraction and repulsion. Motion, however, is only possible when each individual
attraction is compensated by a corresponding repulsion somewhere else. Otherwise
in time one side would get the preponderance over the other and then motion
would finally cease. Hence all attractions and all repulsions in the universe
must mutually balance one another. Thus the law of the indestructibility and
uncreatability of motion is expressed in the form that each movement of
attraction in the universe must have as its complement an equivalent movement of
repulsion and vice versa; or, as ancient philosophy -- long before the
natural-scientific formulation of the law of conservation of force or energy --
expressed it: the sum of all attractions in the universe is equal to the sum of
all repulsions.'
"In Engels' day, the prevailing idea of
motion was derived from classical mechanics, where motion is imparted from an
external force which overcomes the force of inertia. Engels was quite scathing
about the very expression 'force,' which he considered one-sided and
insufficient to describe the real processes of nature. 'All natural
processes,' he wrote, 'are two-sided, they are based on the relation of at least
two operative parts, action and reaction. The notion of force, however,
owing to its origin from the action of the human organism on the external world,
and further from terrestrial mechanics, implies that only one part is active,
operative, the other part being passive, receptive.'
Engels was far in advance of his time in being highly critical of this notion,
which had already been attacked by Hegel. In his History of Philosophy, Hegel
remarks that 'It is better (to say) that a magnet has a soul (as Thales
expresses it) than that it has an attractive force; force is a kind of property
that, separate from matter, is put forward as a kind of predicate -- while soul,
on the other hand, is this movement itself, identical with the nature of
matter.' This remark of Hegel, approvingly quoted by Engels, contains a profound
idea -- that motion and energy are inherent to matter. Matter is
self-moving and self-organising." [Woods
and Grant (1995/2007), pp.43-45, 47, 68, 71-72.
The page number for each of these passages is slightly different in the 2nd
edition. W&G's
reference here is to Engels (1955), pp.95-96, 110. Quotation marks altered to
conform with the conventions adopted at this site. Bold emphases added; several
paragraphs merged.]
It is
interesting to note in passing that W&G naively record Engels's
approving reference to Hegel's depiction of magnets as having 'souls' while
failing to notice its mystical implications. How could that notion -- i.e., 'having a soul'
-- be given a 'materialist spin', aimed at putting Hegel's theory 'back on its
feet'/'the right way up'? Presumably a soul is a soul,
upside down or not.
"What characterises the dialectical
world, in all its aspects, as we have described it is that it is constantly in
motion. Constants become variables, causes become effects, and systems
develop, destroying the conditions that gave rise to them. Even elements that
appear to be stable are in a dynamic equilibrium of forces that can suddenly
become unbalanced, as when a grey lump of metal of a critical size becomes a
fireball brighter than a thousand suns.... This appearance of opposing forceshas
given rise to the most debated and difficult, yet the most central, concept in
dialectical thought, the principle of contradiction.... For us, contradiction
is not only epistemic and political, but ontological in the broadest sense.
Contradictions between forces are everywhere in nature, not only in human
social institutions.... [O]pposing forces lie at the basis of the evolving
physical and biological world. Things change because of the action of
opposing forces on them, and things are the way they are because of the
temporary balance of opposing forces.... The dialectical view insists that
persistence and equilibrium are not the natural state of things but require
explanation, which must be sought in the actions of the opposing forces....
The opposing forces are seen as
contradictory in the sense that each taken separately would have opposite
effects, and their joint action may be different from the results of either
acting alone.... However, the principle that all things are internally
heterogeneous directs our attention to the opposing processes at work within
the object.... Thus systems are either
self-negating (state A leads to some state not-A) or depend for their
persistence on self-negating processes. We see contradiction first of all as
self-negation. From this perspective it is not too different from logical
contradiction. In formal logic process is usually replaced by static
set-structural relations, and the dynamic of 'A leads to B' is replaced by 'A
implies B'. But all real reasoning is takes place in time, and the classical
logical paradoxes can be seen as A leads to not-A leads to A, and so on.... As against the alienated world view
that objects are isolated until proven otherwise, for us the simplest
assumption is that things are connected...." [Levins and Lewontin (1985),
pp.279-87. Bold emphases alone added. Spelling modified to agree with UK
English. Paragraphs merged.]
Quotations like these
(in addition to those reproduced in Note 1) can be multiplied almost indefinitely.1
Admittedly, such passages
are often hedged about with numerous qualifications -- again, depending on the context and the author
in question
-- but the overall message is
reasonably clear.2
Nevertheless, my concern here isn't so much with whether these passages are
consistent with one another, or even whether anyattempt has ever been
made to substantiate the sweeping generalisations they make with anything
likeadequate evidence
--
or, indeed, any at all --, but with
whether the theory that 'opposing forces' can be used to model, illustrate or explain
'dialectical contradictions', makes any
sense at all.3
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; TOR = Theory Of Relativity.]
As we are about
to find out, the identification of 'forces' with 'contradictions'
is about misconceived an idea as anything else we have so far met emerging from the
DM-Grimoire -- that is, where any sense can be made of it.4
First of all, there are several obvious 'difficulties' with the whole idea. For example,
if the forces in a system are in 'conflict' -- and are thereby 'contradictory' --
there would presumably have to be at least two of them, with both
in simultaneous opposition to each other (actually or
potentially), for that to be the case. But, when we consider one of the most
important, universal examples of motion in the universe -- i.e., the trajectory
of bodies in a gravitational field -- we find that in Classical Physics, at
least, this sort of motion is governed by the operation of at most one
force, which deflects the otherwise (assumed) rectilinear path of the body in
question toward the
centre of mass of the system it is affected by or is orbiting. So, if Classical Physics is to be believed, it isn't easy to see how such
'forces' could be viewed as
'contradictions'.5
Admittedly, the
picture just painted was greatly simplified,
for even in such circumstances
there could be several forces operating on an orbiting body, the resultant
motion will therefore be a function of the vector sum of all the forces acting
in, or on, the system. The point at issue here is that relative to the centre of mass of
an
orbiting body, motion isn't the result of two different sorts of forces
-- those of attraction and repulsion -- but a consequence
of justone (resultant) force. Hence, orbital motion (at least) is
a consequence of the action of
only one (resultant) force (in Classical Physics). Plainly, if there is only
one force in such a set-up, there
can be no 'contradiction'. Now, since orbital motion encompasses most, if
not all, motion in the entire universe, that means most of the latter can't be the
result of any sort of 'contradiction', 'dialectical' or otherwise.
[By
the clause, "orbital motion encompasses most, if not all, motion in the entire universe",
what is meant is that even seemingly rectilinear motion on a planet (like the
Earth) is in fact constrained by the above resultant gravitational forces.]
Furthermore, any secondary motion (resulting from the effect of other forces
operating in the system) that happens to be superimposed on the primary action
(so to speak), only serves to complicate
the above picture, it doesn't alter it. This 'extra activity' might also be the result
of other attractive -- but, not repulsive -- forces in Classical Physics
(once more), which clearly affect the said resultant. While other forces might
effect some influence
on that resultant, they don't turn it into two or more resultants. [This topic,
along with
several other alternatives, is examined again in greater detail
below.]
Of
course, it could be argued that orbital motion (of a body
around another) is in fact determined by
the operation of the two forces of attraction that pass between them, So,
concerning two such bodies, A and B: A will attract B and B
will attract A in return.
Or so it might be argued...
Maybe so,
but
it is difficult to see how two attractive forces can be
regarded as opposites or as 'contradictories' -- nor yet how they can 'struggle'
among themselves and then change into each other --
which
is what the DM-Classics tell us must be the case with all such 'dialectical
opposites' and all such 'dialectical contradictions'. How does the
attractive force originating in A turn into the attractive force
originating in B, and vice versa? As we will repeatedly see in
what follows, that means any such interaction can't be 'dialectical', whatever
else it is. [The reader is encouraged to keep awkward fact this in mind as the
Essay unfolds.]
Anyway, Engels himself
argued that 'oppositional forces' are to be interpreted as forces of attraction and
repulsion
(even though he also preferred to translate both into differential forms of motion),
despite the fact that with respect to the vast amount of the bulk motion in the
universe they seem to have little or no part to play. [Even the pro-DM objection
above sees the two forces
involved as attractive.] Not only that, but the motion of, say, planet,
C, around star,
D, is caused by forces originating in D, notC. Of
course, the forces originating in
C may affect D, which in return may affect C itself or its motion around
D. [Such complications will be examined further, below.]
It could be argued once
more
that an inter-connected and reciprocal chain of effects in play between C and
D
shows that such forces are dialectically-linked. Hence, on this view, D would affect
C's
motion while C will reciprocate and alter D's motion, which must then
also affect C's movement, and so on. But, even then, these attractive forces don't
confront each other as oppositional, and hence as 'contradictory'.
At best, such forces
affect the motion of the two bodies, which motion in turn then affects any
other forces in play, and so on. In fact, they appear to augmentone another. On that basis, if we insist on
anthropomorphising nature
in this way, shouldn't we say (and with much greater justification) that such forces aren't contradictory,
they
are in fact tautological?
Moreover, these attractive forces
don't turn into each other--
which,
once again, is what the DM-Classics tell us must be the case. (Link a few
paragraphs back). Nor do they imply
one another -- in the way that the proletariat is supposed to imply
the capitalist class, i.e., where we are told that neither can even exist without the
other
(although
I have thrown that doctrine into considerable doubt
here).
So, whatever else they are, these
forces can't be
'dialectical opposites', and, as a result, they can't be 'dialectical
contradictions', either. That must be the case, or the
DM-Classics were
seriously mistaken.
And, even if we take two such forces into account, it is their combination
(in a resultant force) which causes, or which changes, the said motion.
Notwithstanding this,
Thomas Weston has recently made a valiant attempt to find a
'second force' (or proximate cause) in such circumstances, which he attributes to...inertia!
[A rate of change of momentum might be considered a force, or the result of a
force, depending on how
Newton's Second Law is interpreted, but not momentum itself.
Force and Momentum aren't
dimensionally consistent.
Force is,
M1L1T-2;
Momentum, is
M1L1T-1, where M = Mass, L = Length, and T
= Time. (For obvious reasons, Force is often just written as, MLT-2, Momentum as, MLT-1.)]
The rate of change of momentum is also
M1L1T-2
(or MLT-2), which is why it is
dimensionally consistent with Force, but Momentum itself isn't. The
situation with Inertia is even worse: Inertia is, M1L2
-- or just, ML2. There
is no way that Inertia is a force! (On this, see Resnick, Halliday and Kane
(2002), pp.7-8. On Dimensional Analysis in general, see Lemons (2017).)]
Anyway, here is Weston:
"In the classical mechanics pioneered
by Newton, elliptical motion of a body will result if it is attracted to another
'central' body by a force inversely proportional to the square of the distance
between them, provided that the body has an initial velocity that is not too
large or too small, and not directly toward or directly away from the central
body. This situation involves only a single force on the body, which, in the
case of a planet orbiting the Sun, is the force of gravity. Gravity is not the
only cause of this motion, however. An elliptical orbit is the result of two causes, which
produce two tendencies of motion. One tendency results from the force directed
toward the central body, which makes the body turn toward that central body. The
second tendency is that of the body to continue in a straight line at a constant
speed. This tendency is usually called 'inertia'. Inertia is not a force, since
forces cause change in speed or direction, and inertia is the tendency not
to change speed or direction. Inertia is a causal principle, as Newton
recognised, calling it an 'innate force of matter'. He expressed this principle
in his first law of motion, while forces are described in the second law. In
elliptical motion, these two causes, gravity and inertia, are united by the
physical fact that the mass responsible for inertia is proportional to the mass
that gives rise to gravity. This fact is an important element in recognising the
dialectical contradiction in elliptical motion." [Weston
(2012), pp.6-7. Bold emphasis alone added; paragraphs merged.]
Admittedly, Weston
does deny inertia is
a force, but he then quotes Newton to the effect that it is -- or, to be more
precise, it is "a force
of matter"! Of course, it could be argued that gravity is a force that
tends to change motion while inertia resists it, and hence that we do have here
opposition and hence a contradiction. But even if that were allowed, we still wouldn't have a
'contradiction' between 'opposing forces'. At best we would have something
that could loosely be described as a 'contradiction' between opposing
tendencies, but why we might want to call that a 'contradiction' to begin
with Weston neglected to say. As we have repeatedly seen with other DM-theorists,
Weston just helped himself to this word with no attempt to justify his use of it.
Even more problematic: Weston nowhere explains how gravity and inertia can "struggle" with each other (whether or not
they are, or they cause, opposing "tendencies"), or how they could possibly turn into
one another -- which, for the third time, is what the
DM-classics tell us they must "inevitably" do (link a few paragraphs
back). Nor are we
told if, or how, they imply each other, such that one of them can't
exist without the other -- which they will also have to do to be counted as
'dialectical opposites'. So, whatever else the connection is here, it can't
be 'dialectical'!
Of course,
it could be argued that even in the depths of space all bodies move under the
action of some force (howsoever remote its source is), so there will always be a
tendency to change motion coupled with a tendency to oppose it. In which case,
these two factors do imply one another. Again, even if that were admitted,
this connection had to be discovered. In that case, it can't be a logical
connection (which is supposed to be what inter-links the proletariat with the
capitalist class). Logical connections are readily apparent from the concepts
involved (which is, once again, what links the proletariat with the capitalist
class) --
they aren't discovered. No one discovered that a regicide is a
king-killer or that a female deer is a doe. Who on earth has ever looked for
evidence that a triangle has three intersecting edges? And, to repeat, these
factors do not turn into each other! In that case, and once more:
whatever
else the inter-connection is here, it can't be 'dialectical'!
Having said
all that -- as we are about to discover --, gravity isn't even a force!
So, Weston ends up with zero forces!
Even more
revealing, Weston himself admits that Hegel
argued that the orbital motion of a
planet is governed by the operation of only one force:
"We must not therefore speak of forces.
If we want to
speak of force, then there is but one force, and its moments do not, as
two forces, pull in different directions." [Hegel (2004), p.65. Bold emphasis alone
added.]
As pointed
out earlier, it is difficult to see
how a 'dialectical contradiction' can be cobbled-together from only one force.
Another serious difficulty arising from Weston's attempt to
shoehorn Marx's comments into this ill-fitting 'dialectical boot' is the
inconsistent way he [Weston] uses the word "tendency". One minute "tendencies" aren't
causes; they are
caused by
something else (e.g., in the first of the above passages, where it seems that an
elliptical orbit "produce[s] two tendencies of motion"); next they are causes:
"Tendency A, if strong enough, will cause the opposite
tendency B to be less fully realised than if tendency A were absent, and
conversely." [Weston
(2012), p.17. Bold emphasis added. I examine variations on this theme later
on in this Essay.]
Finally, Weston only mentions the TOR once (p.7, ftn.17), but
even then he fails to notice that one of the principle factors in the 'contradiction'
here -- gravitational force -- has been edited out of the picture! 'The force of gravity' has been replaced
by motion along a geodesic.
According to the TOR, we no longer have even one force operating in such
circumstances,
since gravity isn't a force in Contemporary Physics!
In which case, post-Classical Physics offers
even less help to DM-theorists in their desperate bid to find a physical correlate
for the 'contradictions' with which Hegel unhelpfully saddled them. According to
the TOR, most, if not all, of the bulk motion in the universe is either a function of the topology of
Spacetime (gravitational 'force' having been
excised), or
it is the result of the body in question being located in a
tensor,
vector, or
scalar field, in as
many dimensions of
phase space as are deemed necessary or appropriate.6
As one of
the standard textbooks on gravitation points out:
"Whatever aspect of
gravity one measures, and however one measures it, one is studying the geometry
of space-time." [Misner,
et al (1973), p.400. Bold emphasis added. (This links to a PDF.)]
One
history of the concept of force also noted the following:
"In Newton's theory the symbol F in F = ma refers to the
cause of the acceleration of the body. Force, then, is an external agent that
acts on matter with an inertial mass m, causing it to accelerate at the rate a.
In the GTR [General Theory of Relativity -- RL], however, there is no external
force. Indeed, Einstein was able to derive Newton's equation F = ma from purely
geometric considerations. He saw the possibility that all 'external' forces may
be only apparent -- that the 'effect' of other matter may be representable by a
generalization of the geometry of space-time that describes the motions." [Stinner
(1994), p.84.
Bold emphases added.
(This links to a PDF.)]
Once again, if there are no such forces, there can be no
DM-'contradictions', so conceived.
[On this, see Goldstein, et al (2002),
pp.34-36, and Jammer (1999), pp.158-264.]
And, this
isn't just the case with respect to gravity, as physicist,
Max Jammer,
points out:
"[The eliminability of force]...is not confined
to the force of gravitation. The question of whether forces of any kind
do exist, or do not and are only conventions, ha[s] become the subject of heated
debates.... In
quantum chromodynamics,
gauge theories, and
the so-called
Standard Model
the notion of 'force' is treated only as an
exchange of momentum and therefore replaced by the
ontologically less demanding
concept of 'interaction' between particles, which manifests itself by the
exchange of different particles that mediate this interaction...." [Jammer
(1999), p.v. Paragraphs merged; links and bold emphasis alone added.]6a
Of course, this isn't how nature is pictured in the Physics Textbooks used in
schools and colleges, where the word, "force", is still employed for
heuristic purposes.
[On that, see Crundell, Goodwin and Mee (2014), pp.71-79, and Halliday, Resnick
and Walker (2011), pp.87-165.] But, as Jammer
points out, in
"Higher Physics", force has been edited out of the story, replaced by
exchange particles
(which, as we saw in Essay Seven Part One, are themselves merely 'disturbances
in the field' -- link at the end of Note 4).
This reconfiguration was re-iterated by Nobel Laureate,
Professor
Frank Wilczek in the following terms:
"The paradox deepens when we consider force from
the perspective of modern physics. In fact, the concept of force is
conspicuously absent from our most advanced formulations of the basic laws. It
doesn't appear in
Schrödinger's equation, or in any reasonable formulation of
quantum field theory, or in the foundations of
general relativity. Astute
observers commented on this trend to eliminate force even before the emergence
of relativity and quantum mechanics. In his 1895 Dynamics, the prominent
physicist
Peter G. Tait, who was a close friend and collaborator of
Lord Kelvin
and
James Clerk Maxwell, wrote
'In all methods and systems which involve the
idea of force there is a leaven of artificiality...there is no necessity for the
introduction of the word 'force' nor of the sense−suggested ideas on which it
was originally based.'" [Quoted from
here. Bold emphasis and links added. By "sense-suggested", Tait is obviously referring to the origin of the
concept of force in human interaction with the world and with other humans,
a fact also acknowledged by
Engels. Several paragraphs merged.]
[The above now appears in Wilczek (2006), pp.37-38.
It should be pointed out that compared with Jammer, Wilczek in the end is --
shall we say -- 'a little more equivocal about this'.]
This view has been criticised quite effectively by
Wilson (2007).
(This links to a PDF.)
Much of
Wilson's article is unexceptionable
(in
that I don't want to take issue with it, and not just because it deals with
topics far removed from the aims of this site), but I will take exception to a
few of the things she says (and which appear in works she references). Having
said that, I am not a Physicist, so this knotty problem will have to be resolved
by members of that profession, or by Philosophers of Science. One can
only wish them 'Good Luck!', which is a comment that will make a little more sense to
readers after they have consulted Essay Thirteen Part Two.] Concerning
relevant issues raised by Wilson, there are seven points I wish to make:
First, in
response to the infinite regress argument against forces (my version of which
can be found here,
but summarised below)
Wilson references a counter-argument published in Bigelow, et al (1988),
which she characterises (rather opaquely) as follows:
"[Another
objection] raised against forces is that these induce a vicious regress.... The
worry gets going via the supposition that Newtonian forces mediate between
nonforce entities and motions, and are required for the former to bring about
the latter: if nonforce entities require forces in order to produce motions,
then won’t forces require further forces in order to do so, and so on, ad
infinitum? This worry can be easily met, so I won’t treat it further beyond what
I will now say. First, one can respond (as Bigelow et al. do) by
accepting the supposition, but maintaining that forces are of a different
ontological category from nonforce entities, so that there is no reason to
suppose that forces are like nonforce entities in requiring forces to bring
about motions. Second, one can deny the supposition, as misidentifying the
motivation for forces. As I will argue in Section 4, forces are posited not
because they are required in order for nonforce entities to produce motions
(nonforce entities are perfectly capable of such production) but rather because
the characteristic features of forces provide a distinctive unifying basis for
explaining and determining these motions. There is nothing in this motivation
for forces which requires accepting the supposition, so the regress never gets
started." [Wilson (2007), pp,174-75, footnote 1. The original counter-argument,
which is much more involved, can be found in Bigelow, et al (1988),
pp.621ff.]
Whatever the merits of the above remarks turn out to
be, they have nothing to do with my version of the infinite regress argument (and
the same can be said about the fuller version found in Bigelow, el al
(1988), which also deals with 'motions'). My version takes issue with the
physical nature of forces: are they particulate or are they continuous
(i.e., non-particulate)? I argue first of all that they can't be particulate
without postulating further forces internal each particle/object that endow them with
sufficient cohesion during or after an interaction with other force particles or
objects. But that just
pushes the problem one stage further back. So, in
order to account for the ability of particles/objects to resist one another (and not
pass through each other totally unaffected), yet more forces internal to
each particle are required to prevent any such penetration, or, indeed, prevent any
resulting distortions tearing one or both apart. But, if these new internal forces are
also particulate -- as it seems they must be, given this
alternative --
it would require
still further internal forces to account for the coherence of these new, inner,
inner,
'force-particles', and so on...
In order to
prevent an infinite regress, at some point there would have to be particles/objects that
are perfectly rigid -- but that rigidity would have be the result of no further internal forces, which would ultimately mean that forces can be
dispended with. [Why that is so was covered in greater detail in
Part One, where further
serious problems implied by either alternative were also aired.]
Alternatively, if these forces
are
non-particulate -- i.e., if they are continuous media of some sort --, they would be incapable of maintaining
any sort of inner cohesion since they would have no rigidity, etc., etc.
in such circumstances, colliding particles/objects would simply pass through one another and register no
exchange of momentum. Why there are any changes in motion caused by such
forces would be inexplicable.
In the end nothing would be accounted for
since, at each level, there would be
nothing to provide the required resistance or coherence.
Admittedly,
the above infinite regress argument focuses on particle-particle interaction as
opposed to gravitational effects (i.e., if we rule out the yet-to-be-discovered
'graviton'), which was
Wilson's concern, but she later half admits that Newtonian forces don't operate
at the quantum level (pp.180-81), which clearly counts against the universal
application of Newtonian Mechanics. However, the above regress argument was
rehearsed simply to counter attempts to re-direct Wilson's response against the
argument used in this Essay (and in Part One). Having said that,
much of the above still applies to Newtonian gravitational forces and whether
they are particulate or continuous. So, the same regress applies
here, too.
[TOR = Theory of Relativity; QM = Quantum
Mechanics; NM = Newtonian Mechanics.]
Second,
Wilson admits that NM has to be modified (to MN', to use her symbolism) -- and
in places that modification has to be quite radical --, so it can
accommodate the same phenomena as the TOR [Wilson (2007), pp.178-87)].
Unfortunately, that throws into doubt the equation of the forces she is trying
to rehabilitate with those that Newton himself envisaged. [However, the problem
goes much deeper than this, as we will see in Essay Thirteen Part Two.]
Third, we
have already seen that Wilson half admits that Newtonian forces as such don't operate at
the quantum level, which motivates her into claiming that NM should be regarded
as a 'special science'. But, any such theoretical re-brand looks uncomfortably like special pleading. Moreover, given the above infinite regress argument (which directly confronts
all
interpretations of QM, and that includes any special dispensations extended to
Wilson and her 'modified' NM -- NM'), it is clear that any reasonable judge would readily grant a
motion to dismiss. So,
whether or not or not NM' is a 'special science', the regress argument shows
that it is impossible to interpret forces in a way that avoid an infinite
regress, which not only completely undermines their explanatory power, it means
we have no absolutely idea what these 'occult entities' are (a term we owe to
Berkeley and Newton, as we are about to see), or how they can have an
affect on anything at all. Indeed, forces uncomfortably resemble the
'angels' that used to push the planets in their orbits around the Earth in
Medieval Astronomy!
Fourth,
Wilson then considers whether or not forces are "useful fictions", and the
question soon becomes "Are forces observable?" Here is her answer:
"Certainly we seem
to experience forces, as anyone who has ever bumped into a table, opened a
window, tripped, lifted anything, stood on their head, or been the victim of
static cling can attest. We continually seem to experience forces as we come
into contact with other entities in the world, and we often seem to feel
specific forces, such as gravitational and electromagnetic forces. Whatever the
type of force, and throughout the diversity of our experience, we seem to
experience these as pushes and pulls, having particular directions and
magnitudes; moreover, we experience the features of ‘felt forces’, as I will
call them, as specifically relevant to the production of motions, our own as
well as those of other objects." [Wilson (2007), p.189.]
But, that argument just adds support to Engels's
claim that the origin of the force concept is animistic:
"All natural
processes are two-sided, they are based on the relation of at least two
operative parts, action and reaction. The notion of force, however, owing to
its origin from the action of the human organism on the external world…implies
that only one part is active, the other part being passive…[and appearing] as a
resistance." [Engels (1954),
p.82. Bold emphasis added.]
Of course, it could be countered that that would
also apply to everything else humans experience, like solidity, length, heat,
colour... Must we reject those, too, on the basis they have an 'animistic'
origin?
But, the problem with Wilson's argument is that when
we bump into a table, for example, we feel the table not a force! Wilson calling
this a force is an inference based on a metaphysical theory that these
paradoxical entities (which can neither be particulate or non-particulate)
nevertheless exist. Wilson nowhere confronts this neo-Leibnizian regress
objection to forces. Even to this day, no one has the slightest clue what
forces are or what they are made of. Not even those who believe in them!
Berkeley's objection to forces therefore still seems
to stand (Wilson even (partially) quoted it (on p.187):
"As long as heavy bodies are supported by us, we feel in
ourselves effort, fatigue, and discomfort. We also perceive in descending heavy
bodies an accelerated motion toward the center of the earth: but beyond this we
perceive nothing by sense. By reason however we gather that there is some cause
or principle of these phenomena, and this is commonly called 'gravity.' But
since the cause of the descent of heavy bodies is unseen and unknown, gravity in
this sense cannot properly be called a sensible quality.It is therefore
an occult quality. But one can scarcely (and indeed not even scarcely)
conceive what an occult quality is, or how any quality could act or effect
anything. And so it would be better if, dismissing the occult quality, men
attended only to sensible effects; and if setting aside abstract terms in
meditation (however useful they may be in discussion), the mind were fixed on
particulars and concrete things, that is on the things themselves. 'Force' is
similarly attributed to bodies; but this word is taken as if it signified a
known quality, and one as distinct from motion, figure and every other sensibile
thing as from every affection of a living thing. Yet anyone examining the matter
more closely will agree that this is nothing other than an occult quality.
Animal effort and corporeal motion are commonly regarded as the symptoms and
measures of this occult quality.
"It is therefore obvious that gravity or force are taken in
vain as the principle of motion: for how can this principle be more clearly
known by being called an occult quality? What itself is occult explains
nothing. And let us overlook the fact that this unknown active cause would be
better called a substance than a quality. Moreover, 'force,' 'gravity', and
words of this sort are more often (and not improperly) taken in concrete, so as
to mean the body moved, the difficulty of resisting, &c. Yet when they are
used by philosophers to signify certain natures prescinded and abstracted from
all these things, which neither are the object of the senses nor can be framed
by any force of the intellect or the imagination, then indeed they produce
errors and confusion." [Berkeley, De Motu, pp.74-75, quoted from
here. (This links to a
PDF.). Bold emphases added. Quotation marks altered to conform with the
conventions adopted at this site; several paragraphs merged. Minor typos
corrected.]
Without doubt, it would be foolish indeed to deny
the existence of anything we can't see (etc.) -- or that lacks a "sensible
quality" (to use Berkeley's term), and yet it would be the no less unwise to
admit the existence of something that is not just insensible, but the
nature concerning which it is impossible to make any sense (as the above regress
argument shows). So, while Berkeley was right to question the existence of
forces, he did so for the wrong reason.
Unfortunately, Wilson fails to address this entire
topic. Even though she does spend time criticising empiricist objections
to the existence of forces, the case against them set out at this site isn't
based on any such empiricism. Hence, what she has to say fails to be relevant to
the points raised earlier.
Fifth, Wilson next considers claims that forces are
ontologically redundant (i.e., they are surplus to requirements in
Physics), which means, according to
Ockham's Razor, they
should be jettisoned. Again, this has zero to do with the argument presented in
this Essay.
Sixth: Wilson then counters claims that forces
should be rejected since any appeal to them "overdetermines" physical
explanations of the phenomena. So, while we might say that a brick thrown at a
window smashed that window, adding forces would be unnecessary since the brick
does all the work (so to speak). Adding a force to the action of that brick 'over-eggs'
the explanation. The brick needs no help from these 'occult entities'. Anyway,
this alternative seems to be a variation on the redundancy objection, which
means it, too, is irrelevant to the negative case developed at this site.
Seventh, Wilson then tries to develop a positive
account of forces, but soon (inexplicably!) gets bogged down over complex issues
in Cognitive Theory and the nature of 'mental causation' (and, indeed, causation
in general)! Since I have dealt with this at length in Essay Thirteen
Part Three, readers are referred
there for more details. Anyway, this too has nothing to do with the negative
case advanced at this site.
That is it! So, Wilson (i) fails to address the
regress argument, and (ii) much of what she has to say is irrelevant.
Finally, as noted above, it is up to Physicists to
decide this issue, but unless and until they tackle Leibniz's regress objection,
all their efforts will run into the ground (no pun intended).
So, the case for the existence of forces has yet
to be made.
[If I can summon up the will, I'll also take a look
at
Bigelow, et al
(1988), and any other academic articles I can find that try to convince us these
'occult entities' -- forces -- actually exist.]
Even
those two DM-True-Believers,W&G,
were forced to acknowledge this
(awkward) fact about forces in Contemporary Physics (no pun intended!):
"Gravity is not a 'force,' but a relation between real
objects. To a man falling off a high building, it seems that the ground is
'rushing towards him.' From the standpoint of relativity, that observation is
not wrong. Only if we adopt the mechanistic and one-sided concept of 'force' do
we view this process as the earth's gravity pulling the man downwards, instead
of seeing that it is precisely the interaction of two bodies upon each other."
[Woods and Grant (1995/2007),
p.156; bold emphasis added.
The page number for this passage is slightly different in the 2nd
edition.]
However, and despite what
those two might say, it is reasonably clear that a mere "relation" between two bodies is
incapable of making either of them move -- unless there were a 'force' of
some sort operating between them, or, indeed, something else consequent
on that relation, such as a time-based
trajectory along a "world-line",
perhaps(?) to bring that about.6b
Unfortunately, this means that most (if not all!) of the
bulk
motion in the universe can't be accounted for by DM (that is, if such
motion, or, change of motion, is held to be the result of 'contradictions' interpreted as'opposingforces').
Again: if there is only one force present -- or perhaps even none at all!
-- there can't be any 'dialectical
contradictions', to begin with.
Admittedly,
Engels made a weak attempt to solve the orbital 'problem' by
inventing a repulsive force, which he implausibly identified with "heat" (see, for example,
Engels (1954), pp.73-80).7
[I haven't reproduced that material here since
it is far too long and mind-numbingly tedious. Readers are invited to check for themselves to
see if I have misrepresented Engels or maybe missed something significant.]
Nevertheless, it is far
from clear what Engels was driving at in those pages. If he meant to say
that heat operates as a repulsive force then that would be a desperate
and unconvincing move (no pun intended). Not only do cold bodies have orbiting satellites (e.g., Neptune),
hot bodies swallow matter up all the time. It is possible that Engels simply
copied this idea off a number of theorists who had been working on this phenomenon in the previous century. [On
this, see Hesse (1961) and Williams
(1980).]
Admittedly, Engels considered other repulsive forces that might (plausibly)
operate in a planetary system, but his ideas weren't just speculative and
fanciful, they were totally ad hoc. I
can find no evidence that anyone else -- DM-fan or otherwise -- has followed up
on, or has developed any of these ideas in the intervening years.
For example,
Engels appealed to the original repulsive properties of the "individual particles
of the gaseous sphere" from which the Solar System was formed (as a result of
"contraction"), to account for its origin by means of an "interplay of
attraction and repulsion." [Ibid.,
pp.73-74.]
It would be difficult to
find a better example than this of how the 'dialectical method' has
been
imposed on nature, not deduced from it. And we can assert
that
with no little confidence. Even if Engels's 'theory' weren't so obviously fanciful, it
certainly couldn't
have been deduced from the phenomena since these hypothetical incidents took
place billions of years ago. Admittedly, there might be, or there might even have been, theoretical
considerations that recommended this approach to Engels as a tentative 'explanation'
of how the Solar System could have formed -- although even that is
questionable since he explicitly based his ideas on the old
Nebular Theory --
proposed by Immanuel Kant
and Pierre-Simon Laplace
--, which was itself
nearly a century old even in his day and has since been replaced by
several more recent theories. But, even granting all this, Engels's
account is superficial, impressionistic and lacks both mathematical and evidential
support. It was clearly motivated by his desire to find some force -- anyforce -- to counterbalance gravity just because DM requires it,
not because the phenomena dictate it -- rather like
Thomas Weston, in fact. This is a classic example of Engels
using the concepts he inherited from Hegel as a dogmatic
"form
of representation",
and, as we will see, a thoroughly confused one into the bargain.
[The difference between Metaphysics and
Science will be explored in Essay Thirteen Part Two. On Metaphysics and DM in
general, see Essay
Twelve
Part One.]
Admittedly, Einstein himself wasn't above inventing forces to suit his
theory; the same is also the case with Newton -- cf., Cohen (1970) and Jammer
(1999), pp.116-57. Indeed, Einstein introduced the
Cosmological Constant
to account for the fact that the Universe hasn't collapsed in on itself, an
entity that has now morphed into
Dark Energy. [Cf., Lerner (1992),
pp.131-32.] There are countless examples of moves like this in the history of science.
Thomas Kuhn
called such 'intellectual structures', "paradigms",
if or when they gained traction among the scientific community.
[On that, see Kuhn (1970,
1996), and Sharrock and Read (2002).]
Incidentally, an appeal to so-called
'centrifugal
forces' (i.e., "fictional
forces" found in Classical Physics -- e.g., also
Coriolis Forces) won't save Engels's theory either, since
these 'forces'
don't 'exist'. If anything, reference to 'centrifugal forces' is the result of a misleading
shorthand for the way that rectilinear, tangential motion will resume if a force responsible
for
centripetal acceleration ceases to operate,
for whatever reason --, but subjectively experienced in certain
(non-inertial) rotating
frames of reference.
[On the
connection between fictional forces and frames of reference, as well as a visual
demonstration of the difference between inertial and non-inertial frames,
check out this video.]
The late John Molyneux
also weighed in with the following comment:
"If anything (a grain of sand, a mountain, a tree, a fish,
a human, a society) gives the appearance of stability and permanence it is
because it constitutes a particular moment in a longer process of change. That
moment constitutes a particular balance between forces within it working for and
against change -- a unity of opposites; much as the earth's, or any planet's,
orbit around the sun represents a balance between the force of gravity pulling
it into the sun and the momentum which would send it flying off into space."
[Molyneux (2012), pp.44-45. Bold emphasis added. I suspect Molyneux might have
meant to use "inertia" in place of "momentum".]
Once again, if
the TOR is correct,
there is no 'force of gravity'.
Even supposing there were
any such forces in Molyneux's scheme-of-things, they aren't balanced by any opposing forces,
just by "momentum", which, as we
have seen, can in no way be interpreted as the 'dialectical opposite' of the
'force of
gravity'. [The significance of that particular remark (i.e., why there has to be
a unique oppositefor each object or process -- something Hegel
and Lenin called each factor's "other") is explained
here.] But, even assuming
Molyneux's attempt to impose DM on nature could somehow be made to work, or was
in any way plausible, and
"momentum" was the 'dialectical opposite' of the 'force of gravity', the
following aspect
of his theory would still fail:
"That moment constitutes a particular balance between
forces within it working for and against change -- a unity of opposites...."
[Ibid.]
But, what are the
'opposing forces' internal to the Earth that make it orbit the Sun? What
are the internal
forces in the Sun that make the Earth orbit it? Molyneux is
silent on both issues.
Of course, it could be replied that
such opposites are
internal to the Sun-Earth couple, or perhaps even the Solar System itself.
But, as we have seen, there are no 'opposing forces' there, either! Nor are there
any relevant 'united opposites'. And, even if there were, which of them is
actually providing:
"a particular balance between forces within it working for
and against change...." [Ibid.]
Is
gravity the cause of change, or does it oppose change? Does "momentum" oppose
change or create it? Is the 'dialectical union' of these two factors doing
one or the other?
[See also my
earlier comments
about Thomas Weston's recent attempt to recruit inertia, not
momentum, to the cause. (No pun intended!)]
Furthermore, are we really supposed to believe that gravity "struggles" with
momentum? Or that they turn into one another (as the
DM-classics tell us they should)? In what way does momentum imply gravity
such that neither can exist without the other? But, that ought to be the case if they formed a
'dialectical unity' (once again; rather like the
proletariat is said to imply the capitalist class, and vice versa -- where
neither can exist without the other, or so we are told)?
As usual,
in books and articles that attempt to explain DM,
we are presented with what are
in effect
less than half-formed thoughts, hastily composed off-the-cuff musings, and
ill-considered throw-away lines, which don't make sense,
evenin their own
terms.
[DN = Dialectics of Nature, i.e.,
Engels (1954); UO = Unity of Opposites;
DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context;
CAR = Cartesian Reductionism; follow
the link for an explanation.]
In view of the above, it
might be wise to interpret 'opposing forces'as
'figurative contradictions'
-- or, maybe, the other way round (i.e., interpreting 'dialectical contradictions' as 'figurative forces'). Either
of these options might form a viable, analogical, or perhaps even a metaphorical (but non-literal)
depiction of the integration and dynamism in nature and society. Alternatively, forces could be described as
'contradictions' as a sort of shorthand (but again, not to be taken literally,
rather like the way that many scientists still talk about 'the force of gravity'), which
might then allow the successful modelling
of different types of change and/or accelerated motion. Naturally, that approach
would allow the word "force" to be
edited out of the picture as a physical entity in its own right (which
would, at best, mean it was a "useful fiction"). Indeed,
Engels seems to have had this option in mind (in the passage quoted below),
where he argues that attraction and repulsion shouldn't be regarded as
forces, but as simple forms of motion. This major theoretical retreat
was perhaps
recommended to him by his admission that the concept of "force" was
originally derived from
ancient, animistic/mystical theories of nature.
Hence a literal use of "force" in DM
would
smack of anthropomorphism:8
"All motion is bound up with some change of
place…. The whole of nature accessible to us forms a system, an interconnected
totality of bodies…. [These] react one on another, and it is precisely this
mutual reaction that constitutes motion…. When two bodies act on each other…they
either attract each other or they repel each other…in short, the old polar
opposites of attraction and repulsion…. It is expressly to be
noted that attraction and repulsion are not regarded here as so-called
'forces', but as simple forms of motion...." [Engels (1954), pp.70-71.
Bold emphasis alone added.]
"All natural processes are two-sided, they are
based on the relation of at least two operative parts, action and reaction.
The notion of force, however, owing to its origin from the action of the human
organism on the external world…implies that only one part is active, the
other part being passive…[and appears] as a resistance." [Ibid.,
p.82.
Bold emphasis added.]
However, Engels's revision has two untoward consequences
he appears not to have noticed:
(1) This
move (no pun intended!) makes his version of DM look even more
positivistic
that it might already seem -- at least as Engels presents it in DN. If an appeal to forces in nature is no
more than shorthand for the relative motion of bodies, then, plainly, forces will have
no real counterpart in nature (since, of course, they have just been edited out of
the picture!). as noted above, force would then be little more than a useful
fiction, introduced in order to account for the phenomena
instrumentally
-- rather like the
epicycles of Ptolemaic Cosmology. This would make the identification of
'opposing forces' with
'contradictions'
even more problematic (as will be
demonstrated below). Once again: if there are no forces, there can be no
DM-'contradictions'. And, as we will also see, there is no way that relative motion can be
interpreted in terms of 'dialectical contradictions', either.
(2) Given this
semantic re-configuration of the word "force", the
supposed 'contradictory
relationship' between bodies would become little more than a re-description of their relative
motion. [W&G also seem to be thinking along those lines, as we saw
earlier.]
Unfortunately,
if that were so, there
would be no
'dialectical
inter-connection' between moving bodies, which appears to be an essential
'mediating factor' required
by other DM-precepts -- for instance, where we are told that
everything is "dialectically inter-connected".
The alternative put forward by Engels clearly means that causal interactions of
this sort would turn out to be external, not 'mediated' by any forces,
and hence they would fail to inter-condition each other 'internally'. [This
means there would be no
'dialectico-logical' connection between moving objects -- as explained in the next paragraph.] In which case, the
'unity-in-opposition' between objects and processes (in
the "Totality") will have been broken. The theory that change is the result of
'internal contradictions' would be left without any internal, mediating
factors.
[This fundamental confusion (between internal and external causal
factors) was covered in much greater detail in
Part One. Readers are referred
back to that material for a more complete picture.]
Not even the
relative motion between bodies travelling in opposite directions would
constitute a credible 'dialectical connection'. Indeed,
it would fail to
reflect the 'internal relations' that DM-theorists
claim must exist between interacting bodies, since objects behaving like this wouldn't be internally
inter-linked (as parts of a
UO). Neither factor or direction would
imply the existence of the other, as they should if there were a 'dialectical
relation' at work here (again, unlike the relation that is supposed to exist between the
proletariat and the capitalist class), since the 'dialectico-logical connection',
or 'mediation', between moving bodies would be missing. In that case, any
subsequent interaction would be difficult to account for dialectically.
To state the obvious: that would be catastrophic news for DM-fans.9
As already noted,
if events and processes
were 'sealed-off from each other' (in the above way) -- for want of a better
term --, DM would begin to resemble CAR and 'crude materialism'
rather too closely. If this is how DM is supposed to be interpreted, it would
differ from 'crude mechanical materialism' in name alone.
Of course, even if Engels's version of DM could account for motion
(along a certainline of action, but in
a diametrically opposite
direction), it would still be of little help. That is because most of the bulk motion in the
universe isn't of this sort; it is either orbital motion under the
action of a central 'force', or it is movement along a
geodesic
(depending on which version of Contemporary Physics is accepted). In fact, as we
will see, matter in general moves in complex ways which are difficult, if not
impossible, to depict in such crude DM-'oppositional' terms.
Like it or
not, Dialectical Marxists needreal material forces
'objectively' acting between bodies so that their "Totality"
has the holistic, 'mediated' integrity we have been told it possesses. A
theoreticalfiction (like the above, where forces have been edited out of
the picture) is no use at all. If DM is to work, forces
must exist, and any reference to them (as 'contradictions') must be both
concrete and
literal, which in turn means that interacting bodies -- and that includes
any relevant forces in the system -- must be 'internally-related' to one another.10
Naturally, this quandary highlights an ambiguity exposed by the following questions:
(i) Are forces
'dialectical opposites' of one another -- which would mean it is their inter-relation
that forms the 'contradiction', here? Or,
(ii) Are the
bodies and process involved 'dialectically'-, and hence 'internally'-, related to one another?
In which
case, is the
'contradiction' here the relation:
(iii) Between the bodies and processes
themselves?
(iv) Between the
forces operating in the system? Or is it,
(v) A
'dialectical union' of both?
That
ambiguity will be explored as this Essay and Part Three unfold. Readers are
encouraged to keep the above options in mind as these Essays unfold.
Anyway, the figurative reading of forces as
'contradictions' runs counter to the claim advanced by Dialectical Marxists that what they
are proposing is an 'objective' theory of nature and society. In which case, it isn't easy
to see how figurative language is capable of 'filling the gaps' in any explanation
that hopes to reflect the physical relationship between objects and processes in the
natural and social world -- at
least,
no more than, say, the following can account for Juliet's beauty:
"But, soft! what light through yonder window breaks?
It is the east, and Juliet is the sun." [Romeo
and Juliet, Act Two, Scene Two.]
Or, indeed,
no more than would describing a man as a "pig" imply he actually had a curly tail, four legs and was a
potential source of bacon.
Despite this, and in view of the above difficulties -- in addition to those
that will be exposed below --, interpreting the word "force"
figuratively might prove to be the only viable way that
'contradictions' could be 'interpreted' as 'opposing forces', even if it
compromises DM's avowedly 'objective depiction'
of reality.11
Of course, if
any such view of the nature of forces (i.e., as figurative, not literal) were
to be adopted by
DM-theorists, it might prove difficult to distinguish
their theory from a 'poetic' version of Instrumentalism -- or
even a 'fantastical' form of Conventionalism.
On the other hand, it isn't
easy to see how
'figurative forces' could account for anything. What sort of explanation would
it be to say that 'contradictions' -- already suspiciously figurative themselves
-- can be modelled by 'opposing forces' that are themselves just figures of speech
in contemporary physics? Once more, while describing a man as, say, a "pig"
might account for his crude behaviour (but not because his anatomy/physiology
was literally
that of a pig). The utility of this metaphor would be virtually nil if it were
now admitted that the word "man" was figurative, too. Unlike
iterated negation, multiple
tropes do not
undo one another.
Nevertheless, even if this proved to be an acceptable resolution
of Engels's 'problem', it would still fail to provide Dialectical Marxists with a
viable exit from this impasse. Taken literally or figuratively, the equation
of DM-'contradictions' with 'opposing forces' in nature or society can't work.
That is so for several reasons
-- to which knotty topic I now turn.
[HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context;
DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, also depending on the context.]
The first of
the reasons why "the equation of DM-'contradictions' with 'opposing forces' in nature or society can't work" is connected with the way that forces are
already represented, for example, in Applied Mathematics and Physics. As
we are about to see, the way (literal) forces are already depicted doesn't
appear to be a viable or appropriate way to depict DM-'contradictions'. Consider the
following couple of points:
(a)
'Forces' in general operate according to
inverse square laws
(this links to a PDF). [This means that if the distance between, say, a planet
and one of its moons is halved the strength of the 'force' operating on that
moon will be quadrupled; but if the distance is doubled, the 'force' will be
reduced in strength by a factor of four. This means the 'force' will be a
quarter of its former strength. Henceforth, I will refrain from putting the word
"force" in 'scare quotes', except where I am referring to the DM use of that
term.]
It is difficult to see how the same could be true of DM-'contradictions'. Presumably, two objects,
states of affairs or processes 'contradict' each other in nature and/or society or
they don't.12Not much sense can be made, one presumes(!), of the idea that a
'contradiction' could
operate with, say, only 25% of its former intensity (or whatever the
appropriate descriptor is here) if the distance between its factors were doubled. Do bosses really become more conciliatory if workers walk away
from them? Does something like it happen if the local trade union offices are moved to a new location ten
miles down the road? Does wealth cause less conflict if the rich stash their money in the Cayman Islands
not the local bank? Do
appearances 'contradict' reality any the more -- or less -- if someone uses a
microscope, or presses their face up against the surface of an object?13
Indeed, little sense can be made of the idea that there
is a literalseparation distance between the factors involved in a
DM-'contradiction' -- for instance, that there is, or could be, a physical
separation distance between Capital and Labour, that there might be a literal
gap between the forces and relations of production, or even between an object
and itself as it moves in a 'contradictory sort of way'. What could it possibly
mean to suggest, for example, that the "contradiction between use-value and
exchange-value" changes if these two terms (or the commodities to which they supposedly apply) are moved further
apart? Clearly, they can't be separated (except perhaps in thought),
since they aren't the sort of 'things' that could be physically moved away
from, or even closer to, one another. But even if they
could, they would still be just as contradictory as they were before they
had been moved (one
presumes!). And yet, no force in nature has its local or remote magnitude unaffected
by such changes.
Admittedly,
Dialectical Marxists speak about the "contradictions" in the capitalist system
"intensifying", but that isn't because the 'separation distance' between the
relevant classes/factors has decreased. Whatever DM-theorists think they mean by "intensification"
in such circumstances (which seems be that the alleged "contradictions" become more obvious,
threatening, irresolvable, intractable, crisis-ridden -- or even more violent),
they certainly don't mean it in the same way that physicists mean when they talk about, say, the
strength of a force intensifying as a relevant separation distance is reduced
(or vice versa). Nor has a single DM-theorist tried to apply any mathematics
to
such DM-goings-on -- i.e., in the way that scientists, for instance, can
calculate how much weaker a force will become if a relevant separation distance
is doubled or trebled.
So, while a scientist, for example, might be dispatched to measure the intensity of
certain forces
in the earth's crust prior to an earthquake (as part of a genuine scientific research
programme), no one,
it seems, has ever been asked to do
the same with these
'intensifying dialectical contradictions'. In connection with words like
"intensifying", DM-contradictions (or at least their
supposed 'strength') appear to be permanently locked in some sort of subjective space, stubbornly
resistant to scientific investigation or even any sort of everyday measurement
(using a tape measure, weighing scales or a wrist watch, for instance). [I have suggested a way out of this 'impasse' in
Note 12.]
Be
this as it may, what sense can be made of the other 'contradictions' alleged to
exist in nature? For instance, can a moving object be more 'contradictory' than it
used to be at any point along its trajectory? Can it be 'increasingly here and not here'? Or
can it be increasing and not
increasing at the same time? Perhaps an object can be In
more than two places at
once, as it
accelerates? Maybe an electron can be more of a particle and a wave at the same
time if or when that 'contradiction' intensifies? Is it possible for 'appearances' to 'contradict' underlying 'essences'
more today than last week?
[Anyone who
thinks the above are possible, please
email me with the relevant numbers, along with the
details of the experiment(s) you performed, or the measurements you took, in order
to ascertain whatever it is you think you managed to ascertain!]
(b) Forces in nature can be
(and are) represented by
vectors,
the use of which is
governed by
well-understood rules. As such,
for example, they may be inclined at various angles to one another, added,
subtracted and multiplied (to give
inner,
vector (cross) or
scalar triple
products, and the like), by means of which diverse quantities such as areas, volumes, field densities,
boundary fluxes (etc., etc.), may be calculated. In addition, vectors can be parallel
or orthogonal
(normal)
to one another, or to previously defined axes, or to a surface (etc.), just as they can be decomposed into their components and
projected
onto a given direction, plane or surface. They can also be used to identify and
classify the mathematical properties of
various manifolds. Unit vectors can be defined
in a given vector space, providing it with a base and
spanning set.
Modulii can be
calculated for any given vector, and so-called "Eigenvectors" can
also be
determined. Furthermore,
matrices
may be employed to represent vectors more
efficiently, their
determinants
and
inverses ascertained (where they exist). The ordinary and
partial derivatives
of vectors can also be obtained,
and they can be integrated (as part of
line,
surface or
volume
integrals), too, and so on.
It is difficult to see how any
of the above (and many
more besides) could possibly be the case with a single DM-'contradiction', interpreted literally or
figuratively, as an 'opposing force'. What, for example, is the angle between the
'contradictions' mentioned on the opening pages of TAR:
"[S]ince the Second World War there have been 149
wars which have left more than 23 million dead…. On an average yearly basis, the
numbers killed in wars during this period have been more than double the deaths
in the nineteenth century and seven times greater than in the eighteenth
century…. Regression, by any criterion. Yet it is the very same development of
human productivity that gives rise both to the possibility of life and to its
destruction…. Everywhere we look another paradox appears. How
can it be, for instance, that in the richest capitalist society in the world,
the United States, real weekly incomes have fallen steadily since 1973?… How is
it that in Britain, where the economy, despite the ravages of recession,
produces more than it has ever done…a full quarter of the population live below
the poverty line? The contradictions are no less striking if we shift our gaze
from economics to politics. The introduction of the market to Russia and Eastern
Europe was supposed to bring stability and prosperity but has actually produced
the opposite." [Rees (1998), pp.1-2. Paragraphs merged.]
And, while
we are at it, what is the
cross product of the following 'contradictions' (mentioned in Socialist Worker)?
"Elvis's career illuminated a contradiction at the heart of capitalism.
Capitalism needs to generate profits in order to survive. But to suck profit out
of workers it also needs an ideology to ensure that workers know their place in
society...." [Ian Birchall,
Socialist Worker, 14/08/2007.]
"However, there are contradictions in the role of prison officers. It is summed up by Cardiff prisoners chanting
'you're breaking the law' to
the strikers.... Prison officers' work, upholding law and order, frequently pushes them to
accept the most right wing ideas and actions of the system. One of their main
jobs is to control prisoners –- and throughout the prison system, many officers
have a proven record of racism and violence. Some of the contradictions can be seen in the strike. In Liverpool the POA
shop steward Steve Baines responded to the high court injunction by telling
fellow strikers, 'Tell them to shove it up their arse, we're sitting it out.' Yet when prisoners in the jail protested against their treatment, the POA
members rushed back in to control the situation and end a roof top protest." [Simon Basketter,
Socialist Worker, 01/09/2007. Quotation marks altered to conform with
the conventions adopted at this site. Paragraphs merged.]13a
Is it possible to find the inner
product of the 'contradiction' between freedom and necessity? Is there an
eigenvector related to the 'contradiction' between 'appearance' and 'underlying
essence'? Is there any way of specifying the extent to which bosses and workers -- Capital and Labour --
contradict one another, individually or as a class? If so, what is the modulus
of the 'contradiction' between boss NN and worker MM -- or, between the
classes to which they belong? Is the 'contradiction' between ice and water
orthogonal to…, well, what? What about the
div, curl and grad of the
'contradiction' between a grain of barley and the plant that grows from it? Can
we ascertain the Jacobian for the
'contradictory relationship' between wealth and poverty? Is
the 'contradiction' between "John" and his "manhood" normal to a given
direction or manifold?
So many questions, so few answers...
In her otherwise excellent book,
Lindsey German
had this to say:
"The Working class has to have a party to
overcome the contradiction between its potential revolutionary role and its
actual situation. To overcome this contradiction requires a conscious struggle
by an organised minority…." [German (1996), p.87.]
If contradictions were
indeed literal forces, we would be able to
ascertain, say, the i, j and k components of "the
contradiction between [the] potential revolutionary role [of the working-class]
and its actual situation", differentiate it/them, and find out how quickly
any of them were changing, and in
what direction.14
The fact that we can't
do this -- and no sane Marxist has ever suggested it was even a
possibility --
implies that
in practice not even DM-fans think this analogy is at all apt, or,
perhaps, is all
that literal.
Plainly, if 'contradictions' could be interpreted literally
as 'opposing forces', it would be possible to construct a vector algebra depicting them in nature and
society. Do we possess such a
'Vector Algebra of
Revolution'? Has anyone ever bothered to construct one?
Given the title of his
book, the author of TAR was mysteriously, but no less revealingly, silent about this.14a
It could
be objected that social contradictions were never meant to be interpreted in
this crude and inappropriate manner, as vectors (etc.). Maybe not, but this
section of the Essay is trying to make some sort of sense of the alleged
association between 'opposing forces' and 'contradictions', and the former certainly can be represented by
vectors. If it isn't possible to represent social forces in this way,
then all well and good. But in that case, we are still no nearer
understanding what these 'social contradictions' are, or in what way they can be
described as, or be illustrated by, 'opposing forces'. In fact, if anything, we are now
much further away!
Also in
doubt is
exactly how
something that actually exists (the current state of the working class)
can 'contradict' -- in a 'dialectical' sort of way (involving 'forces') -- something
that doesn't exist (i.e., the proletariat's potential revolutionary role, as
Lindsey German characterised it). We have already seen that Dialectical Marxists use the word "contradiction"
almost ad nauseam, often in
inappropriate circumstances, to depict things that seem quirky, odd, paradoxical,
contrary to expectations, and so on, almost as the mood takes them. [On that,
see, for
instance, here and
here.]
"The Working class has to have a party
to overcome the contradiction between its potential revolutionary role and its
actual situation. To overcome this contradiction requires a conscious struggle
by an organised minority…." [German, op cit.]
What German might have had in mind in the above passage
was that there is what seems
to be a contradiction inrevolutionary theory, which depicts the
proletariat as the revolutionary class, but that is done in the face of the
undeniable fact that workers are often quiescent or compliant (or relatively so)
for long periods. But that is no more a contradiction than it would be if, say,
we heard that a heavy object near to the surface of the earth didn't actually
fall to the ground. As soon as we learnt that this heavy object was held in
place by pillars, cables or magnets, the phenomenon would no longer be a puzzle.
Three
additional questions
worth asking in relation to German's remarks are the following:
(A) Do the
above
factors struggle with each other?
(C) Do
they imply each other (like, say, the proletariat implies the bourgeoisie, and
vice versa -- although
I have thrown even that inference into considerable doubt,
here)?
The answer
is surely in the negative in each case. That being so, whatever else it is,
what Lindsey mentioned isn't a 'dialectical contradiction'.
It could be
objected that there is an undeniable struggle going on between the working class and the
capitalist class. I totally agree, but
there isn't one going on between the former's "potential revolutionary role and
its actual situation". One of these (at least) is an abstraction which can't
struggle with anything. Furthermore, are the two classes mentioned changing into one another?
But, they should be if the DM-Classics are to be believed.
Another
lesson to be learned is that no law in Physics is 'true' on its own; each is hedged
around by all manner of ceteris
paribus (i.e., "all things being equal") clauses. [On this, see
Cartwright (1983).
(This links to a PDF.) However, there is a forceful rebuttal to
Cartwright's way of interpreting science,
here. See also Earman, et al (2002), and van Brakel (2000), pp.151-69.
Naturally, it would be out of place to pursue that topic any further in this
Essay; it will be covered in greater detail in Essay Thirteen Part Two, when it
is published.]
In that
case, and analogous with the example cited above (concerning that
heavy object), as soon as we know exactly what is holding the working class
back, the 'puzzle' disappears.
Hence,
Lindsey German's worry about overcoming this 'contradiction' can now be shelved --
since there was no 'contradiction'.
Naturally,
that
doesn't mean socialists should just let things drift, fail to
intervene, or, indeed, sit back and wait for workers to organise themselves, but
since further consideration of this topic would take us into areas involving
HM, no more will be
said about it here (for reasons set out in
Essay One).
The points made below, and the next
few sub-sections, heavily depend on
a detailed argument
developed in Essay Eight Part One (as well as Essay Seven
Part One), concerning the interpretation of "internal" and
"external" as understood by DM-theorists (in relation to 'dialectical opposites',
etc.). That argument will be far better understood by those who have
actually read that material.
Nevertheless, I have summarised core parts of it below.
[UO = Unity of Opposites;
DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context;
DL = Dialectical Logic; W&G = Woods and
Grant; HEX
= Hegelian Expansionism;
CAR
= Cartesian Reductionism. Follow those two links for an explanation.]
Here is a
brief summary of the argument presented in the above Essay (parts of
which were themselves quoted from Essay Seven
Part One):
The relevancy of the criticisms
advanced in this sub-section depend on what dialecticians mean by "internal opposite".
Readers should bear this in mind as they read on.
As noted in an earlier Essay, DM-theorists sometimes appear to mean
by "internal", "spatially-internal", at other times they appear to mean "logically-internal".
They also
regularly slide between a logical and a spatial understanding of
"internal", not noticing either the difference or the effect this has on DM in
general....
Even though the spatial sense of "internal"...seems reasonably clear, an actual example might help clarify the difference between
these two senses of that word: all the lines of
longitude
on a map are logically-internal to the
Prime Meridian in Greenwich,
UK. Their geographical location and numerical value depend on that
Meridian and are defined by it. Any change to the latter automatically alters each of the former.
Remove the Prime Meridian and they disappear with it. Slide the Prime Meridian
fifty miles east or west, and they all move with it. The nature and existence
of each associated meridian thus depends on the Prime Meridian. Although each meridian line is also geographically related to the Prime Meridian,
they aren't spatially internal to it, they are
logically internal to it -- where "internal" in this case means "implied by".
[Of course, this doesn't mean that if
someone deletes the Prime Meridian from a digital map, for example, that all the
other lines of longitude will automatically vanish. That would make this a
causal link. It means that if at some time in the future a new system is
developed which supersedes the system of longitude we now have, all the meridian lines will
vanish to be replaced by new lines, or with whatever is entailed by this new
system.
Alternatively, if the definition of the Prime Meridian is itself
changed, that will automatically affect every other line; their nature and
existence depends on the nature and existence of the Prime Meridian. Naturally,
if the Prime Meridian is actually removed from the definition of the
system, then, say, the meridian line 030ş
(west) will cease to make sense since there would no longer be a Prime Meridian
for it to be 30ş
west of!]
Even so, the relation between the Prime
Meridians and each meridian isn't a 'dialectical UO'. For example, they don't
'struggle' with
and then change into one another:
"The
unity…of opposites is conditional, temporary, transitory, relative. The struggle
of mutually exclusive opposites is absolute, just as development and motion are
absolute…." [Lenin (1961), p.358.
Bold emphasis added.]
There is no mystery to this; there is nothing
'logical' in reality, "beneath the surface of appearances", that underpins or
'determines' the logical relation between these lines. They depend on
decisions made centuries ago,
on human choice and stipulation.
So, "internal" is being used in this case
metaphorically, and is a carry-over from the theories developed by the philosophers
mentioned below.
The following is one explanation of the term "internal relation" that I
think is (almost) correct:
"There are relations which could not fail to
obtain since they are given with or (partly) constitutive of the terms (objects
or relata), such as white's being lighter than black." [Glock (1996), p.189.]
[Some definitions characterise "internal
relations" in terms of "essential properties", but, as we will see in Essays
Four Part Two and Thirteen Part Two, there are good reasons to reject all such
definitions. I will say much more about this topic there, too.]
In like manner (one supposes), objects and
processes that are said to be 'dialectical opposites' are not only meant to imply
one another, they
inter-define each other. Plainly this is the logical sense of
"internal". The classic example given by DM-theorists is the relationship
between the capitalist class and the proletariat; there would or could be none of the
former without the latter, nor vice versa. They exist or
cease to exist together, just as they inter-define one another. Or so we have been
led to believe.
[I have said much more about this, and why the link
between the capitalist class and the proletariat isn'teven logical,
and hence isn't dialectical, in Essay Eight
Part Two.]
On the other
hand, "spatially-internal" applies to objects and processes
that are merely located
inside another object or process. No logical connection is necessarily
implied. So, although both your appendix and your brain are both located inside your
body, there doesn't appear to be any logical connection between them. If there
were, you couldn't ever have your appendix removed without your brain ceasing to
exist.
Here is an egregious example of this sort of confusion:
"Another of these three principles is 'Unity of opposites'. You know, every
person has virtues as well as vices. Just as there is no person who has only
virtues and no vices, there is also no one with vices only and no virtues.
Neither is possible. When we call someone very good or someone else very bad,
what do we mean ? Here 'good' and 'bad' are used in the relative sense. That is,
the person in whom good traits have a preponderance over the bad ones is called
good. Again, if a person has some good traits but these are outweighed by bad
ones he is called bad.
There may be a question as to why such differences exist between one person and
another. This is because, how one's characteristic features would shape out
depends mainly upon the contradiction within one's own self. It is well known
that a contradiction or conflict between instinct and conscience works within
every man.
One should know that no one is born with any instincts or conscience, neither
are these unchangeable or eternal. In the process of contradiction and conflict,
the person in whom instinct succeeds in defeating conscience becomes a mere
slave of base instincts. Naturally,
the aspect of vices gets predominance in such a person, not the good qualities.
We call such a person bad. Conversely, in a person whose conscience is very
sharp and active, whose conscience can control his base instincts, the aspect of
good qualities gets more and more developed. And we call him good. That is, a
man becomes wayward if his base instincts win whereas his life takes a turn for
the better and he earns reputation as a good man if his conscience wins. It does
not, however, follow from this that no bad or base instincts can creep into a
good man, or that conscience can never work in a bad man." [Shibdas Ghosh,
quoted from
here; accessed 09/07/2021. Bold added.]
If we ignore the primitive psychology and physiology
apparent in the above passage, it is clear that comrade Ghosh has confused what
was supposed to be a logical-, with a spatial-relation. For Ghosh,
the fact that these characteristics, or whatever gives rise to them, are located
inside a given individual means that the pairs of 'opposites' he mentions
constitute a UO.
But, there is no way that the existence of whatever gives rise to a given
'virtue' implies that its 'opposite' vice must exist, too, or that the one can't
exist without the other (like the proletariat and the capitalist class have
to co-exist, so we are told) -- which must be the case if the
DM-classics are to be believed.
Unfortunately, sloppy thought like this is par for the
course in DM-circles.
Consider another example: even though
dialecticians appear to think there is 'dialectical' relation between electrons
and protons (or is it positrons?) -- which for them constitutes a classic DM-UO --, it is far from easy to see how this could be logical-, as opposed to
its merely being a spatial-, or even a causal-relation. That is because electrons can exist without protons, and vice versa.
Nor do they inter-define one another, which they would have to do if they formed
a DM-UO. And do they really struggle with and then turn into one another? [But,
once more, they would have to do that if they were 'dialectical opposites' -- if
the DM-classicists are to be believed (link above).]
This confusing use of "internal" dates back at
least to
Leibniz
and Kant.
Kant called this type of link "analytic"; in
Leibniz it was merely "necessary". For the latter, each substance (or 'monad')
'contained' its own "complete idea" -- i.e., a 'list' of predicates that were true of it,
assigned by 'God'. So everything true of that substance, everything that has
happened, is happening, or will ever happen to it has been encoded internally (in a
'spatial' sense), so they are all necessarily true of it (in a 'logical' sense),
if we but knew it. We might not be able to discern or even ascertain the
necessary connections that exist here, but that doesn't mean they aren't there
or aren't necessary. Collectively, these predicates uniquely define a given
monad. They all reflect one another and are therefore all inter-related -- but
not by any 'external factors'. All their inter-connections are spatially-, and
logically-internal, programmed by 'god' -- they are all "windowless monads"
(which means that nothing, not even light, can get in!). So, the 'logical' and the 'spatial'
connotations of "internal" were united in Leibniz's theory. Kant
ditched the
overt metaphysics apparent here by concentrating on the conceptual
connections we are supposedly capable of apprehending -- even if he later attempted to milk
some metaphysics from them, too!
However, as with most things in Traditional Thought, the seeds of this confusion
stretch back to the metaphysical fog created by Ancient Greek Philosophers, an
internally-generated mist that engulfed the spurious 'problem' concerning the link between
a 'substance' and its 'accidents' (the latter expressed as its 'contingent properties'), often re-appearing in
subsequent theories about
the link between subject and predicate terms in indicative sentences (covered in
detail in Essay Three Part One). This family of confused ideas was later
imported into Mediaeval, and then post-Renaissance thought, where one concept was
said to be 'internally related' to another if the definition and existence of one
automatically implied the existence and nature of the other, or, indeed, of the rest.
Here is
Leibniz -- where
"contained" now appears to carry both spatial and logical connotations:
"A notion that determines a certain
individual Adam must contain absolutely all his predicates, and it is
this complete notion that determines general considerations to the
individual.... So: I hold that every true proposition is
either immediate or mediate. An immediate proposition is one that is true by
itself, i.e., a proposition whose predicate is explicitly contained in its
subject; I call truths of this sort 'identical'. All other propositions are
mediate; a true proposition is mediate when its predicate is included virtually
in its subject, in such a way that analysis of the subject, or of both predicate
and subject, can ultimately reduce the proposition to an identical truth. That's
what Aristotle and the scholastics mean when they say 'the predicate is in the
subject'." [Leibniz to Arnauld, 1686, quoted from
here. See also
here.
Bold emphases added; paragraphs merged.]
"The nature of an individual
substance or of a complete being is to have a notion so complete that it is
sufficient to contain and to allow us to deduce from it all the predicates of
the subject to which this notion is attributed." [Leibniz, quoted from
here.
Bold emphasis added.]
[The
above is an obvious echo of the medieval, Identity Theory of Predication
-- once again, considered in more detail in Essay Three
Part
One.]
Christia Mercer brings out this confusion admirably well (although she doesn't call
it a confusion!):
"To help us in the next part of our story,
let's remind ourselves briefly of two related senses of 'essence,' which were
widely accepted in the seventeenth century and are relevant here. First, an
essence is what is given in the definition of the thing and what can be grasped
by the intellect; second, it constitutes the nature of an individual and that
from which its properties flow. It is striking that
Micraelius asserts in his Lexicon Philosophicum that the 'properties
emanate from the essence of the thing.' Scherzer, for example, defines an
essence as 'what is first conceived in a thing, without which the thing
is not able to be; it is what is fundamental and the cause of other things
which are in it.' We need to keep a firm grip on the difference between an
essence as something conceived and as something contained in an individualcreated thing from which the properties of the thing (somehow) flow or emanate."
[Mercer (2001), p.227. Quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions
adopted at this site. Bold emphases and link alone added.]
From the above we can see the logical sense of
"internal" ("an essence as something conceived") being run together with the
spatial sense (an essence as something "contained in an individual", from which "flow" its
properties, or 'accidents').
Here, too, is Kant (where "internal" -- or
rather, "contained" -- and "outside" are now both logical and
metaphorical, but not spatial):
"In all judgments in which the relation of a
subject to the predicate is thought (if I consider only affirmative judgments,
since the application to negative ones is easy), this relation is possible in
two different ways. Either the predicate B belongs to the subject A as
something that is (covertly) contained in this concept A; or B lies
entirely outside the concept A, though to be sure it stands in connection
with it. In the first case, I call the judgment analytic, in the second
synthetic." [Kant
(1998), p.130. Bold emphasis alone added.]
To use a highly clichéd example, bachelor was said to imply
unmarried man, and vice versa -- each is 'contained' in the
conception of the other.
----------------------------------------
Added in a footnote:
However, it is far from clear what
Kant
meant by this 'containment' metaphor, or why he chose to use it. He indicates later on in the same passage
that this has something to do with merely thinking about the concepts involved:
"Analytic judgments (affirmative ones) are
thus those in which the connection of the predicate is thought through identity,
but those in which this connection is thought without identity are to be called
synthetic judgments. One could also call the former judgments of clarification
and the latter judgments of amplification, since through the predicate the
former do not add anything to the concept of the subject, but only break it up
by means of analysis into its component concepts, which were already thought in
it (though confusedly); while the latter, on the contrary, add to the concept of
the subject a predicate that was not thought in it at all, and could not have
been extracted from it through any analysis; e.g., if I say: 'All bodies are
extended,' then this is an analytic judgment. For I do not need to go outside
the concept that I combine with the word 'body' in order to find that extension
is connected with it, but rather I need only to analyze that concept, i.e.,
become conscious of the manifold that I always think in it, in order to
encounter this predicate therein; it is therefore an analytic judgment. On the
contrary, if I say: 'All bodies are heavy,' then the predicate is something
entirely different from that which I think in the mere concept of a body in
general. The addition of such a predicate thus yields a synthetic judgment. Now from this it is clear: 1) that through
analytic judgments our cognition is not amplified at all, but rather the
concept, which I already have, is set out, and made intelligible to me; 2) that
in synthetic judgments I must have in addition to the concept of the subject
something else (X) on which the understanding depends in cognizing a predicate
that does not lie in that concept as nevertheless belonging to it." [Kant
(1998), pp.130-31. Quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions
adopted at this site. Kant expresses himself slightly differently in the
Introduction to the B edition, pp.141-42. Paragraphs merged; bold emphases added.]
[Again, the
above is an obvious echo of the medieval, Identity Theory of Predication....]
----------------------------------------
So, the equivocation mentioned above -- whereby DM-fans
slide effortlessly between
these two different
senses of "internal" -- clearly dates back to
Leibniz and Kant (and
ultimately to Aristotle),
who created this confusion by their ill-considered choice of words like "contained". Hence, it was
only a matter of time before the spatial connotation came to the fore and
replaced the logical connotation of "internal". This took place in Hegel's
system (that is, if it is possible to decide what, if anything, he was banging
on about; on this, see Inwood (1992), pp.142-44, 197-99). Or, rather, to be more
accurate: for Hegel there appears to be no difference between these two senses of
"internal". This cavalier attitude has clearly been passed down without
modification to Hegel's progeny among DM-fans.
Despite
this, there remains a clear distinction between something that is logically-, and
something that is spatially-internal. Clearly, the spatial sense of
"internal" -- as that connotation found its way into in Dialectical
Marxism, whereby two objects or 'concepts' were
said to be complementary parts of a UO simply because they were inside
something else, or were part of a system
(while perhaps also appearing to be 'opposites') -- doesn't of itself make
them 'dialectical opposites'. Or, at least, it wouldn't unless (obviously!)
there were also some sort of logical connection between them --
whereby the existence of each 'opposite' implies the other's existence, just
like the existence of the proletariat is said to imply the existence of the
bourgeoisie, and vice versa.
Much of the sloppy thought that passes for
'dialectics' in this area is a direct result of this equivocation. DM-fans
have appropriated the spatial sense of this term, assuming without proof
that any objects and processes involved are also
'dialectical opposites' just because they are located inside a third
body, process or system -- or even where there is some sort of causal connection between them. This helps account for their
profligate use of 'contradiction', examples of which they see literally everywhere (on that, see here).
Clearly, that is because most objects and processes are contained by other
objects and processes. That seems to be enough reason to slap the label
"contradiction" on them! [We will
have occasion to meet this again
below when we
examine Engels's ideas about life and death, where both of these connotations become
hopelessly entangled.]
Rarely, if ever, do DM-fans (and this includes
the classicists, Engels, Plekhanov, Lenin and Mao), rarely if ever do
they try to showhow the
existence of one of these alleged 'opposites' implies the existence of the other
-- or derive one from the other, as the proletariat can be derived from the
capitalist class (so we are told).
In fact, in the vast majority of examples, if not in relation to every single
one of them (outwith the
link between the two aforementioned classes), it turns out that there is
no such connection. In which case, it is
no big surprise that DM-fans draw a veil over this topic when pressed -- or they
deflect and simply change the
subject.
Now, much of the material
in the next few sub-sections depends on interpreting "internal opposites" in
one way -- i.e., spatially -- since that is how DM-theorists largely
understand this term. Even so, the other alternative (i.e.,
reading "internal opposite" logically) will also be
considered where it seems applicable or appropriate.
Readers will need to keep this in mind as
we proceed.
[Any
confusion caused by this is the fault of the sloppy thought that passes for 'dialectics', not the present author! Concerning the serious difficulties this equivocation creates for DM-theorists, see
here. There is,
however, a
DM-critic
of this site who also wanted to view these "opposites" spatially
-- for example, when he speaks about considering the dialectical process
externally (i.e., "at the
outside"). Follow the previous link for more details.]
Furthermore, it is plain that this
particular equivocation
also arose because of an inappropriate organicist metaphor
that dialecticians have likewise borrowed from Hegel. Clearly, the various organs and other
parts of an animal or plant are spatially-internal to it --, and some of them might even be logically-internal
to a given organism, too (even though their organs/parts aren't logically-internal, or
logically-related, to each other; as noted above, for example, we would
refuse to call an amoeba "an amoeba" if it lacked a nucleus), although I prefer to call
this a "grammatical connection". However, when we move
beyond biology this metaphor loses all of its seeming plausibility, where the
above equivocation (between the spatial-, and the logical-meaning of "internal") creates serious problems
for Dialectical Marxists -- indeed,
as we
are about to find out.
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
Moving on: The second
reason why this is an inappropriate way to interpret 'contradictions' as 'opposing
forces' is connected with a possible response that could be made to the
criticisms advanced in earlier sub-sections: it could be argued that it is the
inter-relationship between contradictory forces that explains change, and
hence it is only within, or against, a network of forces that are
embedded in a dialectically inter-connected Totality that their contradictory
nature and inter-relationships may successfully be analysed and understood. Indeed, it could further be
maintained that the interpretation of contradictions presented so far in this
Essay (which clearly
pictures them as
isolatedunits -- for want of a better term -- divorced from their surroundings
and their inter-connections) completely misconstrues not just their role in DM,
but also the way they operate in nature and society in general.
Or so it might be argued...
That
volunteered pro-DM objection was in fact dealt with in Part One
of this Essay (summarised above) -- but from a slightly different angle (no pun intended) -- where
it was pointed out that there are serious ambiguities in DM on this issue. That
is because Dialectical Marxists have so far been totally unclear whether 'DM-contradictions':
(i)
Are internal to objects and processes, causing them to change as a result of
an inner dynamic;
(ii)
Arise externally between objects as they form part of a mediated system
or as they form part of an inter-connected group of systems/processes;
(iii) Merely
result from a certain way of
describing objects and processes -- picturing them as
'contradictory' -- which arises from the fact that humanity will only ever have a partial/relative
knowledge of reality, etc.;
(iv) Emerge
somehow
from a 'dialectical combination' of all three; or whether they:
(v) Result
from other factors about which we are currently unaware, or even those
concerning which we haven't yet developed the relevant concepts/language.
As we have
also just seen, unresolved confusions like these have been further compounded by the fact that
DM-theorists can't seem to make up their minds about the meaning of two key
concepts already in use -- in connection with (a) 'dialectical
opposites', (b) 'dialectical relations' and (c) 'dialectic contradictions' --
specifically: the terms "internal" and "external". As we saw in Part One
(summarised above), Dialectical
Marxists oscillate erratically
and confusingly between two competing interpretations of these key terms --
for example viewing "internal" and "external" as:
(vi) Spatial
terms;
(vii) Logical
expressions;
and sometimes even,
(viii) Both
at once!
As we also
discovered (in Part One), while
Alternatives (i)-(viii) above face serious difficulties of their own, in the
end they all fail to explain change. That is because they simplyre-describe
it -- and
they even do that in a thoroughly obscure and
unsatisfactory manner. That is why every one of the above Alternatives
so readily
fell apart when
they were closely examined in Part One. Indeed, as we are about to find out,
that will also
be the case in connection with the
equation of 'opposing forces' and
'dialectical contradictions' in this Essay.
In
response, it could be objected that the problem with the
analysis of dialectical systems advanced in these Essays is that it
objectifies dialectical contradictions -- i.e., it endeavours to make
(isolated) objects
out of them. We can see that from the frequent use of "part", "factor" and
"component" whenever an attempt is made to characterise dialectical opposites
and dialectical contradictions, ossifying them into a rigid, 'formal structure',
separating them from the system in which they are embedded and from which they
gain their dialectical status/nature. Hence,
such a response might continue by pointing out that, in DM, it
isn't 'objects' like these that are
associated with dialectical contradictions, nor do 'objects' contain them, or even constitute
them. On the contrary, systems and/or totalities caught up in continual
change reveal their inner contradictions, which may take on many
different forms, whose inter-connections motivate further development. In that case, it could be maintained that
dialectical contradictions are dynamic aspects of systems and totalities in the process
of change, not
'objects' as such.
Or so it might be argued...
In reply to
this volunteered pro-DM-objection,
it is worth asking where this leaves forces if 'dialectical contradictions' are no longer to
be viewed as 'objects' or as 'object-like'. Forces presumably have a physical
form of some sort. They aren't just
relations, are they? In fact, the above (proffered) pro-DM response makes a mockery of many
things the DM-classicists themselves have say about change. Here is Lenin, for
example:
"Dialectical logic
demands that we go further…. [It] requires that an object should
be taken in development, in 'self-movement' (as Hegel sometimes puts it)…."
[Lenin (1921), p.90. Bold emphases in the original.
Italic emphasis added.]
[Several
passages
that say more-or-less the same were quoted in
Part One of this Essay.]
It
could now be countered that this misrepresents Lenin's words, since he went on to argue
as follows:
"The gist of his
[Bukharin's -- RL] theoretical mistake in this
case is substitution of eclecticism for the dialectical interplay of politics
and economics (which we find in Marxism). His theoretical attitude is: 'on the
one hand, and on the other', 'the one and the other'. That is eclecticism.
Dialectics requires an all-round consideration of relationships in their
concrete development but not a patchwork of bits and pieces. I have shown
this to be so on the example of politics and economics.... A tumbler is assuredly both a glass cylinder and
a drinking vessel. But there are more than these two properties, qualities or
facets to it; there are an infinite number of them, an infinite number of
'mediacies' and inter-relationships with the rest of the world.... Formal logic, which is as far as schools go (and
should go, with suitable abridgements for the lower forms), deals with formal
definitions, draws on what is most common, or glaring, and stops there. When two
or more different definitions are taken and combined at random (a glass cylinder
and a drinking vessel), the result is an eclectic definition which is indicative
of different facets of the object, and nothing more.
"Dialectical logic demands that we should
go further. Firstly, if we are to have a true knowledge of an object we must
look at and examine all its facets, its connections and 'mediacies'. That is
something we cannot ever hope to achieve completely, but the rule of
comprehensiveness is a safeguard against mistakes and rigidity. Secondly,
dialectical logic requires that an object should be taken in development,
in change, in 'self-movement' (as Hegel sometimes puts it). This is not
immediately obvious in respect of such an object as a tumbler, but it, too, is
in flux, and this holds especially true for its purpose, use and connection
with the surrounding world. Thirdly, a full 'definition' of an object must
include the whole of human experience, both as a criterion of truth and a
practical indicator of its connection with human wants. Fourthly, dialectical
logic holds that 'truth is always concrete, never abstract', as the late
Plekhanov liked to say after Hegel. (Let me add in parenthesis for the
benefit of young Party members that you cannot hope to become a
real, intelligent Communist without making a study -- and I mean study
-- of all of Plekhanov's philosophical writings, because nothing better has been
written on Marxism anywhere in the world.)" [Ibid.
pp.90-93. Bold emphases
alone added;
quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions adopted at this site.
Several paragraphs merged.]
From this it is clear that Lenin
actually argued that an
understanding of the inter-relation between an object (in change) and the rest of the world
(i.e., the Totality) was essential to understanding its contradictory nature and development. [I have
discussed this topic in much more detail
here and in Part One, again. The above
pro-DM rebuttal also creates problems of its own, which will be covered presently.]
So, opposing forces may only be interpreted as dialectical contradictions
against the inter-relationship they have with the system/totality in which they are
embedded, in which they operate, or to which they are inter-connected. It therefore
looks like
pairs of opposing forces -- viewed dialectically -- in some sense constitute, or
actually arerelations, not objects. Of course, it could even be
the case that such forces are both relations and objects. After all,
there are no rigid dichotomies in DM.
Or so it could further be maintained...
Nevertheless, it seems that Lenin inadvertently torpedoed
the proffered pro-DM-reply aired earlier (alsoechoed in several previous
paragraphs) since he specifically spoke about objects involved in contradictory change!
In fact, it is difficult to see how DM-theorists could possibly explain change
if they ignored objects. Admittedly, Lenin also spoke about situating all
such objects against a background of all their "mediacies" (and by that he seems
to have meant each object's causal inter-relationships, its history and connections,
all interpreted in the light of DL).
Furthermore, even if forces were relations, it is far from easy to see what
it is that could possibly physically relate objects and processes in nature and society
in the manner described earlier (in and by the aforementioned pro-DM-responses)
--
that is, other than by a knee-jerk insertion of a
few Hegelian 'concepts' (of dubious
meaning and even more questionable provenance). Of course,
this raises issues aired earlier: are these relations external
or internal? And, are those two terms meant to be interpreted spatially or
logically?
Considering external relations/forces first (and putting to one side for
now whether "external" is to be interpreted spatially or logically),
it seems that the idea that objects and processes change because of an
'inner dynamic' has once again been lost sight of. If objects only change
because of the operation of
external forces, or even as a result of external relations -- which might
even be 'internal to a
wider system' of some
sort, mediated, or not,
by other factors
internal to the yet-to-be-explained
"Totality" --, that itself can
only mean "external" has now become the new "internal". In that
eventuality,
'internal contradictions' will in effect become something an object merely experiences
as part of
its
external relations with other objects and processes -- which are, as noted,
internal to the "Totality". In that
sense, "external" will simply mean "spatially external" to other factors which
are "spatially internal" to the entire system. The logical sense of "internal"
will have been bargained away. But, what is the point of arguing that
all change is
"internally-motivated" if external mediation among, or even between,
objects (in a spatial, non-logical sense) is the only game in town, and forces
merely turn out to be, or to constitute, 'external relations'? That seems to be
the direction that
Engels and
W&G were trying to go. [No pun
intended.]
[As we will
see in Essay Four Part Two (when it is published), for other DM-theorists, these "relations"
(and, in some cases, all of them!) are supposed to be
'logical'. They are clearly reading "internal"
in a quasi-Hegelian sort of sense, but they are no less suspect for
all that. Until then, readers are redirected
here for some (preliminary)
critical scrutiny.]
Before we
proceed, may I remind readers of something that was pointed out
several sections ago
(slightly edited)?
So, is the
'contradiction' here the relation:
(1) Between the bodies and processes
themselves?
(2) Between the
forces operating in the system? Or is it,
(3) A 'dialectical
union' of both?
That
ambiguity will be explored as this Essay and Part Three unfold. Readers are
encouraged to keep the above options in mind.
We are now
about to reveal why readers were encouraged to keep those points in mind.
The proffered
pro-DM-response outlined a few paragraphs back failed to
resolve several other problems that were also mentioned earlier.
First of all, as we will see in Essay
Eleven Part One, there is good reason to question the nature of the nebulous DM-"Totality"
-- or, to be more honest, there would be if we knew what 'it' was supposed to
be, and
there was some sign that DM-theorists themselves also knew what 'it' was
supposed to be!
In that case its re-appearance here
can only hinder comprehension.
Secondly, even if
a clear account of the "Totality" were (ever!) forthcoming, this way of depicting
forces would still fail to work. If contradictions are properties of
totalities -- as opposed to properties of their parts -- then those parts couldn't change,
since, on this account, contradictions wouldn't belong to them, but to the
whole, taken as a whole. In that case, while the whole might change, it would do
so only as a
result of the rearrangement of its changeless parts (that result was
established in
Part One). Given this way of thinking,
the "Totality" (or, indeed, any sub-system of the "Totality") would be:
(α) Composed
of infinitely small changeless elementary particles; or,
(β)
Composed of infinitely complex sub-systems, which enjoy no inter-connections
among themselves.
[The reader is once again referred back to
Part One
for a more detailed explanation of this point.]
Again, it could be objected that a Totality is
constituted by its
own internal contradictory relations and processes. That is precisely what a Totality
is
--
a contradictory, inter-connected, differentiated unity. The account just given
once again seems to want to
separate the parts from the whole!
However,
that reply still won't do, for on that basis it would now seem that it is part and whole which are
'contradictory' (and
in a manner that has yet to be
explained with any clarity). But, parts can't be contradictory
in the same way that wholes are. That is because, on this account, parts mutually condition
one another. That is, presumably, the nature of the mediated 'unity-in-difference' that
constitutes each 'dialectical contradiction' inside the "Totality". However, the
"Totality" is
related to nothing else that could condition it (one also
supposes -- again, should we ever be told what
the "Totality" is!). So, if the "Totality" is a contradictory whole
(i.e., if it encompasses all of 'Reality'), then it would appear to be so in a new and as-yet-unexplained sense.
So far, it has no 'dialectical opposite' that could cause it to change. Is the
"Totality" therefore changeless? [I return to consider this question again,
below.]
There is an
analogous problem concerning the relation the "Totality" has with its parts. As
we have seen, the
'internal opposites' of a 'dialectical contradiction' are said to imply one
another, being a 'reflection' of each other's 'essence-in-development' (the
Hegelian rationale behind this is explored in Essay Eight
Part Three). Hence, each
part can't exist without the other -- just as the proletariat implies, and couldn't exist without, the
bourgeoisie, for example.
But, not only does the "Totality" fail to imply any of its parts, it could exist
without many of them. Nor do the parts imply one another. So, does the entire Universe (or 'Reality' itself) actually imply Venus or the
Crab
Nebula? The Universe could surely have existed without either of them.
As far as the parts are concerned, could The Mississippi River exist without the
Andromeda Galaxy? Do
they imply one another? I have yet to see any proof they do. [Readers are
invited to inform me if they know of
any such proof.] If so, whatever else is true of the relation between part and whole in
this case,
or even between part and part, it can't be "contradictory" in the required DM-sense of that word.
If it were, Venus and the Crab Nebula couldn't fail to exist, and The
Mississippi would imply the existence of The Andromeda Galaxy!
Scientists
would then be able to deduce the existence of such distant Galaxies from thought
alone -- or, they would be able to do so as soon as they encountered that great
river. (Or, indeed, as soon as they encountered anything at all, if every part
implies every other! That would surely be the case if everything were
logically inter-connected with everything else -- in a 'dialectical sort of way'!)
[If true, it
would turn DM into some sort of Metaphysical Calvinism,
which would view absolutely everything in the Universe as Pre-Determined, Pre-Destined
and Inter-Implied in and by
The Big Bang! Your left foot, dear reader, would imply the Moons of Saturn, your
last meal would imply UY Scuti,
and vice versa. That shouldn't surprise us since Hegel's system turns out to be
a 'logical form of
Calvinism'. (The connection, between Hegel and Calvin, mediated via Luther, is
explored in Stern (2025a,
2025b).) I will
return to this theme again, below.]
It could be objected that the above argument is
a ridiculous caricature of DM -- but that isn't so. Since I have covered the above
topic extensively, along with objections like this, in Essay Eleven Parts
One and
Two -- where I have shown (from what
Dialectical Marxists and Hegel themselves have to say about the "Totality" and its
'parts') that the last few paragraphs aren't a caricature of DM --, but, because I
do not want to reproduce that material here, readers are referred to those
Essays for more details.
In fact, as
seems obvious from what little DM-theorists themselves have said about the
"Totality",
'it' must be an Unconditioned Absolute. It certainly can't be conditioned from the
'outside',
otherwise
it wouldn't be the Whole (one presumes!). If, on the other hand, it were
conditioned from the 'outside', an infinite 'exgress' (or inflation -- an
infinite exgress is the opposite
of an infinite regress,
which is
sometimes called an "explosion") would be
initiated. That is because we should now want to know how, and by what, this 'external'
object or process (about which we know
even less) is itself conditioned, and so on,
forever. But we have been
here already.
[As
we also saw in Part One, similar problems confront 'The Cosmological
Argument' for the existence of 'God'. That should surprise few who already know
that DM is the poor cousin of Hegelianised Christian Mysticism (upside down of
'the right way up')!]
And, it seems
these
dialectically disconcertingdetails must have their place, otherwise,
for the "Totality" to be
a 'contradictory' whole, it would have to 'contradict' its
parts. [Ex hypothesi, it would have to do this anyway, since there is nothing else
for it to condition. (I will re-examine this question below, where I will
also ask
what the 'dialectical opposite' of the "Totality" could possibly be --
it must have one if it is to change!)] Moreover, the parts must
in turn
contradict each other in the same way (i.e., the same way the
"Totality" 'contradicts' them), after all.
[The opposite
supposition -- i.e., that the parts don't do this -- will also be considered presently.]
If
we now try to ignore the above 'problems', and it is maintained that the "Totality"
is composed solely of its 'parts' and their inter-relations (unless, of
course, we assume the "Totality" is "more than the sum of its
parts" -- that Wholist cliché was exposed for what it is, yet another
radically confused DM-Dogma, in Essay Eleven
Part Two (link above)), the 'contradiction' between
the "Totality" and its 'parts' must now be seen as:
(γ)
The same as the 'contradiction' between each of the aforementioned 'parts'; or,
(δ)
More
than the
'contradiction' between
the 'parts' (since, as we have just seen,
DM-theorists also believe that 'the
whole is more than the sum of its parts').15
As far as (γ) is
concerned, it seems that the "Totality" must in that case drop out of the picture as
merely a shorthand term for the sum total of the 'parts' in 'contradictory change and
development' (rather like a pile of sand is just the sum of its parts), thereby becoming a
mere fiction, only this time a useless one.16
[In
addition, if the "Totality" were simply comprised of its 'parts' (howsoever
they are themselves conceived) -- again like that pile of sand --, and those
'parts' were deemed 'contradictory' just
because of that -- i.e., just because they were 'internal' to the "Totality"
(whether or not the latter drops out of the picture along the above lines) --,
that would be yet another example of the confusion
mentioned earlier.
That is because this sense of "internal" is clearly spatial, not logical! In that
case, any such 'contradiction' couldn't be 'dialectical', whatever else it turned
out to be. On the other hand, if these 'contradictions' (internal to the
"Totality") were now simply
declared to be 'dialectical' (for no good reason), a proof would be owed demonstrating, for example,
that
the existence of Venus implied the existence of The Crab Nebula -- or Venus's
existence implied the existence of whatever was supposed to be its 'dialectical
opposite' -- just as the existence of the proletariat supposedly implies the
existence of the capitalist class. (Of course, if it turns out that Venus has no 'dialectical
opposite', it couldn't change -- unless the
DM-classics are themselves full of it.) As far as can be ascertained, no
DM-theorist since Engels first aired this 'theory'/'method' has raised questions
like these, never mind attempt to answer them. But, that is just par for the course with
those who dote on
'Diabolical Logic'.]
On the other hand, if (δ)
were the case, we would still be owed an explanation of the alleged 'contradiction'
between this 'more' and that 'less' -- i.e., between this 'more-of-a-"Totality"' and
all its
'lesser
parts'.
But, as things now stand, we have absolutely no idea whether or not this new 'contradictory' relation between
'whole
and part' is the same as, or is different from, that which operates between the
'parts'!
Nagging, unresolved
'problems' like this remind us that
DM has more holes in it than a lorry load of Swiss Cheese.
Figure One: The Whole Truth -- DM
Is All Holes
Anyone impatient with
all this
'nit-picking' should re-direct their complaints to their local Dialectical Magus
-- who will simply ignore them, label them 'pedantic' and possibly also cuss you out for not
'understanding dialectics', or for having th temerity to question this Sacred
Creed. But, such 'pedantry' is forced upon us because,
even now,
after more than 200 years, we still have no idea what these 'opposing
forces' are, how they can possibly 'contradict' each other -- or even what the mysterious "Totality"
is, for goodness sake!
[The first two of those
'peremptory allegations' will be substantiated as this
Essay unfolds; the third was extensively covered in Essay Eleven
Part One.]
However, and
independently of the above -- shall we say...'difficulties' --, DM faces other serious problems. If the
'contradiction' between 'the whole and its parts' is the same as (but is
still not more
than) that which exists between the 'parts', then, obviously, the 'whole' couldn't be more than the sum of the
'parts' (in at least
this respect). That is because, in that
eventuality the whole would be the entire 'contradictory' ensemble, all of whose elements ('whole'
and 'part')
operate alike and on the same level (as it were). In short: that ensemble
would be equal to, but not more than, the sum of its 'parts'. Manifestly, that would
run counter to the DM-hypothesis that
'wholes' (whether or not they were 'wholes' made of 'contradictory parts') are more
than the sum of their 'parts', whose natures (including the nature of their
'internal
contradictions') were said to 'be determined entirely by', while 'not
being reducible
to', the nature of their
'parts' and the ('dialectical') inter-connection between them.
On the other hand, if the 'contradiction' between
'the whole and its parts'
weren't the same as that between the 'parts', we would have
an unexplained type of 'contradiction' at work here: that which supposedly exists between
(i) A mysterious
'whole' that
is "more than the sum of the parts" and (ii) Those 'parts' themselves.17
Anyway, the
claim that the whole 'contradicts' the parts in the
same way that the 'parts contradict' each other doesn't appear to be a
viable option, even for DM-Über-Loyalists -- i.e., should they ever care enough to give their
theory the attention to detail they have so far denied it. The 'parts' relate to each other by some sort of "mediation",
so we are told. But how
can the 'part-whole relation' be one of "mediation"? The mutually 'contradictory'
nature of the 'parts' in development is what constitutes the 'whole'. If now the
'whole'
possesses
its own 'contradictory' relation with the 'parts' over and above, or in
addition to, this (once
more assuming
-- as we
were told -- that 'the whole is
more than the sum of its parts'), this new 'contradictory' relation
can't be one of 'part-on-part' -- unless the 'whole' turns out to be a 'part' of itself! But, if
not, what then is this ill-defined 'contradiction' (i.e., between the "Totality"
and its 'parts')?
Independently of the above, the idea that the "Totality" can contradict anything
(else?) would have to be based on the supposed 'dialectical relation' between
the "Totality" and its 'dialectical opposite'. But, what is the 'dialectical
opposite' of the "Totality"? If it has one, it can't be part of the
"Totality" (or it wouldn't then be its 'opposite', one supposes). But
if that 'opposite' isn't
part of the "Totality", the "Totality" couldn't encompass everything,
after all -- since there would now exist somethingother than the
"Totality" -- i.e., its supposed 'opposite' that isn't part of the "Totality"!
Clearly, that would mean the
"Totality" would fail to be the "Totality" by having such an 'opposite'
that isn't part of itself!
On the other hand, if this 'opposite' is part of the "Totality", how can
it also be its 'opposite'? Surely, the 'opposite' of the "Totality"
would be
the "non-Totality" -- presumably just as A and non-A are supposed to be such
paradigmatic 'opposites'!
It now seems
that the "Totality" can't have a 'dialectical opposite'.
If so, it can't change!
Hence, the theory that tells us everything changes
now tells us nothing changes!
Well,
drawing conclusions like this might be a little hasty, in which case I will return to this topic in
Essay Eleven Parts One and Two (although much of it has already been raked over in Essay
Eight Part One -- whose conclusion was summarised
here).
So, as is also
argued in Essay Eight
Part One, it seems that a literal
interpretation of DM-'contradictions' in terms of 'opposing forces' lapses either into some form of CAR,
or it inflates alarmingly into HEX (or, indeed, into Absolute Idealism). Conversely, if the identification of
'opposing forces' with
'contradictions' is merely figurative, then DM would be
indistinguishable from Metaphysical
Poetry!
Notwithstanding
this, in order to examine this issue even more
thoroughly, it might be useful to suppose that 'some sort of solution' for all of
the above 'difficulties' can be found -- by someone, at some point, somehow.
However, even if we were to be
recklessly generous by assuming this,
the analogy drawn between 'opposing forces' and 'dialectical contradictions' would
still fail to work.
The
substantiation of that claim brings us to
the third reason for questioning the connection between the above two factors.
As we are
about to see, this third option
is even more closely connected with issues raised by
the following earlier questions (which the reader was
encouraged to keep in mind):
So, is the
'contradiction' here the relation:
(1) Between the bodies and processes
themselves?
(2) Between the
forces operating in the system? Or is it,
In what follows, unless stated otherwise, I will
assume for the sake of argument that 'forces' do exist in nature. Those
that exist in society will be examined in detail later (for example,
here and
here).
[HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, also
depending on the context.]
In a physical system
there may be several different combinations of interacting attractive and repulsive forces. If we abbreviate "attractive"
and "repulsive" to "A" and "R", respectively, there appear to be only three
different types of combinations of just two of these: AA-, AR-, and RR-forces.18
Of course, the above assumes these
relations are symmetrical --
i.e., that
AR
= RA, which seems reasonable enough. Another simplifying assumption is
that these forces operate in binary form -- that is, the following material
will concentrate exclusively on force-couples. So, initially,
combinations like these: AAA-, ARA-, and RRR-forces, for
instance, will be ignored (as will even more complex permutations and
combinations). It is reasonably clear, I take it, that simplifications like
these won't significantly affect the conclusions drawn.
Anyway, further complications will be introduced as this Essay unfolds.
Naturally, a
comprehensive scientific (or even philosophical) account of the concept of force would have to include
contemporary ideas about gravitational,
strong nuclear,
weak nuclear
and electroweak forces, etc.
However, as
pointed out earlier, forces in general
have been
edited out of the picture in favour of (i) exchange particles or (ii) thegeometry of space-time; on that, see
here The first of these two alternatives is illustrated in this simplified
video:
Video Three -- Visual Representation Of
Motion Governed
By The Geometry Of Space-Time
[I will return to discuss one or two issues
raised by Video Two later in this
Essay.]
However,
it is
highly
likely that as
science develops, reference to forces (even in school Physics) will
progressively disappear [cf., Jammer
(1999), pp.iv-vi (partially quoted earlier)]. In
that eventuality, if DM-theorists continue to promote the idea that
'opposing forces' are what lend to 'dialectical contradictions' some sort of
material/physical substantiality, their theory would become 'unscientific' by
default. Either that or they will have to abandon all talk of the 'objective'
nature of both forces and DM -- thereby having to join with Engels and
regard them as shorthand for relative motion. Of course, in that
eventuality, forces
wouldn't just be "useful fictions", they would be useless
fictions.
[Of course, none of
this affects the forces spoken about in HM, which will continue to exist
whatever physicists decide to do. More about that later.]
On the other hand, should any such scientific
development fail to materialise (specifically the editing out of forces from
nature), it would be interesting to see how DM-theorists will try to harmonise their
fixation on 'attraction/repulsion' with any successful attempt to unify the
four fundamental forces in a
Grand Unification Theory
(or even via Superstring/M Theory,
etc.), perhaps into one over-arching 'Force' (but notthe one in Star Wars!).
That might finally kill-off informed talk in DM-circles about the
actual existence
of 'contradictory forces' in nature.
Clearly, if there is
only one Force, it can hardly 'contradict' (i.e., 'oppose') itself.
Nevertheless, many of the quotations given
earlier (and in
Note 1) imply that, as far as
DM-theorists are concerned, onlyAR-forces are considered 'contradictory'. That
type of
force couple will be examined later. However, AA-, and RR-forces
haven't been explicitly ruled
out, and in a thoroughgoing and comprehensive analysis of every conceivable option
left available to Dialectical Marxists (in order to attempt to rescue their
theory), they will also need to be addressed. Hence, it is to
them that I now turn.
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; NM = Newtonian Mechanics.]
It is difficult to see
how
AA-force couples could be
interpreted as a unity of opposites, let alone as 'contradictory'. They
are the same type of force, so they can hardly be opposites (even
if we were to assume the meaning of "opposite", evident in DM-circles, were either clear or
acceptable). But, such
forces abound in nature. For example, as noted earlier, the accumulation of matter
to form stars and planets across the universe is the result of countless such
AA-forces. Plainly, in such systems, developments like this
are the result of the operation of non-opposites. So, when, say, a planet
is in the process of formation, particles begin to gravitate together under the
influence of forces of mutual attraction --, i.e., the
aforementioned non-opposites.19
[Admittedly,
any such theory has to adopt the
vocabulary of
Classical Physics (i.e., largely that of NM). However, no
inference should be drawn from its use concerning the present author's views
about the
'ultimate ontological status of forces'. As noted elsewhere, such terminology is
only being employed here in order to expose the confusions that abound in DM. It
is up to scientists to tell us what the world contains, not Philosophers -- or
even the present author --, still less confused Mystics like Heraclitus, Spinoza
and Hegel.]
Nevertheless, with
respect to the above scenario (related to the gradual formation of a planet), it is
of course assumed that R-forces prevent the
collapse of accumulated matter into a 'singularity' under the action of local
AA-forces.
[If the gravitational field is strong enough a singularity should
be expected to form, at least in theory. [On that,
see
Curiel, et al (2025).] However, physicists have managed to circumvent this
(apparently) fatal flaw in their core theory with a
handful of ad hocmathematical dodges,
and theoretical/linguistic...(ahem) shall we say...'re-configurations'). That alone
should tell us these theories are, at least,
incomplete.
This
process is reminiscent of the wide-spread practice (in the Middle Ages) of
adding more and more epicycles in order to make
Ptolemaic Astronomy
work. On that, see Hanson
(1960). (This links to a PDF.) How the epicycles themselves were meant to work is
illustrated by this short
video.]
Clearly,
such considerations simply complicate the
original point without significantly altering
it. In such circumstances we would have an ARA-system-of-forces, which would be even
more difficult to interpret as 'contradictory'. As pointed out
below, the
'dialectical' meaning of the word "opposite" would have to be adjusted so that systems of forces could
then have any number of 'opposites', components or contributory forces. In which
case, these artificial 'contradictions'
-- "artificial" since any such 'contradiction' would also be the
product of arbitrary 'linguistic adjustment' --, won't have been based on 'objective'
factors, but on yet more conceptual tinkering.
Moreover,
if the DM-'theory of change' stands any chance of surviving,
let alone succeeding, there has to be only one 'opposite'
to each object or process,
and that 'opposite' also has to be 'dialectically-', not accidentally-, related to its
own uniquely paired 'opposite', or its "other" (as Hegel and Lenin both called
them). [On the
reasons for this, see here.]
Finally, given the
classical picture, motion itself is actually altered by the operation of a singleresultant force. That awkward fact is even more difficult to square with the idea that
'opposing forces'
are, or can be modelled by, 'contradictions'. [More on that later, too.]
Similarly, with respect
to
RR-forces; it is equally difficult to see how they could be
interpreted as 'contradictory' -- or even as 'opposites' --, and yet such
forces also abound in nature. For example, intra-atomic forces of repulsion
prevent atomic nuclei from approaching one another.20
Even in
DM-terms, it isn't easy to see how such forces could be described as 'opposites'. As noted above, 'dialectical opposites' are not
only supposed to imply each other, neither can exist without the other
(again, as is supposedly the case with the proletariat and the capitalist class). But, which
A-force implies any other A-force? Which of them can only exist if
the other does? Indeed, which R-force implies another R-force? Which one can only exist if the other does?
An objection to the above
'difficulty' immediately springs to mind: it
ignores the fact that such forces operate in the manner they do because they work in
opposition to one another; that is, they do so in a way that brings
them (or the system to which they belong) into, or out of, equilibrium.
Unfortunately, that response relates to forces
acting as AR-couples, which will be examined
presently. It
can't, therefore, assist us
in our attempt to analyse, interpret or understand AA-, and RR-forces
as 'dialectical contradictions'.
Despite this, even if
it were true that two A-forces were opposites of each other, in order for them
(still) to be regarded as 'contradictory', they couldn't also
be viewed as the opposite of R-forces -- unless,
that is,
A-forces are
once again allowed to have two sorts of "opposites": (i) other A-, and
(ii)
other R-forces. But, in that case, it would make a mockery of
several earlier comments, alongside the claim that
there are "polar opposites" at work in natural (or even social) systems.
That remains so even where such forces are involved
either in
change or in stasis, and are still to be viewed as 'dialectical contradictions':
"All motion is bound up with some change of
place…. The whole of nature accessible to us forms a system, an interconnected
totality of bodies…. [These] react one on another, and it is precisely this
mutual reaction that constitutes motion…. When two bodies act on each other…they
either attract each other or they repel each other…in short, the old polar
opposites of attraction and repulsion…." [Engels (1954),
pp.70-71. Bold emphasis added.]
It is
difficult to see how one
A-force could be the (unique)
"polar opposite" of another A-force while at the same time being the
(unique) polar
opposite of an R-force. In which case, how A-, and R-forces could
possibly have two
"polar opposites" becomes something of a mystery -- or at least not without
having to alter the meaning of "polar opposite",
again. Even then, if the meaning of that term were modified in order to
'neutralise' this difficulty, it would only have only succeeded because
of yet more linguistic tinkering. In that case, any 'truths' that
suddenly 'sprang into existence' as a result would plainly be a by-product of
such terminological juggling, not because of the way the world happens to be.
Clearly, that would mean this part of DM (at least) will have been
read into nature, not
read from nature.21
[However, there are
several Dialectical Marxists who claim that objects and
processes not only can, they actually do, possess many "opposites"; for example Gollobin (1986), p.122
(but
even
he says they are still "paired"). Gollobin clearly failed to
appreciate that any such concession blows a gaping hole in Hegel and Lenin's answer to Hume.
That material (drawn from another Essay published at this site) has been reposted
below.]
Of course, this
entire metaphysic originated in the
defective
'logic' Hegel concocted when he posited a unique opposite (an "other", as he
called it) for each and every item implicated in change. He did so in order to
forestall the criticism that if everything changes into 'what-it-is-not' (i.e.,
into its 'opposite'), then, since everything else in the universe is 'what-it-is-not'
in relation to any given object or process, every object/process could or would
change into
anything-else-whatsoever. [Follow the link in the previous
paragraph for more details.]
Without such
'conceptual guardrails', instead of growing into a barley plant,
a barley seed, for
instance, could turn into a volcano, an unexploded bomb, Stalin's moustache or
even your left foot -- and much else besides -- since all of these are
'what-a-barley-seed-is-not'.
[However,
in Part Three
of this Essay, we will see that in the end Hegel had to abandon the idea that
objects and processes were somehow linked to a logical(?), or unique,
'opposite'/ "other". In Essay
Seven Part Three it will be shown
that this 'theoretical retreat' fatally damaged Hegel's attempt to respond to Hume's
criticisms of Rationalist theories of causation, posted below (link a few
paragraphs back).]
But, once
more: if objects and processes are allowed to have many (and
possibly an infinite number of)
'opposites' -- all of which they could
change intoif the aforementioned 'guardrails' are removed or don't even exist --, that would
completely undermine what little is left of Hegel's already moth-eaten system,
which, as we have just seen, claims that everything is paired with its own
unique "other". As we have seen, if that weren't the case, if an
object/process can have any number of 'opposites',
it would once more mean that the
Empire State Building, for example, could change into, say, a
T Rex, and
the Pacific Ocean could morph into a bottle of Tennessee Whiskey, and much else
besides. Since such things don't happen, so far as we know, we
must conclude that, either:
(i) Hegel
was right to claim that objects and processes have
only one unique "other", which is either:
(b1)
'External' to that object or process, meaning that the cause of change can't be
internal to objects and processes (as
we were told must be the case); or, it is perhaps even,
(b2) 'External' to that object or
process, which object or process turns into that 'other', meaning that change
can't have been caused by that 'other'
(since it isn't 'dialectically-related to it') -- and the whole point of accepting this
'theory' will now have vanished;
Or:
(ii) Objects, processes
and forces have many opposites, which must mean our eyes are deceiving us
since we don't see things like elephants turning into passenger jets, packets of
chips morphing into alligators, taxis changing into satellites of Jupiter, and
the like, even though they should do so on a regular basis
according to this 'modified' theory.21a
Nevertheless, it could be
objected (once again) that in a dialectical context
the word "opposite" really means "oppositional".
That change of emphasis would now
highlight the activeinter-relation that exists between forces rather
than their passive inter-connection, which is something the above argument seems to
have ignored. In which case it would seem perfectly natural to
speak of RR-, or AA-forces as contradictory, in this
respect --, i.e., in the sense that all and only those
forces that are oppositional (i.e., which engage in, or are part of, some sort
of "struggle", howsoever that is understood) should be classed as contradictory.
Or, so it might be countered...
However,
any such 'revision' seems to be inconsistent with the claims made in several of
the DM-passages quoted earlier.
[Indeed, neither Hegel nor Lenin described forces this way, nor has any other
DM-classicist. If anyone knows differently, please
contact me with the details.] The
aforementioned passages suggest that it is only certain forces that are to be regarded as
inseparable from matter. Others indicate that forces are merely the
consequence of the complex inter-play between quanta of energy (or motion).
For example, Engels maintained the latter when he asserted the following:
"The whole of nature accessible to us forms a
system, an interconnected totality of bodies…. [These] react one on another, and
it is precisely this mutual reaction that constitutes motion…. When two bodies
act on each other…they either attract each other or they repel each other…in
short, the old polar opposites of attraction and repulsion…. It
is expressly to be noted that attraction and repulsion are not regarded here as
so-called 'forces', but as simple forms of motion." [Engels (1954),
pp.70-71. Bold emphasis added.]
But, as we have seen, the above appears
to lose sight of 'internally-connected'
oppositionality, since Engels
seems to have edited out of the picture the 'dialectical inter-relationship'
between forces, replacing it, or them, with "forms of motion".
Now, "forms of motion" aren't in any
obvious way inter-connected -- that is, if the relevant forces are edited out
of the picture by these means. But, DM requires
bodies in motion to be inter-connected. That is why an appeal to intermediary
'oppositional forces' seemed so useful and relevant. No, strike that -- why they
seemed so crucially important to Dialectica Marxists.
The interpretation of 'opposing forces' as 'dialectical contradictions'
was
clearly meant to provide this inter-connection -- i.e., 'opposing forces' were meant to form
part of the
'connective tissue of reality', as it were.
If such forces are now re-branded as little more than "useful fictions" -- i.e., as relative
"forms of motion" --, there
would seem to be nothing physical left in nature to act as the bearer of,
or the mediator between, supposedly inter-connected, episodic motion.
Without a material substrate
(pictured as these forces),
it would seem that 'contradictions' could only operate on bodies or processes magically, or, perhaps
even supernaturally.
Forces at least appeared to supply a physical link that 'forms of motion'
manifestly fail to do.
Ignoring these
serious. perhaps fatal, difficulties (again!) -- at least for the present --
the above objection could be
re-phrased more favourably, in the
following way:
F1: All and only those forces that are
oppositional -- or are implicated in struggle -- are contradictory.
But, if F1 were
the case, motion itself couldn't be
the result of 'contradictory forces' -- unless, of course, we confine our attention solely to
accelerated motion -- since, ex hypothesi, no net forces operate in cases
where there is no acceleration (i.e., in post-Aristotelian Physics). Even
then, accelerated motion (under
gravity, for instance) is subject to only one force (or, rather, one resultant
force) in Classical Physics, and none at all in Relativistic Physics.
At
best, therefore, adopting a
'classical view', accelerated motion in the universe (which, as far as we know,
covers all of the motion in the universe, at least in any relevant
inertial frame) is
the product of only one force (the resultant, again). But, given F1, it is hard to see how
any such
motion could be part of a 'contradictory' "Totality", if the 'classical
view' were correct, where only one force (the resultant) is involved. So, if F1 does indeed express what DM-theorists mean, most (perhaps all) of the motion in nature can't have been induced, caused,
changed or sustained by a single DM-'contradiction'.
With that observationmuch of classical DM
falls apart.22
It could be
objected that, as a matter of fact, all
motion in the universe is the result of a disequilibrium between oppositional
forces; that is precisely what a resultant force is. In that case,
therefore, bodies would move, or their state of motion would change, because of
just such an imbalance between forces. Hence, for example, the trajectory of
every planet in the Solar System -- which
move along what seem to be relatively steady orbits around the Sun --
are determined by resultant forces internal to the entire System. [In fact,
their
trajectories are also influenced by wider forces internal to our Galaxy -- and, indeed, beyond --
each of which is the product of complex, inter-relating systems of forces.]
Or, so it could be argued, once more...
That rejoinder will be considered in more detail
later, but for present purposes
it is sufficient to point out that it is difficult to see how such forces could be regarded
as oppositional. Presumably, they
don't affect each other;
they operate on, or they merely change, whatever motion is already present in the system. At best,
then, they would 'oppose' the impressed motion already apparent,
which motion would itself have been the result of still other forces operating
earlier, or elsewhere, in the system. This can be seen from the fact that if the moving bodies
in question hadn't been in the said 'force field', the above forces would
have had nothing on which they could act. In 'empty space', plainly, we would see
no new motion.23
Forces without bodies (etc.) to operate on don't interfere with each other, as
far as we know -- unless they are themselves regarded as particulate in
some way, or are
carried by particles, which would, of course, mean they weren't forces, they
were bodies to begin with.24
Readers are again reminded of something they were
earlier advised to keep
in mind (which is connected with the above remarks):
So, is the
'contradiction' here the relation:
(1) Between the bodies and processes
themselves?
(2) Between the
forces operating in the system? Or is it,
(3) A 'dialectical
union' of both?
That
ambiguity will be explored as this Essay and Part Three unfold. Readers are
encouraged to keep the above options in mind.
[UO = Unity of Opposites; DM = Dialectical
Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context; QM = Quantum Mechanics.]
The above
considerations are, of course, just one aspect of the classical 'ontological
problem' concerning the precise nature of forces, which is
(partly) why it has proved to be so difficult to comprehend them. Indeed, the detection
of forces seems exclusively to depend on the effects they have on bodies, or on
instruments
-- or, indeed, the effect they have on other 'fields'.
Perhaps even better: a 'force' appears to be little more than the way
scientists either depict or measure certain relationships between bodies -- as Engels, in an uncharacteristically
sober mood, pointed
out. [On
that, see Note 4.]
However, if
forces are to be viewed as particulate (that is, if certain
particles are
taken to be
the 'bearers' of a given force -- on that, see
Video Two), the 'problem'
will simply reappear at a lower level (as it were), and
we would be no further forward. [No pun intended!] This represents a conundrum that
Leibniz was, I think, among the first to
recognise. [On that, see here,
here,
here and
here.]
So, it looks
like an interaction between forces could only take place if they are
modelled as
particulate in some way -- that is, if they register some sort of
resistance to one another (i.e., if they are impenetrable to a
greater or lesser
extent -- howsoever that is interpreted).
On the other
hand, if forces aren't
particulate, it is hard to see how they could interact at all, let alone
'contradict' each other. Continuous media have no rigidity and no
(obvious source of) impenetrability, which would seem to a necessary requirement if they were
deemed capable of exerting forces of any sort -- except, of course, as
a
figurative extension to what is meant by particulate interaction, after all.
[This has
been questioned by Smith (2007). My response to that article will be posted in Note 30
at some point in the future.]
But, there are well-known
classical problems
associated with the idea that forcesare particulate (they were
outlined
here --
see also this earlier discussion), not the least of
which is the realisation that if forces were particulate, they could only
interact if they exerted still other forces (contact forces, cohesive forces, forces of
reaction, and so on, which would hold them together or lend to them some sort of
physical cohesion), so that they could act on other
particulates, and hence resist their own penetration/disintegration. But those factors would,
plainly, initiate an infinite regress. Hence, in
order to account for the ability of particles to resist one another (and not
pass through each other totally unaffected), we would
need to appeal to yet more forces internal to each particle to stop, say, one
of them penetrating the other, or prevent any resulting distortions tearing them apart,
if or when
two or more collide/interact. But, if the forces internal to bodies are particulate,
too -- as it seems they must be, given this interpretation of forces --
it would require
still further forces to account for the internal coherence of these new, smaller,
'force-particles', and so on...
In order to
prevent an infinite regress, at some point there would have to be particles that
were perfectly rigid, or nothing could interact in the above way' [Again, why
that is so was covered in greater detail in Part One, and earlier (links above), where the
serious problems implied by either alternative were also noted.]
But even
with 'perfect rigidity' there are problems since
that 'rigidity' would have be the result of the action of no further internal
forces (or the above regress would kick in again), which would ultimately mean
that forces can be dispended with.
Alternatively, if these 'internal forces'
are
non-particulate -- i.e., if they were continuous media of some sort --, they would be incapable of sustaining
any sort of inner coherence, once again, since they would have no rigidity, etc., etc.
Colliding 'particles' would simply pass through one another and register no
exchange of momentum.
In the end nothing would be accounted for
since, at each level, there would be
nothing to provide the required resistance or coherence.
So, it seems that reducing the interaction between forces to that between bodies
explains nothing. It also implies that
particles can't 'contradict' one another without also exerting non-particulate
forces on each other -- which would mean, once again, that they were
incapable of exerting their own forces, having no rigidity to do so, etc., etc.
[It is
important to add that I am not arguing that there can be no interactions -- as
Kline and Matheson (1987), for example, maintains -- just that we have as yet no
idea how they could possibly happen! I have said more about this in Note 30.]
Unfortunately, even exchange particles
(in
Quantum
Field Theory) would succeed in exerting forces
only if there were
still further reaction forces internal to each interacting body -- that is, if they
were
bodies, to begin with. However, as noted earlier (but in more detail in Essay Seven
Part One), most physicists
now speak of such 'particles' as 'disturbances in
the
field' (and, it is worth reminding ourselves, fields are mathematical, not physical, objects/structures):
"We learn in school that the basic building blocks of
matter are particles. In fact, we often continue to teach this in universities
where we explain that quarks and electrons form the lego-bricks from which all
matter is made. According to our best laws of physics, the fundamental building
blocks of Nature are not discrete particles at all. Instead they are continuous
fluid-like substances, spread throughout all of space. We call these objects
fields. The most familiar examples of fields are the electric and magnetic
field. The ripples in these fields give rise to what we call light or, more
generally, electromagnetic waves. If you look closely enough at electromagnetic waves,
you'll find that they are made out of particles called photons. The
ripples of the electric and magnetic fields get turned into particles when we
include the effects of quantum mechanics. But this same process is at play for
all other particles that we know of. There exists, spread thinly throughout
space, something called an electron field. Ripples of the electron field get
tied up into a bundle of energy by quantum mechanics. And this bundle of energy
is what we call an electron. Similarly, there is a quark field, and a gluon
field, and Higgs boson field. Every particle [in] your body --- indeed, every
particle in the Universe --- is a tiny ripple of the underlying field, moulded
into a particle by the machinery of quantum mechanics." [Quoted from
here; accessed 13/12/2017. Paragraphs merged.
Italic emphases in the original. Minor typo corrected.]
However, such an approach would generate a few problems of its own. The forces exerted in the above
manner (inside exchange particles -- if we can even speak about the
'inside' of a 'disturbance'!), or, indeed, inside any other particle that is acted upon)
must themselves be the result of
rigidity, cohesion, and contact (etc.), if they are capable of stopping the force carrier particle passing
right through the affected particle without acting on it or changing its motion. Of course, as pointed
out
above, contemporary physicists appeal to
fields, energy gradients,
Feynman
diagrams and the like, rejecting 'mechanistic' notions like those
rehearsed in the previous couple of paragraphs. But, if fields and particles are
bothcontinuous, the above problems will simply re-emerge at this
new level. On the other hand, if forces are
particulate, after all, this merry-go-round will just take another spin across the
metaphysical dance floor.
So,
according to the picture painted in Video Two, repulsive forces
may be illustrated by an analogy drawn between
a pair of individuals standing opposite each other in two closely aligned boats floating on a
lake. If one individual throws a heavy ball to the other individual,
conservation of liner
momentum will mean both boats
move apart, which will make it seem there is a repulsive force acting between
the two boats or between the two individuals. Clearly, this scenario will only work if the
first individual's body is rigid enough to allow the ball to be thrown, in the
first place, and the second individual's body is rigid enough to stop that ball
passing straight through their body, unopposed. But, if they are both
rigid enough, that will be because of forces internal to their bodies, which can't
now also be explained in the same (particulate) terms without an infinite regress
being initiated, once again. So, if forces are communicated by carrier particles
(and they are pictured this way, as bodies that have an imputed rigidity) nothing
will have been explained. On the other hand, if forces aren't particulate, but
are continuous, then nothing would actually happen (for reasons explored in the
previous few paragraphs).
Of course,
it could be objected
once more that the above remarks are based on an out-dated, 'mechanistic'
view of interaction and hence, as a result, are completely misguided.
However, the modern 'mathematical' approach has clearly abandoned any
possibility of giving a causal, or even physical, account
of forces -- or at least one that provides an explanation which doesn't itself depend on a figurativeextension to the meaning of the sort of verbs we
use in the vernacular to account for physical interactions or why certain things happen in
everyday life -- so that we might make sense of sub-atomic interactions. To that
end, we successfully employ such everyday verbs as: "push", "pull", "drag",
"move", "throw", "catch", "resist", "hit", "collide", "deflect", "interact",
"stop", and the like; but they can't be used in QM without their use
becoming figurative and non-literal -- even on the admission of
those who reply in the above manner! But, in order
to work in the way that these sub-atomic interactions are depicted (for example,
in Video Two (link above)), the analogy on which that approach depends requires a literal,
not a figurative, interpretation of
just such verbs! And yet, figurative bodies and figurative verbs
can't effect a literal exchange of momentum! Or, no more than poetry can make
the Sun set.
So,
if a particle is viewed as the carrier of a force, and that force can be given
no
physical content -- for want of a better term -- and it is still deemed capable of making
anything happen (for instance, deflecting
other particles from their
line of action (etc.)), then
the above verbs must themselves lose contact with
the meaning of typographically identical everyday expressions as they are
successfully used to
talk about analogous macro-phenomena.
Now,
there is no problem with any of this providing we are aware of it and don't make
the mistake of interpreting any such a technical use of verbs literally, thereby
making the mistake of trying to understand them in their everyday sense.
In that case,
if Video Two, for example, doesn't intend a literal interpretation of
"throw" or "catch", then it is employing a useless analogy. On the other hand, if such
verbs are meant to be take literally, all the above problems resurface.
[Of course, I am picking on Video Two, but the analogy it uses is quite common
in popularisations of the physics involved. On that, see
here and
here (this links to a
PDF); in addition, cf., for instance, Giancoli (2016), p.922, which also uses an
everyday example (in this case, two children holding pillows!) to explain
'attractive forces'.]
Even so,
as a result of the above considerations, a purely 'mathematical account of
interactions' (which abandons the 'mechanistic interpretation' of such
interactive verbs) must be purely descriptive, not explanatory.
Differential
Equations,
Hamiltonians, vectors,
tensors and abstract spaces can't make
anything move or alter the path of
a single particle -- or, at least, not without theorists interpreting the verbs used to
that end literally! Clearly, that would plunge us right back into the
infinite regress from which we thought we had extracted ourselves.
Undeniably,
scientists can model such phenomena using mathematical
structures, language and symbols as they see fit (not that they need my
permission or acquiescence!), thus enabling them to 'balance the books of nature', as it
were. But, the downside is that mathematical models can't
explain
why anything actually happens.
[Admittedly,
that depends on what is meant by "explanation". I will say more about
that in Essay
Thirteen Part Two. However, for more
recent qualms in this area, see Note 30. Cf., also my comments over at Wikipedia,
here
(at the foot of the page) and
here. Readers shouldn't conclude at this point
that I am questioning the existence of any of the fields postulated by
physicists. What I am doing is
questioning whether they can account for anything physical, or explain why
anything actually happens. On that, see the discussion between myself
and Paul
Cockshott,
here, and another between myself and a comrade who posted under the name
"Lynx",
here. (Unfortunately those links are now dead! At some point, I will try to
locate these discussions on the internet somewhere and post them as an
Appendix to this Essay.]
All this perhaps helps
account for Engels's own underlying suspicion of forces. Ontologically, they appear
to be deeply mysterious, if not entirely animistic. He isn't alone.
[Other relevant aspects of the nature of
forces were covered here.]
Clued-in
physicists already appear to be aware of this problem (i.e., that it presents
them with serious difficulties connected with the language they use). Here, for
example, is the late
David Peat:
"It hasn't been a great couple of years for theoretical physics. Books such as
Lee Smolin's
The Trouble with Physics and
Peter Woit's
Not Even Wrong embody the frustration felt across the field that
string
theory, the brightest hope for
formulating a theory that would explain the universe in one beautiful equation,
has been getting nowhere. It's quite a comedown from the late 1980s and 1990s,
when a grand unified theory seemed just around the corner and physicists
believed they would soon, to use
Stephen
Hawking's words, 'know the mind of
God'. New Scientist even ran an article called 'The end of physics'. So what went wrong? Why are physicists finding it so hard to make that final
step? I believe part of the answer was hinted at by the great physicist
Niels Bohr, when he wrote: 'It is
wrong to think that the task of physics is to find out about nature. Physics
concerns what we can say about nature.' At first sight that seems strange.
What has language got to do with it? After all, we see physics as about
solving equations relating to facts about the world -- predicting a comet's
path, or working out how fast heat flows along an iron bar. The language we
choose to convey question or answer is not supposed to fundamentally affect the
nature of the result.
Nonetheless, that assumption started to unravel one night in the spring of
1925, when the young
Werner
Heisenberg worked out the basic
equations of what became known as quantum mechanics. One of the immediate
consequences of these equations was that they did not permit us to know with
total accuracy both the position and the velocity of an electron: there would
always be a degree of irreducible uncertainty in these two values. Heisenberg needed an explanation for
this. He reasoned thus: suppose a very delicate (hypothetical) microscope is
used to observe the electron, one so refined that it uses only a single photon
of energy to make its measurement. First it measures the electron's position,
then it uses a second photon to measure the speed, or velocity. But in making
this latter observation, the second photon has imparted a little kick to the
electron and in the process has shifted its position. Try to measure the
position again and we disturb the velocity. Uncertainty arises, Heisenberg
argued, because every time we observe the universe we disturb its intrinsic
properties.
"However, when Heisenberg showed his
results to Bohr, his mentor, he had the ground cut from under his feet. Bohr
argued that Heisenberg had made the unwarranted assumption that an electron is
like a billiard ball in that it has a 'position' and possesses a 'speed'. These
are classical notions, said Bohr, and do not make sense at the quantum level.
The electron does not necessarily have an intrinsic position or speed, or even a
particular path. Rather, when we try to make measurements, quantum nature
replies in a way we interpret using these familiar concepts. This is where language comes in.
While Heisenberg argued that 'the meaning of quantum theory is in the
equations', Bohr pointed out that physicists still have to stand around the
blackboard and discuss them in German, French or English. Whatever the
language, it contains deep assumptions about space, time and causality --
assumptions that do not apply to the quantum world. Hence, wrote Bohr, 'we
are suspended in language such that we don't know what is up and what is down'.
Trying to talk about quantum reality generates only confusion and paradox.
Unfortunately Bohr's arguments are often put aside today as some physicists
discuss ever more elaborate mathematics, believing their theories to truly
reflect subatomic reality. I remember a conversation with string theorist
Michael Green
a few years after he and
John
Schwartz
published a paper in 1984 that was instrumental in making string theory
mainstream. Green remarked that when
Einstein
was formulating the theory of relativity he had thought deeply about the
philosophical problems involved, such as the nature of the categories of space
and time. Many of the great physicists of Einstein's generation read deeply
in philosophy. In contrast, Green felt, string
theorists had come up with a mathematical formulation that did not have the same
deep underpinning and philosophical inevitability. Although superstrings were
for a time an exciting new approach, they did not break conceptual boundaries in
the way that the findings of Bohr, Heisenberg and Einstein had done.
The American quantum theorist David Bohm
embraced Bohr's views on language,
believing that at the root of Green's problem is the structure of the languages
we speak. European languages, he noted, perfectly mirror the classical world of
Newtonian physics. When we say
'the cat chases the mouse' we are dealing with well-defined objects (nouns),
which are connected via verbs. Likewise, classical physics deals with objects
that are well located in space and time, which interact via forces and fields.
But if the world doesn't work the way our language does, advances are inevitably
hindered. Bohm pointed out that quantum effects
are much more process-based, so to describe them accurately requires a
process-based language rich in verbs, and in which nouns play only a secondary
role....
Physics as we know it is about equations and quantitative measurement. But
what these numbers and symbols really mean is a different, more subtle matter.
In interpreting the equations we must remember the limitations language places
on how we can think about the world...." [Peat
(2008), pp.41-43. Bold emphases
and several links added; quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions
adopted at this site. Several paragraphs merged.]
Now,
I don't want to
suggest for one moment that I agree with what Peat has to say about the nature of
language (or even about scientific language), but
his remarks certainly show
that at least some leading scientists are aware there is a problem here.
[Admittedly, Peat concurs with Bohm
over the suggestion that we need to learn from Native
American languages, many of which seem to have rather peculiar grammars.
Nevertheless, it is to be
wondered how a culture that has produced no advanced science/technology of any note
has much (in this respect) to teach one that has. (Again, this topic will be
explored in greater detail in Essay Thirteen
Part Two, to be published in 2027.) Nor is it at all clear what it
means to say that language itself contains certain assumptions. In fact, as this sub-section
of the present Essay aims to show, that isn't the case. Having said that, it is important to add that when I say Native
American culture has produced "no advanced science/technology of any note ", I don't mean to disparage, demean or
depreciate that culture! Plainly, Native Americans wouldn't have
survived had they failed to develop any scientific ideas or any
technology, nor would they have flourished for centuries without a range of
highly sophisticated, diverse cultures.
Clearly, they managed all three (and much else besides!). What I am alluding to is the vastly superior scientific
knowledge and technology that has been enabled by the growth of capitalism -- even if
the class war has greatly abused, deflected and distorted it --, upon which the very possibility of socialism and human
emancipation are predicated.
As impressive, amazing and unique as Native American culture in all its
forms was, and still is, a
socialist economy and society can't be built on its basis. Not that a socialist society
would threaten or attempt to eradicate such cultures. Quite the opposite: a
socialist society will protect,
preserve and enhance them! On this, also
see Essay
Eleven Part One.]
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
Classically, forces seem to work only on bodies by altering their
motion, not on each other. In which case, the supposed opposition isn't between bodies, nor is it between
bodies and forces, nor yet between forces and forces; it is
between forces and any motion already in the system. But, this picture is
difficult to square with the idea that there are countless UOs at work here. Nor
does it tally with the claim that 'dialectical', polar
opposites are what ultimately induce motion and change. That is because (once again)
forces don't oppose each other; they oppose or augment whatever motion is
already present in the system, howsoever it was caused.
In short,
given this 'revised' view, the term "contradiction" wouldn't apply to 'opposing forces' (i.e., to forces that oppose each other), nor
to bodies. On the contrary, 'contradictions' would involve the inter-relation
between forces and
whatever
movement is already present. But, as yet, no DM-theorist has given any clear sense to the idea
that a force could 'contradict' the impressed motion in a system. And rightly
so. There are no opposites here for a single DM-'contradiction' to latch
onto. Whatever forces turn out to be, how could a single one of them be the 'dialectical opposite' of movement -- i.e., the
'dialectical opposite' of 'a change of place'?
It
could be objected that as a matter of fact
forces in nature do oppose (in the sense that they change) motion. Indeed, it could be
argued that DM-theorists' focus is on forces that actually operate in nature and society (as opposed to those abstracted
from it). These opposites objectively exist and can't be analysed or hand-waved away.
Or so it might be argued...
That much
won't be disputed here (even if its wording might).
But, in what way can such a set-up be said to involve 'inter-connected
opposites' required by the theory? What sense can be given to the idea that motion
in one direction is the opposite of a force that affects it? Certainly
the latter
aren't unified opposites (i.e., opposites of the same type, so
they can legitimately be said to be 'dialectically'/'logically inter-connected' -- that is,
where the existence of one
implies the existence of the other, in the 'Hegelian sense' of that word, which, as we have seen,
is a
core
DM-requirement). So, whatever the connection between motion in a
given system and any force acting on it turns out to be, it can't be
'dialectical'. That is because movement itself doesn't imply the existence of
the force that supposedly opposes it, nor does any such force imply the existence of
the motion it is opposing. Each can exist without
the other (unlike, say, the proletariat and the bourgeoisie, which supposedly
imply one another). If this were
a 'dialectical interaction', they would imply one another such that neither
could exist
without the other.
That is quite apart from the fact that many 'forces' augment
motion, they don't oppose it!
At best,
any such forces involved might tend to produce an opposite motion --
i.e., motion in an opposite direction, or even a change of motion in the same
direction -- or perhaps none at all. But, to describe these two
factors -- force and motion -- as
"opposites" would appear to make as much sense as claiming that "left" was
the opposite of "television", even if, as a matter of fact,
someone moved a television to the left. The actual connection in reality
(between a force and a moving body) has
nothing to do with whether it is sensible to describe such factors as unified opposites,
or even as oppositional. These terms -- "force" and "motion" -- are categorically
different and dimensionally
inconsistent. Hence, it isn't a question of whether or not
DM-theorists are dealing with 'objective' facts. The question that should be
asked is: why can the above counter-claim only be
advanced by mis-describing the relevant phenomena?25
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context;
CAR= Cartesian
Reductionism/Reductionist, also depending on the context; UO = Unity of Opposites; DN = Dialectics of
Nature, i.e., Engels (1954).]
When
they are viewed as vectors, it is undeniable that velocities, accelerations and
forces can in some circumstances be represented as 'opposites', but that is
given within vector algebra and follows from a series of definitions. By no
stretch of the imagination are these 'dialectical opposites'. They can
all exist without any
other vector existing and they don't imply one another -- (once more!), for
example, in the way that the capitalist class
implies the existence of the proletariat, and vice versa.
According to the DM-classics (link a few paragraphs back), this means they can't
be 'dialectical opposites', whatever else they are.
Vectors have been written into a wide variety of mathematical structures, but
their supposed 'dialectical' nature can only be read into the world by countermanding
the assurance
volunteered by most DM-theorists
that they never do this --
i.e., they say they refuse to foist their
ideas on the facts. Unless we are
prepared to admit all the absurdities outlined earlier
(which would have us believe that vectors can 'struggle' among themselves), any
attempt to picture vectors as 'contradictory' is without foundation.
Anyway, if
vector, v, has an opposite, -v, that vector
could be a billion miles away or it could be adjacent to v. Either
way, these two vectors do not 'struggle' with one another, nor do they turn into each
other (which is what they should do
if the DM-classics are to be believed -- link a few paragraphs back). Again: whatever else they are,
opposite vectors aren't 'dialectical'.
In addition, as will be argued
in Interlude Six,
mathematics can in no way be regarded as an abstraction from reality.
Anyway, as pointed out earlier, most vectors aren't opposites. Many augment,
while
others operate at various angles to, each other.
[In fact, this topic is
connected with 'real negation', a concept introduced into Philosophy by
Immanuel Kant.
I will have much more to say about this in Appendix A. Other related issues will be examined in Essay Thirteen Part Two, when it
is published.
Finally, this is
also connected with the fact that, where there is more than one force at work in
a
system, any change of motion will be caused by a resultant force, a topic
discussed at greater length,
here.]
As already noted,
when forces are represented as vectors they can induce accelerations that
appear to 'oppose' the motion already present in the system. Ignoring for now the
fact that the use of such language is arguably anthropomorphic (or, it is
at best metaphorical), in such
cases we would be
establishing connections between objects, events, and processes drawn from the same category (i.e., vectors connected with
movement), which clearly makes sense. In this way, forces could be
replaced with relative accelerations by means of
Newton's Second Law, etc.
[As Engels himself seemed to believe.] But,
even then, an acceleration in an opposite direction doesn't oppose the
original velocity. An acceleration (in vector algebra, which is what we are
dealing with, here) just is a changing velocity, it
doesn't produce that velocity or create it. A relevant force is supposed to have
done that
(in Newtonian Physics). Accelerations aren't
'disembodied beings' that inhabit the world, throwing their weight about,
bullying velocities to do their bidding. They simply are
changing velocities (i.e., they are rates of change of rates of change of displacement), no more, no less.
In like manner, a velocity simply represents the rate of change of displacement. So, even in DM-terms,the idea that
accelerations
might 'contradict' each other seems rather odd
(to say the least!). That is because no accelerating body implies the existence of the
velocity (or its rate of change) present in any other body, and both can surely exist without the other.
Once again, that is totally unlike the connection between the capitalist class and the proletariat,
which do imply one another --
or so we are told.
However, in vector algebra no sense can be made of the addition (or subtraction)
of a force and a velocity vector, unless this is mediated by the Second Law (etc.). Even then, the relation between acceleration and velocity vectors has
to be established by well-known equations. The various physical quantities
represented by these equations can only be linked by means of such translations, which set up analogies between categorically different items, but in a
dimensionally consistent manner. That is one reason why no mathematical
(or
physical) sense can be
given to 'equations' like the following:
(1) F
= -v(sic)
(2) a
= kv(sic)
[Where "F" stands
for "force", "v" for "final velocity", "a" for "acceleration", and "k" is
a
constant of proportionality.]
Equations like those
would be regarded as dimensionally incoherent (unless further dimensions
had been built into the
'constant' -- but that would now make that 'constant' -- k -- a variable(!)). Compare the
above with the next series of
examples:
(3) s
= ut + ˝at2
(4) a
= -ω2r
(5) F
= -mrω2
[Where "r"
represents radial displacement, "u" is initial velocity, "t" is time, "ω"
is
angular velocity, "m" represents mass, "F"
centripetal force, and "a"
centripetal
acceleration in (4), but linear acceleration in (3). (Concerning Dimensional
Analysis, see here.)]
In Classical Physics, by means of translational,
or analogical,
equations like these -- or, perhaps making the same point a little more clearly: by the use of
algebraic rules that enable inferences involving physical quantities to be drawn,
in which forces feature as factors in a "norm/form of representation",
we can 'convert' forces into accelerations, compare magnitudes, and thus account
for
changes in motion, etc., etc.
Unfortunately, this is
of
little help to beleaguered Dialectical Marxists since the translation of forces into relative
accelerations means that forces turn out to be "useful fictions", the
realisation of which would re-introduce all the difficulties
mentioned earlier
(and covered again, below).
[That isn't a problem
for the account presented at this site, for reasons expressed in the previous
paragraph but one. (That rather enigmatic remark will be clarified in Essay
Thirteen Part Two.)]
However, even if the above comments were rejected for some (currently
unspecified) reason, that would
still lend scant support to DM, for such representations aren't oppositional.
Clearly, they don't slug it out on the page, screen or whiteboard.
And, manifestly, they don't turn into one another (as we are told they should by
the
DM-classics).
Hence, if two ('opposite') forces (for
instance,F and G, inclined at θo
to the x axis, in
R2) are in equilibrium, are
then resolved (into
their i and
j components), and are then
expressed as follows:
|F| cosθ - |G| cosθ = 0,
|F| sinθ - |G| sinθ = 0,
no one supposes (it is to be hoped!) that these symbols are locked in a
life-or-death 'struggle' with one another, and, as a result, will one day change into each other.
[I deal with
what they supposedly express, below.]
Naturally, the above conclusions aren't affected in any way if these forces
aren't in equilibrium:
|F| cosθ - |G| cosθ > 0
|F| cosθ - |G| cosθ < 0
and/or:
|F| sinθ - |G| sinθ > 0
|F| sinθ - |G| sinθ < 0
Furthermore, it would be little use arguing that while it is true that the
above expressions themselves may be lifeless (and thus incapable of struggling
among themselves, and then turning into each other), what they represent in the real world not
only can struggle in that way, they actually do struggle and then turn into one
another. It would be
little use because the above considerations were aimed at undermining the idea
that vector calculus is
'dialectical'. The supposedly 'dialectical nature of forces in
reality', represented by the above symbols, is an entirely separate issue, which
has been systematically demolished throughout this Essay, as well as here.
However, it would be interesting to see if there are any DM-supporters out there who
can explain how such forces actually do manage to struggle with, and then turn into, each
other (as they should if the
DM classics are to be believed, etc., etc.). Exactly how does
either F or G, above (or whatever they 'reflect') turn into
the other, and vice versa?
[On a
separate but related issue: the allegedly 'dialectical nature of Higher
Mathematics and the Calculus' has been neutralised
here.]
Incidentally, some readers might be a little puzzled by
the use of the word "analogical" in an
earlier paragraph. The appearance of that word
is connected with:
(i) The history of the development of mathematical language
associated with
this area of Physics and Applied Mathematics; and,
(ii) The way we make sense of such equations.
More specifically,
a significant change in terminology (or at least in connection with what it supposedly signified) arose out of:
(iii)
The reservations expressed by Ancient Greek mathematicians concerning the
relationship between so-called
"incommensurables" (i.e., physical quantities from different categories
for which no common noun or predicate could be found
that allowed them to be 'co-measured' -- i.e., "commensurated"); and
then with,
(iv) How those problems were resolved by mathematicians in the High
Middle Ages.
Following on the
growth and development
of market economies in Mid-, to Late-Feudal society, the artificial barriers
between the above categories were progressively eroded as new grammars
('concepts') were introduced into language by merchants and traders to help account for the exchange of quantities drawn
from just such different kinds. Since they had to be co-measured (in
order to balance the
books and continue trading!), language and mathematics were 'adjusted accordingly'.
Hence, these new
concepts were introduced
by mathematicians, merchants and bankers so that what had been regarded as incommensurable quantities could be
compared analogically -- enabling, for example, the calculation of the
exchange-value of a widely diverse range of use-values/commodities. As a spin-off, these
conceptual innovations -- when they were also incorporated into the physics of
the day -- allowed theorists to move beyond
an earlier 'commonsense' approach to motion encapsulated in Aristotelian Physics,
thus enabling the foundations of modern mechanics to be established in the period
between the 13th and the
18th centuries.
[At this point, it might be wondered why
incommensurability presents a problem, but a moment's reflection with return an
answer: apples and oranges, or cats and dogs, may only be added by finding a
common noun or noun phrase that enables it to happen: e.g., in the case of
apples and oranges it will be "fruit", or even "pieces of fruit"; with cats and
dogs, it will be "mammals" or even "animals". In language we don't have
nouns/noun phrases, such as "apple-oranges" or "cat-dogs". So, with that in
mind, we can now do some addition: two apples and three oranges yield five
pieces of fruit; five cats and six dogs yield eleven mammals. Of course,
extra-linguistically we can add together almost anything (physically or just in
'the mind's eye) -- in this instance by, say, putting two apples and three
oranges in a bag. Readers can even lump together a hungry lion with their left
foot (even if that would be an unwise move
IRL). Nothing
(obvious) stops us doing the first, but, clearly, the second can only be
achieved safely in the imagination. Nevertheless, there is no way we can
describe the results in either case except by the use of a commensurating common
noun/noun phrase: such as "pieces of fruit" -- or, in the case of the hungry
lion and your left foot, "objects" or even "mental images". A similar but less
concrete 'problem' affects how fractions are added when they fail to share a
common denominator --
for instance, 1/2 and 1/3. These two fractions can only be added when they are
converted into equivalent
fractions that share the
lowest/least common
denominator (which is 6, in this case): that done we would have, 1/2 = 3/6
and 1/3 = 2/6. The addition can now proceed: 3/6 + 2/6 = 5/6. Of course, this
process becomes far more complicated when we turn to the interpretation of the
sort of equations considered earlier -- or even the accounting and trading
problems that confronted Medieval bankers, traders and merchants --, but the
overriding principle is still the same.]
This emphasis on the
analogical nature of modern algebraic forms depicting motion follows on from an
approach to mathematical development that sees it as conditioned by contingent,
historico-economic factors predicated on wider material
and social relations.
This view of mathematical innovation also helps undermine the idea that
mathematics is solely concerned with, or is uniquely derived by, 'abstraction'.
The latter approach represents a social and anti-abstractionist orientation that further undercuts theories based
on the (unsupported) dogma that there is an Ideal World anterior
to, but more real than, the world we see around us -- mathematics, when it is interpreted on
Platonic/Realist lines, being a prime example of this. Since this covert 'Ideal World'
may be accessed by thought alone, it appeared to make sense that
mathematics must be solely based on thought, too. From there it was but a
short step to conclude that mathematics is founded exclusively on thought processes, on 'abstraction', and,
much later still,
on
logic itself.
In their own way, both approaches divorced
mathematics from social practice and development.
Platonism
(and its off-shoots) appeared to put
mathematics/mathematicians in direct touch with the 'Divine', and hence with pure concepts originally called into existence by 'God'
(or which only existed in 'God'). In fact, the universe itself was
regarded as a reflection and almost a concretisation of 'Divine Thought', which, of course,
implied that 'God Himself' was a
Mathematician, which in turn meant that the world itself was a 'mathematical
object' of some sort. That paradigm, in one form of another, currently dominates much of Contemporary Physics
(indeed, as we will see in Note 30).
Disappointingly, that allegation includes the ideas of Physicists who
at least claim to be agnostics or atheists, but who have in reality adopted a watered-down
version of this ancient world-view -- now called "Mathematical
Realism". Given that approach, the development of mathematics is
nothing less than a voyage of discovery not one of invention.
One can only discover what is already there, even if it can't be
detected by any physical means,
and never will be.
"All science
proceeds from the assumption that the cosmos is ordered in an intelligible way.
Beneath the bewildering richness of natural phenomena there lies an elegant
mathematical unity. How astonishing that the human mind is attuned to this
hidden subtest of nature!" [Physics Professor,
Paul Davies,
quoted in the flyleaf to Livio (2009); also
quoted at the publisher's website (expand the 'Praise' section). Bold emphasis added.]
"Philosophy is
written in that great book which ever lies before our eyes (I mean the universe)
but we cannot understand it if we do not first learn the language and grasp the
characters in which it is written. It is written in the language of mathematics,
and the characters are triangles, circles and other geometrical figures, without
which it is humanly impossible to comprehend a single word of it, and without
which one wanders in vain through a dark labyrinth." [Galileo, quoted in Livio
(2009), pp.76-77. Bold emphasis added.]
"The
Higgs Boson was predicted with the same tool as the planet Neptune and the
radio wave: with mathematics. Galileo famously stated that our Universe is a
'grand book' written in the language of mathematics. So why does our universe
seem so mathematical, and what does it mean? In my new book 'Our Mathematical
Universe', I argue that it means that our universe isn't just described by math,
but that it is math in the sense that we're all parts of a giant mathematical
object, which in turn is part of a multiverse so huge that it makes the other
multiverses debated in recent years seem puny in comparison." [Max
Tegmark, excerpted from Tegmark (2015). Quotation marks altered to conform
with the conventions adopted at this site. Bold emphasis and link added.]
"In [Plato's] famous cave analogy, he likened us to
people who'd lived their entire lives shackled in a cave, facing a blank wall,
watching the shadows cast by things passing behind them and eventually coming to
mistakenly believe that these shadows were the full reality. Plato argued that
what we humans call our everyday reality is similarly just a limited and
distorted representation of the true reality, and we must free ourselves from
our mental shackles to begin comprehending it. If my life as a physicist has taught me anything
at all, it's that Plato was right: modern physics has made abundantly clear that
the ultimate nature of reality isn't what it seems.... Our external physical reality is a mathematical
structure." [Tegmark (2015), pp.8, 254. See also
Tegmark (2008).]
Paragraphs merged; bold emphasis added. I have
posted a lengthy passage from Plato (1997b) to
Appendix B, where 'The Allegory of
the Cave' first saw the light of day (no pun intended).]
However, one wonders
why Professor Tegmark trusts any experiments or observations made by physicists -- or, indeed,
by any
other scientists. These he appears to take for granted, failing to regard
them as illusory. But, that would be true of them all if we only ever have
access to
'shadows', based on 'subjective experience' -- and that must also include everything
ever written by mathematicians, like Tegmark for instance!
Does he have direct and unfiltered access to this 'hidden world' in a
manner that is denied the rest of us?
Is he somehow able to apprehend mathematical objects and theorems in this
'hidden/ultimate world' by bypassing the senses? If
not, then just as soon as anything mathematical has been committed to paper, typed onto a screen,
or chalked on a blackboard it must be a 'shadow', too -- which means it can't reflect
'reality'.
Anyone who thinks this misrepresents Tegmark should read Chapter Nine of
his book (Tegmark (2015)). There, the author tries to sell the reader a downmarket, revamped
theory of the world first aired by
John Locke
and David
Hume, while he fails to explain -- nor does he even consider --
how anyone might so much as attempt to construct "external reality" out of
what he calls "internal reality", never mind how on earth they might
succeed in that
impossible task.
Now, I have no wish to praise
Immanuel Kant,
but Tegmark's amateur metaphysics would put epistemology back to where
it was before the Critique of Pure Reason
(this links to a PDF) rolled off the presses two-and-a-half centuries ago!
[I
have covered this specific topic -- the bogus philosophical distinction between
'appearance' and 'reality' -- in Essay Three Part Two,
here.
Readers are directed there for more details.]
Something like this, but which (mercifully) looks far less extreme, appears to be motivating Greene
(1999, 2004) and Penrose (1989, 1995, 2004). The same might be said with
slightly less justification about Smolin (2006) and Woit (2006).
For example, here is Roger Penrose:
"But are
mathematical notions things that really inhabit a 'world' of their own? If so,
we seem to have found our ultimate reality to have its home within that highly
abstract world. Some people have difficulties with accepting Plato's
mathematical world as being in any sense 'real', and would gain no comfort from
the view that physical reality itself is constructed merely from abstract
notions. My own position on this matter is that we should certainly take Plato's
world as providing a kind of 'reality' to mathematical notions..., but I might
baulk at actually attempting to identify physical reality with the
abstract reality of Plato's world.... [Penrose then commits himself to the
'three worlds' theory, somewhat similar to
Karl Popper's view (this links to a PDF), that there are mathematical,
physical and 'mental' components to 'the world' -- RL.] I like to think that, in
a sense, the Platonic world may be the most primitive of the three, since
mathematics is a kind of necessity, virtually conjuring its very self into
existence through logic alone." [Penrose (2004), p.1029. Italic emphasis
in the original; bold emphases and link added.]
Earlier in
the same book Penrose expressed himself as follows:
"If the model itself is to be
assigned any kind of 'existence', then this existence is located within the
Platonic world of mathematical forms. Of course, one might take a contrary
viewpoint: namely that the model is itself to have existence only within our
various minds, rather than to take Plato's world to be in any sense absolute and
'real'. Yet, there is something important to be gained in regarding mathematical
structures as having a reality of their own. For our individual minds are
notoriously imprecise, unreliable, and inconsistent in their judgements. The
precision, reliability, and consistency that are required by our scientific
theories demand something beyond any one of our individual (untrustworthy)
minds. In mathematics, we find a far greater robustness than can be located in
any particular mind. Does this not point to something outside ourselves, with
a reality that lies beyond what each individual can achieve?... Mathematics itself indeed seems to
have a robustness that goes far beyond what any individual mathematician is
capable of perceiving. Those who work in this subject, whether they are actively
engaged in mathematical research or just using results that have been obtained
by others, usually feel that they are merely explorers in a world that lies
far beyond themselves -- a world which possesses an objectivity that
transcends mere opinion, be that opinion their own or the surmise of others, no
matter how expert those others might be." [Ibid., pp.12-13. Bold emphases
added; paragraphs merged.]
Clearly, Penrose is a moderate
compared to Tegmark, for whom the world is an illusion, and where only
mathematical structures/objects are really 'real'. [If he has children, I hope
he thinks they are real! Why feed 'shadowy children'?]
By way of contrast, the
approach adopted at this site also helps
counter another core DM-thesis: that scientific development somehow
depends on the ability of theorists to 'abstract' concepts, or general terms, into existence
in the privacy of their own heads.
Abstractionism has already been destructively analysed
here and
here. There is a detailed
discussion of these issues (concerning mathematical developments unfolding in the High Middle Ages) in Hadden (1988, 1994), upon which
much of this part of the Essay was based. Hadden's pioneering work is
only prevented from being Marxist classic by the absence of a clear account of
the nature of language and the logic of analogical reasoning. However, in view of the fact that
the latter --
the logic of analogy
--
hasn't advanced significantly
since Aristotle's day (although it has certainly
proliferated in detail), that is hardly Hadden's fault.
On what has been achieved in this area, see White (2010).
[White's book is
in fact a pioneering study, only slightly spoiled by the author's attempt to
divert
his many clear insights into trying to make sense of talk about 'God'!]
[Hadden's conclusions are
themselves a development of ideas originally found in Borkenau (1987), Fleck (1979) and
Grossmann (1987). Cf., also Sohn-Rethel
(1978).
Clagett (1959) contains many of the original medieval sources. See also Zilsel (2000), and the more detailed
historical study, Kaye (1998).]
In that case,
while the
admission that forces can be edited out of the picture (so that relative
acceleration and relative motion may be viewed as opposites) might succeed in
winning this particular battle, it would only do so at the cost of losing the war. Once again, that
is because it would imply the universe was much more CAR-like than DM-theorists
seem
prepared to admit. If that account were valid, any references to DM-UOs would be little
more than a confused way of alluding to relative acceleration or
relative velocity. The connection between events could only then be explained in one
or more of the following ways, by:
(b) A
detailed analysis of the vector and scalar fields in which the said processes
were embedded.
In
either case, the
connection between events and processes wouldn't be governed by any sort of
physical
mediation (nor, indeed, any equivalent relation with the rest of the "Totality"), which is what DM
requires. That is because, on this view, a moving body would have no 'internal
(logical) connection'
with any other moving body. Any links that do exist would all be 'external' --
and hence no longer
'rational'.
At least an appeal to forces had the
advantage of
appearing to provide some sort of mediating link between bodies in
motion -- again, as required by DM. At first sight forces appear to be capable
of inter-connecting moving bodies in some sort of 'dialectical relationship'
(but only if the latter is left hoplessly vague). Of course, that is because a literal interpretation of "force" depends on
accepting
what is in effect an animistic view of nature and all that occurs within
it.
In which
case, any
attempt to edit forces out of the picture would result in the disappearance of
the 'dialectical connective-tissue of reality' (as it were); and with that DM would become
indistinguishable from mechanical materialism (i.e., it would devolve into a version of CAR itself), which
Dialectical Marxists had (vainly) sought to
replace, or even surpass.
As noted
earlier, DM-theorists require
forces to be part of the 'ontological fabric of the universe', which is why they
become so defensive, if not highly
agitated and emotional (on that, see for example
here
and here) when the existence of forces is
not just questioned, their connection with 'contradictions' is exposed for the
nonsense it is. Even
after what Engels had to say about forces is brought to their attention, they
totally ignore the fact that he, at least,
had begun to question
their existence and nature, choosing to replace force with relative motion. Clearly, DM-fans pick and choose which parts of Engels's ideas they
are prepared to accept. That one -- i.e., replacing "force" with
''relative motion" -- might prove to be
a bridge too far.
So, in order for DM even to seem to
be able to work, its theorists require the world to be populated by
the correlates of these anthropomorphic concepts -- in this case,
'opposing forces' --, which were themselves the result of a fetishisation of the products
of social interaction as if they were real objects and processes in nature and
society. That is, of
course, just another
toxic consequence of the much vaunted 'inversion' of Hegelian 'logic'.
Hence, whether
or not DM-fans
are prepared to acknowledge it, the language they use suggests that objects and processes in
nature are quasi-intelligent 'beings', engaged in what can
only be described as some sort of mystical conversation, or shouting match, with other objects
and processes (other quasi-intelligent
'beings'), as
they 'contradict' and 'negate' each other.
As has already been
pointed out, in parts of
DN Engels pictured motion in dynamical terms, portraying it as no more
than a
transfer of energy. [Engels (1954),
pp.69-102.]
That seems
to connect his rather sketchy ideas with more recent theories of motion,
modelled by vector and scalar fields -- maybe also with the
Laws of Thermodynamics. Or perhaps even with concepts
deployed in the study
of
non-EuclideanSpacetime, where talk
is no longer of forces. Hence those ideas might connect what he had to say with theories that began to take shape late on
in his life, and were largely completed a generation or so after
he died. Unfortunately for Dialectical Marxists, such a fundamental re-configuration
(of 'opposing forces' merely as 'relative motion', etc.) would mean that familiar DM-concepts (such as
"contradiction", "polar opposite", "UO", "internal
relation", etc., etc.) would
thereby become just as obsolete as
"natural place", "substantial form", "accident" and "substance"
are in Contemporary Physics --, notions that once featured prominently in ancient,
medieval and early modern scientific
and metaphysical theories.
Indeed, it is difficult to
see how, for instance, an energy
gradient (depicted as a
Scalar Field) could be interpreted as 'contradictory'
in any shape or form, even
though gradients like this abound in contemporary theories of motion. Well, no
more perhaps than, say, a ladder should be regarded as contradictory if someone
fell off it.
Far worse:
it is even more difficult see how states of affairs involving vector and
scalar fields, the
geodesics of Spacetime -- or even the
'strings' of M-theory
-- could form part of, or even fully comprise, a material universe. If everything in nature is
just a complex array of energy gradients, vector fields and differential
curvatures in Spacetime (which, as we have just seen, many Physicists now
suppose to be the case) -- spruced up here and there with a few probability density functions -- there would
seem to be no place left for anything that looks even remotely material.
Given the 'modern', mathematical picture of reality, matter itself
becomes a "useless fiction", explanatory of nothing at all. Small wonder then
that Lenin was highly suspicious of the Idealism implicit in the Physics of his
day (even if he had no answer to it). The situation has only deteriorated
markedly since.
[On that, see
Essay Thirteen
Part One. I hasten to add -- but
it should be obvious by now -- that I don't accept this 'mathematical picture of
reality'; or, to be more accurate, I
view it as thoroughly metaphysical --
and hence non-sensical -- if interpreted along such Realist/Platonic lines.
(No pun intended!)]
Quite apart from this, the 'ontological status' of 'energy' itself is highly
problematic -- and that situation is unlikely to change any day soon. [On that, see
here.] Energetics is
therefore no friend of
DM. Hence, Engels's own turn in that direction late in life was (perhaps) just another
serious mistake.
[I have said more about this topic in Essay Seven Part One,
here. Independently of
that, I regularly ask Physics Professors and Doctors of Physics who post, for example, on
Quora, what
energy actually is. I either receive no answer, or they admit they don't
really know -- see, for example,
here and
here (in the comments section).]
Of course, in DM-writings, clear definitions
of matter are as rare as hens' teeth -- as we will see in Essay Thirteen
Part One.
Indeed, DM-theorists like Lenin and Engels actually tell their readers that matter is
just
an 'abstraction'!
And then they have the cheek to point fingers
at mechanical materialists!
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
Only those who feel confident that they can
give a clear, detailed explanation of the claim that 'opposite forces' and relative motion are
'dialectical opposites' -- which can therefore form part of a 'dialectical
contradiction' -- will be in any
position to respond effectively to an objection
advanced earlier with something a little more convincing than
dismissive waves of the hand. Unfortunately, the provision of such an explanation
has been rendered even more
challenging for Dialectical Marxists since -- as we will
see -- forces often augment motion, they don't always "oppose" it.
Indeed, most of the bulk motion in the universe is of that sort, as pointed out earlier.26
However, even if it were possible to give a
perspicuous sense to the
theory that 'opposite forces' and
relative motion are
'dialectical opposites', it would still be bad
news for DM-fans. That is because any other 'oppositional force' in the
system couldn't also be the opposite of the original pairing
between a given force and a specific change of motion. And that in turn would mean systems of
'opposing forces' couldn't function (in DM) as currently imagined. In any such
eventuality,
it wouldn't be forces that opposed one another (as had originally been
claimed). Far from it;
in such a re-jigged set-up, as we have already seen, 'opposite forces' would oppose motionalready present in
the system, not other forces. In that case, the theory that change
is the result of systematically inter-related forcesacting on one another would have to be
abandoned.
Readers are
again reminded of something they were earlier asked to keep in mind:
So, is the
'contradiction' here the relation:
(1) Between the bodies and processes
themselves?
(2) Between the
forces operating in the system? Or is it,
(3) A 'dialectical
union' of both?
That
ambiguity will be explored as this Essay and Part Three unfold. Readers are
encouraged to keep the above options in mind.
As should now seem
reasonably clear, given the above attempt to make DM a little less obscure,
each factor in a complex array of interacting forces would have to be viewed as
'the opposite' of every other factor. In that case, a moving body would have countless 'opposites' (i.e.,
all the other forces and/or moving bodies in the system).27
That would once more put pressure on the 'dialectical meaning' of the word
"opposite", in effect
rendering it meaningless. And in that condition it would remain until
this 'difficulty' had been ironed out --, or, at least, until this attempt at
clarification had been modified to such an extent that it now allowed several
distinct factors to be regarded as the "opposite" of any one or more
of the rest. Under such circumstances, as we have already seen, polar
opposites would lose their key role in DM, and might have to be jettisoned. In fact,
that term would itself become meaningless, too -- i.e., if
everything in the system possessed countless "polar opposites",
the word "polar" would cease to mean what it might ordinarily be taken to mean.
And that would be quite
apart from the fact that any such attempt at clarification would
totally undermine the DM-theory
of change -- since, (i) none of these forces or moving bodies (in a given system) would imply
any of the
others, and (ii) each could exist without the rest --
which shouldn't be the case
with DM-'opposites'.
Not only
that, but, as we have also seen several times, adhoc linguistic tinkering
like this (e.g., concerning words like "opposite" and "polar") means this theory/method
will now only apply to
systems in nature and society because of yet more subjectively engineered,
terminological 'adjustment'. That would, of course, amount to another
imposition of DM on the facts,
something we were told Dialectical Marxists never do. But, modifying words
in favourable ways in order to rescue a theory is to impose that theory
on 'reality'.
Unfortunately, this
jellyfish-of-a-theory -- DM -- can't be squeezed anywhere without some of
it being forced through the fingers somewhere else:
Figure Two: Getting To Grips With
DM?
No Problem!
[This is an AI Image I generated
using the free software available
here.]
Given this
interpretation of 'opposing forces' as 'contradictions', what
had been touted all along as a grand theory capable of explaining change and
development -- because
it took account of the 'contradictory nature of Reality' interpreted as the
interplay between opposite forces --, now amounts to little more than
a few vague gestures in the direction of an appeal to the oppositional relation between a force and the motion already in
the system. [No pun intended!] And, as if to make things worse, this tall tale
has been
further compounded by the realisation that the DM-"Totality" is now a
mediated system of forces only because the definition of a "polar
opposite" has been 'corrected' so that it delivers the 'right result' --
except, that term no longer means
what it used to mean, but its opposite! If this is what DM-theorists mean
when they come out with their impressive sounding 'dialectical' theses, their theory can
only be rescued from oblivion if 'reality' turns out to be Ideal. [That
is, the 'nature of reality' is now to be determined by the words we feel constrained to use in
order to save a favoured theory from an ignominious crash and burn. The ersatz 'reality'
that emerges at the end of all this impressive, but no less dizzying,
word-juggling, was cobbled-together by means of language mostly imported from notorious Idealists,
ruling-class hacks and assorted Mystics. As we
will see in Essay Twelve, this
is a direct consequence of making the 'truth' of Dialectical Marxism's 'laws' depend on a
heady brew of ad
hoc linguistic 'tinkering' and Hegelian word-magic.]
However, even if the above
anti-DM objections
turn out to be misguided in some way, none of this makes any sense in DM terms, since
not one of these opposites
(i.e., force and motion) morphs into the other, as the DM-classics tell us they should:
"The law of the interpenetration of opposites.... [M]utual penetration of polar
opposites and transformation into each other when carried to extremes...."
[Engels (1954),
pp.17,
62. Bold emphasis added.]
"Already in Rousseau, therefore, we find not only
a line of thought which corresponds exactly to the one developed in Marx's
Capital, but also, in details, a whole series of the same dialectical turns
of speech as Marx used: processes which in their nature are antagonistic,
contain a contradiction; transformation of one extreme into its opposite;
and finally, as the kernel of the whole thing, the negation of the negation.
[Engels (1976),
p.179. Bold emphasis added.]
"Hegel brilliantly divined the dialectics of things (phenomena, the world,
nature) in the dialectics of concepts…. This aphorism should be expressed more
popularly, without the word dialectics: approximately as follows: In the
alternation, reciprocal dependence of all notions, in the identity of their
opposites, in the transitions of one notion into another, in the eternal change,
movement of notions, Hegel brilliantly divined precisely this relation of things
to nature…. [W]hat constitutes dialectics?…. [M]utual dependence of notions all
without exception…. Every notion occurs in a certain relation, in a certain
connection with all the others." [Lenin (1961),
pp.196-97. Bold emphasis
added.]
"[Among the elements of dialectics are the following:] [I]nternally
contradictory tendencies…in [a thing]…as the sum and unity of opposites…. [This
involves] not only the unity of opposites, but the transitions of every
determination, quality, feature, side, property into every other [into its
opposite?]…. [Ibid., pp.221-22. Last set of parentheses in the original;
bold emphasis added.]
"And so every phenomenon, by the action of those same forces which condition its
existence, sooner or later, but inevitably, is transformed into its own
opposite…." [Plekhanov (1956), p.77.]
"Why is it that '...the human mind should take these opposites not as dead,
rigid, but as living, conditional, mobile, transforming themselves into one
another'? Because that is just how things are in objective reality. The fact is
that the unity or identity of opposites in objective things is not dead or
rigid, but is living, conditional, mobile, temporary and relative; in given
conditions, every contradictory aspect transforms itself into its opposite....
"In speaking of the identity of opposites in given conditions, what we are
referring to is real and concrete opposites and the real and concrete
transformations of opposites into one another....
"All processes have a beginning and an end, all processes transform themselves
into their opposites. The constancy of all processes is relative, but the
mutability manifested in the transformation of one process into another is
absolute." [Mao (1937),
pp.340-42. Bold emphases added.]
[Dozens of additional passages that make the same points were posted
here.]
So, consider any given force and the motion it supposedly opposes: clearly, that
force doesn't change into that movement, nor does that movement
change into that force, contrary to what the above DM-theorists assert
should happen if this were a 'dialectical process'.
[Incidentally, that disposes of
Weston's attempt to re-brand the second
force supposedly involved in a gravitational field, inertia --
Weston (2012), p.7.]
It could be
argued that contemporary physicists interpret each such force as an exchange of
momentum. Hence, force and movement are connected, contrary to the above
counter-claims.
Or so it might be
objected...
But, in
Contemporary Physics -- by the admission of scientists themselves -- there are no forces, just exchanges
of momentum. So force and movement can't be
connected if one half of this pairing doesn't actually exist. And,
as we saw earlier, any attempt to
replace force with relative motion (which is what this refocus on momentum
attempts to do) only succeeds in shattering the 'dialectical unity and integrity of the "Totality"'.
Someone could now respond that the above factors do change into each other
-- perhaps via an exchange of energy, or as part of equal and opposite
reactions, etc., etc.
With such a rebuttal, one can almost hear sounds of the wood at the bottom of a
new barrel being scraped!
But, even if the above
pro-DM-response were acceptable, another problem would immediately assert
itself. If force, F, were to turn into new movement, V, then the
second of these two
would follow the first -- i.e., we would have F first, V second. In that case, F would create
V at a later time,
otherwise it couldn't turn into it. [Recall that
according to the
DM-classics, objects and processes turn into that with which they have 'struggled'.]
But, V doesn't yet exist for it to struggle with anything! On the other
hand, if V
already exists, Fcouldn't turn into it. [To add to the woes
of anyone who might raise a pro-DM objection like this, unanswerable
questions would soon be asked about where V came from! It can't have been the
result of an earlier force, Fe,
since the same questions will now be asked about this force that had been asked
about F itself -- and so on to infinity.] Moreover, F and V
can't 'struggle' with each other since they can't simultaneously exist if one
of them has to turn into the other. If, on the other
hand, F were to change as a result of some other, as yet unspecified,
factor, X, then X, not V, would be the opposite of F,
and F
would turn into X, not V! The same would be the case, vice versa.
And the latter would still apply if we substituted "inertia" for "momentum"
(or
even "movement").
Alternatively, consider force,
R, and
episodic movement, V*, the
first supposedly opposing, or 'contradicting', the second. R could even
be
the reaction force of a body that has just collided with another body. It
might now be argued that in this case, the motion, V*, of the second body
is what produces the reaction, R, and that reaction then alters
V* in return.
[It is worth
recalling that we are here considering the relation between a force and the
motion already in the system, not the relation of a force with a body.
That is because we are trying to make sense of the idea that forces contradict
motion. We will return to consider the relation
between forces and bodies (whether moving or stationary), later.]
In response, let us imagine
that two bodies,
A and B, collide (and to simplify things, let this collision take
place between
A and B where their lines of action are inclined at 180ş to each
other, before and after the collision). Let the motion of both be VA1
and VB1,
respectively, before the collision, and VA2
and VB2,
after. Further, let the reaction force produced in each body be RA
and RB,
respectively.
Hence, in this scenario, VA1
results in RB,
and VB1
results in RA.
In turn, RA
then induces VB2,
and RB
induces VA2.
[In fact, of course, RA
and RB
induce each other, via
Newton's Third Law, but I am here examining the alternative theory that
force and opposite movement 'contradict' one another. Whether 'opposing forces'
are capable of 'contradicting' each other directly or indirectly will be
examined later.]
But, according to the
DM-classics (link above), an object or process turns into that with which it
has 'struggled' -- its 'dialectical opposite'. So, since VA1
turns into VA2, it must have 'struggled' with it.
The same must be the case with VB1
and VB2.
But, that can't happen since neither of VA2
and VB2
yet exist for VA1
and VB1 to
'struggle' with! On the other hand, if VA2
and VB2
already do exist, VA1
and VB1
couldn't change into them, since they are already there! [Again: if VA2
and VB2do not already exist, there would be nothing with which VA1
and VB1
could 'struggle', and hence change.] So, according to this interpretation
of DM it must mean VA1
and VB1
can't change, after all!
[Or, they can't do so in the above way. I have
omitted the negative signs usually employed in Applied Mathematics in
such circumstances in order to reduce complexity -- which would also require the
setting up of a co-ordinate system, etc. So, for instance, one or other of VA1
or VB1
should be -VA1
or -VB1.
The same should be the case with several of the other symbols -- e.g., one or
other of RA
and RB
should be -RA
or -RB,
etc., etc. Sceptical readers are invited to play around with the above symbols;
not much will change as a result (no pun intended!).]
On the other hand, if RA
'struggles' with VB1,
then, according to the DM-classics, it must change into it. The same applies to
RB and
VA1.
But, VB1
changes into VB2, notRA,
and VA1
changes into VA2, notRB!
Not even the
two bodies involved, A and B,
turn into each other!
Once more, we
smack into the same
non-dialectical brick wall.
Howsoever we
try to re-package this ill-considered, half-baked, jelly-fish-of-a-theory, none of it makes
the slightest sense.
If a force
'contradicts' a moving body (and not
the motion already in
the system), then that force must change into this body and that body must change into that force --
if the
DM classics are to be believed (link above).
[The above
examples simply represent specific instances of more general, but fatal, defects
lodged right at the heart of the 'DM-theory of change', exposed in detail
in Essay Seven Part Three.
Nevertheless, this point can, and will be,
generalised later
in order to show that no two or
more forces could 'contradict' each other in the way that Dialectical
Marxists fondly imagine.]
Nevertheless, in order to examine
every
conceivable alternative available to DM-fans, I propose to analyse this particular option in even more detail. To that end, I will
now present an
alternative
clarification of what it might mean.
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; UO = Unity of Opposites.]
Perhaps the
following re-configuration might succeed in repairing the gaping holes in the above
interpretation of DM, at the same time as preventing the theory that UOs operate
everywhere in nature from being completely undermined:
F2: A UO involves the opposition
('struggle') between a
force, P1,
and the impressed motion that another force, or set of forces, Q, has produced (or
would have produced) in a body, B, had P1
never existed. The resultant motion of B is the final outcome of this
interaction.
F2 links the operation of one force (P1)
with that of another force, or set of forces, Q. However, it is difficult to
distinguish what F2 says about the factors involved from the vector resultant of two forces
if we subjected this set-up to the usual mathematical analysis. If so, the word
"struggle" would amount to little more than an anthropomorphic re-write of the
functional relations that exist within the vector calculus, only now applied to
just one force, the resultant. In that case, if and when P1
and Q interact, they will produce just one resultant force, R, and
it is that force which
would induce the recorded change in motion.28
But,
if that is so, a contradiction between
'oppositional forces' can't arise, in this instance: if there is only one force operating in the
system (R), there can be no contradiction -- i.e., if we adopt this interpretation of
DM. In that case, F2 threatens to undermine
the standard interpretation of this theory, killing it for want of forces.29
One obvious, DM-inspired answer to the above
criticisms might proceed along the following lines (no pun intended!): the
contradiction here is precisely the relation between
P1
and Q. The fact that
this results in the production of one force, R, is just the way
scientists mathematically process the cause of the ensuing motion. That in no
way affects the contradiction that produces the final outcome.
Or so it might be objected...
We will return to consider in much greater detail
this sort of reply
later on
(in addition, an entire
sub-section has been devoted to this question), but for present purposes it
is sufficient to point out that whatever else it is, this can't be a
'dialectical contradiction' (and it certainly isn't an ordinary -- or
even a formal -- contradiction, either!), so the above proffered pro-DM
rebuttal can't offer any assistance help to beleaguered DM-supporters.
But, why can't this be a 'dialectical
contradiction'? Anyone who asks that question has been paying scant
attention to a couple of questions that have repeatedly been asked throughout
this Essay (and will be asked again many more times before the end): Do these
forces,
P1
and Q change into each
other? No they don't Do they imply one another such that one of them can't exist
without the other (like the capitalist class both implies and can't exist
without the proletariat, so we are told)? Again no they do not. But they should
do both if the
DM-classics are to be believed. Admittedly, F2 does assert that these
forces form a UO, but what is the proof that this is always a 'dialectical UO'
and not just a coincidence of applied forces? Where is the derivation
of one force from the other?
As we will see as this Essay unfolds: since the
beginning Dialectical Marxists have adopted the slap-dash habit of labelling a
wide range of interactions and states of affairs "contradictory" without
bothering to inter-derive the factors involved along the lines Hegel attempted
-- on this, see Interlude Ten.
[For instance, Hegel tried to show that the concept, 'slave', was 'logically
related' to the concept, 'master' (which 'derivation' will be debunked
later on, anyway), or
when he endeavoured to do something similar with "Nothing" and "Being" (which
will also be taken apart in Essay Twelve Part Six).] So, Hegel at least tried
to inter-derive such concepts. But, except for the relationship between the
capitalist class and the proletariat, Dialectical Marxists rarely do the same
for the vast majority of 'contradictions' they see all over the place (in nature
and society), which they simply assert are 'contradictions' -- without
attempting to inter-derive the factors involved. That is why questions like
those in the previous paragraph have constantly been asked -- i.e., to underline
the fact that DM-theorists are quick to label, slow to prove, that a given
'contradiction' is indeed 'dialectical', just as they are slower still to prove
that they are even(ordinary or formal)contradictions to
begin with!
The rest of this Essay will examine a range of
alleged examples of 'dialectical contradictions' -- and Essay
Five, Essay Eight
Part Three, Essay Eleven
Part One and
Essay Twelve Parts Four, Five and Six, will examine several more -- by which
time the completely bogus nature of DM should be plain for all to see.
Some might be tempted to dismiss this section of the Essay
as just the latest unsympathetic and misleading interpretation of yet another
artificially constructed and then unsympathetically-modified DM-'proposition'.
Maybe so, but the reader will find that
Dialectical Marxists themselves consistently fail to examine or explain their own
theory in anything even remotely like the detail attempted at this site, despite the fact that DM is
supposed to represent the best, if not the very pinnacle, of
scientific and philosophical thinking. The present Essay, by way of stark contrast, has
endeavoured to set-out -- in more detail than has ever been attempted anywhere
else beforein the entire history of Marxism -- the implications of this aspect of DM. As such, it ventures into
entirely unexplored territory. Hence, it is impossible to say whether or not
it misrepresents DM. Indeed, DM-fans themselves would be hard-pressed to
decide among themselves whether or not that is the case. For
one thing,
they can't even decide what matter is! More-or-less the same can be said of
"dialectical contradiction"!
As Essay Thirteen
Part One
shows, their 'materialism' is rather like
Hamlet
without the Prince!
In
addition, it is worth pointing out (once more!) that F2 was itself motivated by the idea
that forces contradict impressed motion. As we have just seen,
because change in motion is the consequence of just one resultant force
(when analysed classically), the alleged 'contradiction' between two forces
simply disappears.
F2: A UO involves the opposition
('struggle') between
a force, P1,
and the impressed motion that another force, or set of forces, Q, has
produced (or would have produced) in a body, B, had P1
never existed. The resultant motion of B is the final outcome of this
interaction.
It would therefore take an especially alert, eagle-eyed Dialectical Marxist to be
able to spot 'contradictory'
forces in a system, or even a "Totality", where there is only one force responsible for the
said change in motion!
Worse still, F2 postulates a 'contradiction' between a force and the motion
that is (or might be) produced as the
counterfactual
result of the action of other forces -- in this case, Q. That is, F2
considers what would or could happen if the results of Q's 'normal'
activity hadn't themselves been interrupted by P1.
But since some, or all, of Q's
effects won't have been actualised (having been
prevented from doing so by P1),
the alleged 'contradiction' here contains only one real term.
Even
the most orthodox, committed and devoted of DM-fans might find it difficult to visualise (let alone explain) a
'contradiction' between something that is real and something that isn't (in
the sense that
the latter either never existed or was prevented from being actualised): i.e., the motion
that would have occurred if the impeding force, P1,
hadn't acted.
It could be
objected that these other forces
(those comprising Q) don't vanish; they are still there, as is the resultant. If they were to vanish,
so would the resultant. That (proffered) pro-DM reply will be examined later in the
Essay.
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
In which
case, it might be a good idea to reconsider an option that was left unexplored
earlier --, where it was argued that
forces are the only legitimate
candidate pairs to be placed in such oppositional couples, not the motion they change
or induce, or the bodies upon which they act. [That is, if we ignore what Engels
had to say when he tried to re-interpret forces as
relative forms of motion.] To that end
it might prove useful to focus on a modification of F2 aimed at
providing support for the theory that the forces involved contradict each other before
they combine to create the resultant, R.
Given this
revised view, only forces are capable of 'contradicting' other forces, not bodies
(as such), nor any motion
already in the system. The
following might, therefore, bring out more clearly the implications of this
revised alternative:
F3: Given a body, B, and a system of
forces, V, comprising n vectors, v1-vn,
operating on B, a resultant force vector, R, represents the outcome
of the struggle between these contradictory force vectors. In this scenario, R
needn't be fixed, but could itself be subject to countless changes as B
moves under the influence of V, which would also change accordingly.
One immediate problem with this is that the specification of the
forces belonging to V will depend on the choice of (a) co-ordinate system and
(b)inertial frame.30
Such considerations show that even if F3 were acceptable, the representation of 'opposing forces' as 'contradictions' is perhaps
more convention-sensitive than it is reality-driven -- which would mean, of
course, that 'dialectical contradictions' are no more 'objective' than, say,
latitude or longitude are.
However, even if this latest
'difficulty' is put to one side
(for whatever reason),
it is
still worth
asking whether any sense can be made of F3.
As pointed
out above, F3 seems to bring us back full circle to the idea that 'opposing
forces' -- not bodies, or the motion of bodies -- are mutually 'contradictory'.
And yet, as we have seen, it isn't possible to depict AA-, and RR-forces as 'contradictory', unless their effects
are involved in some way.
On
the other hand, as we have
also noted several times, if
the word "force" itself is just a
convenient shorthand for relative motion, it would mean that this
part of DM is more consistent with a CAR-like picture of reality. That is
because factors at work in the "Totality", if pictured this way, would now be externally-, not
internally-related
to each other.
To repeat: it isn't easy
to see how the motion of one body could be internally-related to that of
others without re-introducing the theory that a given body exercises some sort
of an effect any another, independently of how they are moving. While an episode of relative motion might subsequently affect the movement
of other bodies, that
still wouldn't
internally-link the bodies involved (in the 'dialectical' sense of that term
-- which means these factors would have to imply one another, not just be
fortuitously connected, like the proletariat is supposedly internally-connected
with the capitalist class, and vice versa) And yet, this is precisely the difficulty that
exercised Traditional Philosophers in relation to the classical, metaphysical problem
of the nature of force. DM has simply reproduced this 'conundrum' in an even more obscure form.
If relative motion were an 'internal'-, or 'logical'-link of the sort required by
DM, then the movement of one body in one direction would imply the
movement of another body in a different (or even the same) direction. The
existence of
one would imply the existence of the other; they would 'interpenetrate' one
another, such that neither could exist without the other -- just like the
capitalist class can't exist without the proletariat, and where those two classes imply
each other, for example --
although, once more, I have thrown that inference into considerable doubt,
here).
But, unless DM-theorists have kept the details to themselves for well over a century, that isn't the
case with relative motion (and for the above reasons). Until we see proof to
the contrary, relative motion remains an external, not an internal,
relation. So, given this interpretation, DM certainly seems to be morphing into a
CAR-type theory!
So, the relative motion of bodies can't be a
'dialectical' relation, whatever else it is. The same comment also applies
to forces. They don't imply one another, and can exist without each other.31
Ignoring these
fatal defects
for now, perhaps the above unhelpful degeneration into CAR could be
prevented by means of the following
re-wording of F3:
F4: Given a
system of forces, V,
comprising n vectors, v1-vn,
a resultant force vector, R, represents the outcome of the struggle between
these n force vectors.
F5: The above ensemble is only contradictory within a
Totality of inter-related processes that mutually condition one another.
F5 clearly
represents one strand of the DM-theory that
'the whole determines the
nature of the parts and the parts determine the nature of whole'. Hence, F4 and F5 appear to restore the dialectical unity
and mediated inter-connectivity
that earlier paragraphs seem to have abandoned or excised.
Unfortunately, this bring us back full circle to a consideration of the
relationship between the "Totality" and its parts. That is
because F5 introduces its own pernicious version of
HEX, because it seems
impossible to determine (given this interpretation) whether or not anything is
actually
'contradictory'
unless the nature of 'the whole' had already been ascertained. But, since the latter is
always changing, no element in this 'cosmic wild-goose chase' will ever be
hunted down and trapped, as it were. [We met different versions of this fatal defect in
DM-epistemology in other Essays at this site; see, for examplehere,
here and
here. Readers are
directed there for more details. Much of what follows takes those conclusions
for granted.]
The most
important aspect of this (latest) DM-'quandary' -- at least as far as the main issues
covered in this Essay are concerned -- centres on the
idea entertained by several
Dialectical
Marxists (follow that link for the supporting quotes), that the growth of
science means that 'contradictions' that currently
seem to be holding up, or preventing, the growth and refinement of knowledge will
(one day) somehow be (wholly or partially) 'resolved'. Presumably, this implies
that in the limit (i.e., in a future ideal 'state of knowledge', where humanity possesses (at least in
theory) the 'Absolute Truth about everything' -- this taking place in a fully
communist society and economy, one supposes), there will be, or there should be, no
contradictions at all in or between scientific theories, or in or between theory and
'reality'. The problem here is
that, according to DM-theorists, in order
for a
scientific theory to be true (or even 'relatively true') it must 'reflect' the
world to some extent (after having been tested in practice); the 'more true' it
is the more faithfully it will do this, which also seems to mean any such
theory will contain or imply
fewer contradictions. But
the state of knowledge in this hypothetical 'Ideal'/'Absolute Limit' -- when scientific
theory will be 'maximally true' --, also appears to mean it will contain no contradictions
at all. That in turnimplies that the
world itself can't contain any contradictions, otherwise any remaining
contradictions in reality would be reflected in or by this 'maximally true' theory. But that possibility has just been
ruled out -- i.e., a 'maximally true' theory must contain no contradictions --
as Engels himself conceded (see below). But, this also seems to imply that
even if humanity never actually reaches this blessed state (i.e., 'Absolute
Knowledge'), we can, in the here-and-now, draw the following conclusion: the Absolute Truth is that not only is the world not
contradictory, motion itself and the operation of forces aren't,
either.32
That also appears to be Engels's opinion, and not just the
'unwelcome' view of the present author:
"If one does not loiter here needlessly, but
presses on farther into the immense building, one finds innumerable treasures
which today still possess undiminished value. With all philosophers it is
precisely the 'system' which is perishable; and for the simple reason that
it springs from an imperishable desire of the human mind -- the desire to
overcome all contradictions. But if all contradictions are once and for all
disposed of, we shall have arrived at so-called absolute truth -- world history
will be at an end. And yet it has to continue, although there is nothing left
for it to do -- hence, a new, insoluble contradiction.
As soon as we have once realized -- and in the long run no one has helped us to
realize it more than Hegel himself -- that the task of philosophy thus stated
means nothing but the task that a single philosopher should accomplish that
which can only be accomplished by the entire human race in its progressive
development -- as soon as we realize that, there is an end to all philosophy in
the hitherto accepted sense of the word.
One leaves alone 'absolute truth', which is unattainable along this path or by
any single individual; instead, one pursues attainable relative truths along the
path of the positive sciences, and the summation of their results by means of
dialectical thinking.
At any rate, with Hegel philosophy comes to an end; on the one hand, because in
his system he summed up its whole development in the most splendid fashion; and
on the other hand, because, even though unconsciously, he showed us the way out
of the labyrinth of systems to real positive knowledge of the world." [Engels
(1888), p.590. Bold emphasis added. Spelling modified to agree with UK English;
quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions adopted at this site.
Minor typo corrected.]
So,
according to Engels (expressing himself in a published work, too, so
these are his considered thoughts), if and when humanity arrives at a 'state of absolute
truth', knowledge will contain no contradictions at all! In
fact, it must now be true that there are no 'extra-mental contradictions', for if it weren't
now
true --
that there are no, 'contradictions' in the 'Ultimate
Future State of
Knowledge' -- then either:
(a) The
theory concerning the above limit
-- where all contradictions have been resolved (or "disposed of") --
must itself be false; or,
(b) The belief that humanity
is converging on this limit must itself be mistaken -- since there is no such limit
to converge on!
As we have
seen (follow the links in Note 32 (link above)), these anti-DM
conclusions are implied by the DM-'theory of knowledge'
itself -- i.e., that 'reality' is acontradiction-free zone.33
(i) There is no limit toward which knowledge
is converging; or,
(ii) As
knowledge advances, 'external reality' alters accordingly;or even,
(iii) It is now true to say that, in the
limit, 'reality' contains no contradictions whatsoever.
Plainly,
unless we are Idealists of
some sort,
Option (ii) couldn't be true. We aren't to suppose (it is to be hoped!) that our
understanding of the world alters the 'objective contradictions' that allegedly
give life to, or which ultimately power, the whole of reality -- so that as knowledge increases 'objective contradictions' slowly,
even magically, disappear -- like the
Cheshire Cat's Smile:
Video Four: Cheshire Cat
Dialectics?
Of course, many 'social contradictions' might be resolved (i.e., eliminated) in a socialist society (so we are
told), but that can't apply to those that allegedly exist in the natural world. Does anyone who
genuinely believes that motion
is contradictory, for instance, think that anything humans can do, or will
ever come to understand, is able to alter that supposed fact -- which if that
were possible would mean motion isn't really contradictory? If what humans claim to
know can 'edit this supposed fact out of reality', how could it be, or have
been, 'objective'?
But,
if not, then as Option (iii) suggests, it must now be true that absolute knowledge
of the world (even if we never attain to it) implies that nature isn't
contradictory. In that case, a state of complete knowledge of 'reality' will have removed all
contradictions from our thought, and/or from our theories about the world.
Furthermore, if 'Absolute Knowledge' 'reflects reality' (which it must do or it
would not be knowledge, let alone be absolute), that must mean
'reality' can't
contain any contradictions.
[I hasten to
add, the above remarks do not represent my views; I am simply trying to
explore the (fatal) implications of this aspect of DM.]
It doesn't matter if we never reach this
blessed state, the very possibility of complete/'absolute knowledge' means that nature
itself must be a contradiction-free zone. [However, on that see
here.]
Of course, it might be false to conclude that every single Dialectical
Marxist believes that as
science advances all contradictions will be resolved -- they might even
castigate Engels for saying so! --, even though it isn't easy to see how they could
consistently deny
it. Faced with each new contradiction in or between theories -- and if they are committed to the view
that science can only advance if it overcomes/resolves such contradictions --
it seems DM-supporters must also concede that it is at least possible for them to be resolved, if we but knew more about
the world or practice and technology had progressed sufficiently. Otherwise, they will have to admit
that science can't advance beyond a certain point. But they deny that, too. In
which case, they must either believe that:
(iv) There is no
limit to scientific advance; or,
(v) There is a limit (because there are irresolvable contradictions
in nature and hence in our theories about it).
But, if they also believe that
scientific advance has no limit, then they must believe both of the
following, too:
(vi) There is no
limit to scientific advance; and,
(vii) There is a limit
to scientific advance.
[Option (vi) follows from the asymptote metaphor to
which Engels referred, and to which Lenin and subsequent DM-theorists have lent
their support. On that, see the quotations listed
below. Option (vii) is just
a re-write of Option (v), and is based on a rejection of the idea that
every single contradiction will be resolved, which clearly implies there must be a
limit to the advance of science. (On whether DM-theorists
believe that science can or will remove all or most contradictions as it
advances, see here.)]
But, the
combination of Option (vi) and Option (vii)is itself a contradiction, and it lies
right at the very heart of DM (if the above reasoning is sound).
Of course, this means
that DM itself can only advance if this contradiction (between those two
Options) is itself resolved!
But, since DM-theorists don't even recognise this blatant contradiction in their
own theory, that can only mean DM can't itself advance!
Hence, either:
(viii) DM can't advance; or,
(ix)
Dialectical Marxists
must believe that all
contradictions are in the end resolvable. [And that Option (vi) must
be accepted.]
But, and once more, if Option (ix) is the case, by the above
argument, we are now in a position to declare that there are no 'objective contradictions in reality'.
It is only our lack of knowledge (and/or consistency!) that fools us into thinking otherwise.
So,
in terms of DM's own theory, it would seem that nature can't be fundamentally contradictory!
Again,
the only apparent way of avoiding that fatal result is either to:
(a)
Deny science can only advance by resolving all contradictions; or,
(b)
Deny that Absolute Truth 'exists'.
However, the
rejection of Option (i) from earlier (i.e., "There is no limit toward which knowledge is converging") would mean that there is a
(non-Absolute) limit to knowledge, after all. In which case, plainly, the DM-thesis that human knowledge is unlimited would have to be
abandoned, and along with that would go the idea that knowledge is converging on
it. Inaddition, the
belief that there is an
'objective reality' (out there) for us to know (even if we never fully attain to
it) would have to be jettisoned,
too.
This would leave
Dialectical Marxists with no way of deciding which of the
allegedly irresolvable contradictions that their theory throws up is:
(c) An 'objective
feature of reality'; or is,
(d) A by-product of their own imperfect, or even
their own fundamentally defective, theory
-- which
would or could itself be resolved if only humanity had more knowledge.
These
observations, of course, assume that the universe might be both 'infinite' (a
view certainly held by many Dialectical Marxists) and constantly changing
(which not one single DM-fan denies!). But, neither
of the latter affects the conclusion that there must now be a set of truths(possibly
infinite) about 'reality' toward which human knowledge is asymptotically
converging (even if that set itself were to grow over time) -- that is, if
Engels and Lenin are correct when they said the following:
"'Fundamentally, we
can know only the infinite.' In fact all real exhaustive knowledge
consists solely in raising the individual thing in thought from individuality
into particularity and from this into universality, in seeking and establishing
the infinite in the finite, the eternal in the transitory…. All true knowledge
of nature is knowledge of the eternal, the infinite, and essentially absolute….
The cognition of the infinite…can only take place in an infinite asymptotic
progress." [Engels (1954), pp.234-35;
paragraphs merged.]
"The identity of
thinking and being, to use Hegelian language, everywhere coincides with your
example of the circle and the polygon. Or the two of them (sic), the concept of
a thing and its reality, run side by side like two asymptotes, always
approaching each other but never meeting. This difference between the two is the
very difference which prevents the concept from being directly and immediately
reality and reality from being immediately its own concept. Because a concept
has the essential nature of the concept (sic) and does not therefore prima
facie directly coincide with reality, from which it had to be abstracted in
the first place, it is nevertheless more than a fiction, unless you declare that
all the results of thought are fictions because reality corresponds to them only
very circuitously, and even then approaching it only asymptotically." [Engels to Schmidt (12/3/1895), in Marx and Engels (1975a), p.457.]
"Cognition is the eternal, endless approximation
of thought to the object." [Lenin (1961),
p.195.]
"Thought proceeding from the concrete to the
abstract -– provided it is correct (NB)… -- does not get away from
the truth but comes closer to it. The abstraction of matter, the law
of nature, the abstraction of value, etc., in short all
scientific (correct, serious, not absurd) abstractions reflect nature more
deeply, truly and completely." [Ibid.,
p.171. Emphases in the original.]
Of course, if there is no such set
of truths,
no such limit, then Engels's metaphor is
defective, and Lenin was mistaken --, since, once again, there would be no such
thing as 'objective truth' (if the latter is defined as the limit toward which
human knowledge is heading).
However, in this regard, W&G quote a revealing
passage from DN:
"The fact that our subjective thought and the
objective world are subject to the same laws, and that consequently too in the
final analysis they can't be in contradiction to one anotherin their results,
but must coincide, governs absolutely our whole theoretical thought. It is the
unconscious and unconditional premise for theoretical thought." [Woods and Grant
(1995/2007), p.349; quoting
this source. Bold added. The page number for this
passage is slightly different in the 2nd
edition.]
Admittedly, the above
remarks weren't included in the 'official'/final
version of AD, but,
along with the passage quoted
earlier, it
does tend to suggest that Engels believed either that:
(e) Despite
appearances to the contrary, the 'objective'
world is actually free from contradiction; or,
(f) In the
end there will be no contradiction between our thoughts about reality and
reality itself (the first of which alternatives, (e), it must be
admitted, is impossible to distinguish from the second, (f)); or even that,
(g) In the
limit there will be no contradictions at all in any of our theories.
So, to take
just one example (and assuming Engels is to be believed): if any
randomly-selected
Dialectical Marxist were to conclude that motion is 'contradictory',
then that subjective thought can't actually contradict 'objective' reality
-- or, can't contradict 'Absolute Knowledge' of 'objective reality' itself, one presumes
(even if that blessed end state is never
actually attained). So, if knowledge is to advance, even this 'contradiction' (i.e., the
subjective belief that motion is 'contradictory' and the supposed fact that it
objectively isn't) must itself be resolved, and
hence removed/"disposed of". This, too, is a 'contradiction' that should/will
be eliminated if and when humanity
learns more, or
when our species finally attains 'objective knowledge' of the world. If we can
say that now, then it must have always been true that motion isn't 'objectively'
contradictory; our actual knowledge has just got to catch up.
[But, of
course, as we saw in Essay Five,
motion isn't even contradictory, to begin with!]
Naturally, that doesn't
conclusively commit Engels to the view that reality is, in the limit, a contradiction-free
zone, but if science can only advance by resolving contradictions in our (subjective
-- or our 'less-than-completely-objective')
theories, so that they become progressively more 'objective', the conclusion
(given above) seems inescapable: In the limit, human knowledge of the world must
picture nature as progressively, if not totally, free from contradictions!
However, in the absence of any clear
indication from Engels that he genuinely believed what the above passage says, little more can be asserted here with
'absolute confidence'.
It is a
reasonably safe bet that because the DM-classics are silent on this topic,
contemporary
Dialectical Marxists won't even be able to decide
among themselves
about this -- that is, without first being
branded 'Revisionists', perhaps sparking yet another Dialectical Dog Fight,
followed by more debilitating expulsions and splits.
Rinse and repeat...
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
Again, if this is what
Dialectical Marxists mean
when they speak about 'contradictory
forces',34
then nothing may be so described until everything has been so described.
[Once more, I am taking for granted the conclusions
mentioned earlier. If readers
find this latest rather brash assertion hard to accept, they should consult the full argument
presented in the Essays referenced.] And yet, this
reverses the dialectical order of events, for, as we have seen,
there are several DM-theorists who appear to believe that things only look 'contradictory'
because we don'tyet possess the Big Picture -- i.e., an 'Absolute View of
Reality'
--, and that if humanity ever were to
ascend to such an 'all-encompassing vantage point', 'contradictions' would disappear (or largely disappear -- the
story gets a little vague at this point). In contrast, the idea seems to be that we may
only depict forces in nature as absolutely 'contradictory' after 'The
Epistemological Trumpet' has finally been blown on 'Dialectical Judgement Day' -- when humanity,
at last, hits the asymptotic buffers to
which Engels referred. The problem
is that this Blessed State may only be achieved when all (or most) 'contradictions' have been resolved!
Paradoxically, that in turn appears to mean 'objectively' these 'contradiction' both exist
and do not exist -- or maybe even, we do and we don't know whether they
do or they don't!
So, one horn of this
dilemma seems to suggest that 'dialectical contradictions' don't really
exist (because they are merely the artefacts of 'partial'/'relative'/'incomplete' knowledge), and,
therefore, if they don't really exist, they can hardly play a part in change and development. The other horn
of the dilemma appears to suggest that we are currently in no position to assert that
'dialectical contradictions'do
in fact exist (since we aren't in possession of
'Absolute Knowledge'). In which case,
because we aren't in possession of 'The Complete Picture', we
can't claim
to know
whether 'dialectical contradictions'
actually cause change!
Either way, yet another core DM-Thesis crashes and burns!35
[Readers
shouldn't conclude from the above that the present author either accepts or
rejects the theory that there is a 'Complete and Final Theory of Reality',
since, as Essay Twelve Part One
shows, any such theory would be Metaphysical, and, as a result, it would be both
incoherent and non-sensical. As before, I am merely trying to expose the
ridiculous consequences of this aspect of DM.]
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
At any rate,
and to return to the main theme, if AA-, and RR-forces are mutually oppositional, change would still be caused by
resultant forces. But, as we saw in
Essay Seven, it is far is easier,
and more natural, to interpret
that scenario as 'tautological', not 'contradictory' -- that is, if we
really must insist on viewing nature in such
anthropomorphic/animistic terms.
Of course, if we resist
any such capitulations to Mystical Primitivism, as
indeed we should, then both descriptors
(i.e., "contradictory" and "tautological") ought to be fed into the
'Obsolete-Concept-Shredder', and the sooner the better.
Perhaps, then, it would be wise to draw a veil over this
(self-imposed)
dialectical impasse, and turn to a much more likely source for these
DM-'contradictions'. To that end I will return to F4 and F5, but consider them
from a more promising angle -- as
AR-force couples.
F4: Given a
system of forces, V,
comprising n vectors, v1-vn,
a resultant force vector, R, represents the outcome of the struggle between
these n force vectors.
F5: The above ensemble is only contradictory within a
Totality of inter-related processes that mutually condition one another.
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context;
HM
= Historical Materialism/Materialist, also depending on the context.]
In the
previous few sub-sections, it became clear that little sense could
be made of the equation of 'dialectical contradictions' with AA-,
and/or
RR-forces -- but that turned out
to have nothing to do with the difficulty of seeing whether or not such force-couples
contained 'opposites', since they manifestly do not. An A-force isn't the
opposite of another A-force; the same is true with respect to two R-forces.
However, a primafacie case
might be made for
regarding AR-force couples as the polar
opposites to which DM-theorists refer (in their endeavour to link forces with 'contradictions'),
at least as they
supposedly operate in DM and/or
HM.
Unfortunately, as we are
about to discover, this
slender straw once clutched soon turns into a dead weight that will sink this
already doomed 'theory'. Quite apart from the
considerations outlined above, no clear sense can be made of the idea that
AR-forces may be recruited to the cause, in an endeavour to model 'dialectical contradictions',
anywhere, any way, any how.36
Figure Three: Comrades! Grab This!
It's A 'Dialectical'
Lifeline!
Honest!
An
initial 'problem' immediately confronts this particular option: AR-couples don't appear to operate in nature in quite the manner their handy
prefix seems to suggest: i.e., as AR-forces.
Consider a straightforward case: the accumulation of
matter to form stars, planets and moons (etc.) over billions of
years. There, R-forces
(operating at the nuclear level) apparently prevent (for a time) the
catastrophic collapse of these growing masses into 'singularities' by
balancing-out the A-forces that presumably set the whole thing in motion.
However, the
problem with these R-forces is that, while they look as though they
oppose any other A-forces in the system, they aren't their polar opposites
(in the way that, say, the North and South poles of a magnet are said to be) --
that is, they aren't opposite manifestations of the sametype of force.
So, the inter-atomic forces preventing the above collapse aren't the same type
of force as the gravitational forces that initiated the process.37
While a case might be made for depicting North and South poles of a magnet as
polar opposites, magnetic forces (but on that, see
below), gravitational and nuclear forces
aren't 'interpenetrated' opposites of the same type, and so can't, it seems,
'contradict' each other in the 'dialectical' sense required. For example,
neither of these forces turns into the other, contrary to what the
DM-classics tell us they should.
Maybe we
need to learn a little more about such mysterious, almost inscrutable, 'dialectical opposites'?
[UO = Unity of Opposites; DM = Dialectical
Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context;
HM
= Historical Materialism/Materialist, also depending on the context.]
[Much of
this material was written before I had read
McGill and Parry (1948).
[That link will automatically download a saveable PDF of the article.] I
will add several detailed comments about the latter to a future re-write of Essay Eight Part Three.]
So, even though,
for example, male and female, up and down, dead and
alive are said to be 'opposites', a male dog isn't the opposite of a female flower,
an upstroke isn't the opposite of a downdraft, and a dead cat isn't the opposite of a
live wire.
Such contrasts can only work as opposites if they apply to, or implicate, the same
substantival
(or, at least, if they involve a use of the same common noun). Hence,
given this modified view, a male dog will be the opposite of a female dog, a
dead cat the opposite of live cat, an up direction will be the opposite of a
down direction, and so on. Logical (or even grammatical) connections of this
sort are essential if objects and processes are to count (in DM) as
'interpenetrated opposites'. Hence, for Dialectical Marxists, the proletariat is
the 'dialectical opposite' of the bourgeoisie only in so far as they are both
social and economic
classes.
Or, so the story goes...
Naturally, this undermines much of what
Dialectical Marxists themselves
have to say about UOs; but since this ground was covered
extensively in Essay Seven
Parts One
and Three, no more will be said about it here.
Nevertheless, a hot
stove can certainly heat a cold can of beer even though neither is the
'dialectical opposite' of
the other. In which case, it is difficult to see how in DM-terms they can
possibly interact -- i.e., where the one heats
the other. But who doesn't know a hot oven can heat up all manner of things,
including cold cans of beer? Who
doesn't know that cold hands can be warmed by a hot fire, even if they, too, aren't
'dialectical opposites', and even if they don't imply one another or even turn
into each other (which
they would
have to do if they were 'dialectical opposites')? And yet, if we were to
accept what we read in
Hegel's work and the DM-classics
(follow the previous link) -- both of whom
tell us that only 'dialectical opposites' can motivate change or are
capable of interacting
with each other
--, it wouldn't be possible to warm a pair of cold hands on anything other than a pair of
warm hands! Nor would it be possible to cool a hot can of beer with anything other than a
cold
can of beer!
It could be
objected that the above is just another ridiculous caricature of DM, of the sort we have
witnessed countless times at this site. In which case, it might be pointed out
that the above interactions (for instance, between cans of beer) would be
explained in terms of the molecules involved and the laws of
thermodynamics, etc. No
DM-theorist of any intelligence would even attempt to explain such phenomena
without a reference to those laws and the molecules involved.
Or so it might be argued...
If we
confine ourselves to water molecules (at least in order to simplify the principles
involved), the above pro-DM response would have to regard an energetic molecule
of water -- label one such, "WMe"
-- as the 'dialectical opposite' of a less energetic water molecule -- label one
such, "WMle".
So, in terms of energetics, WMe
> WMle.
If we interpret the first as a hot water molecule and the second as a
cold water molecule -- labelling them, "HWM" and "CWM",
respectively -- we can now ask the following question: do these molecules imply
one another such that neither can exist without the other (like the proletariat
both implies, and can't exist without, the capitalist class (and vice versa),
so we are told)? Surely not. For example, CWMs exist in many places in
the Solar System with no HWMs anywhere in sight. [On that, see this
NASA article.] Nor do
these molecules struggle with each other and then turn into one another. [Which
they should do if the
DM-classics are to be believed.] What happens when they interact is that
HWMs lose kinetic energy to CWMs until they have (roughly) the same
energy. But the molecules themselves don't change into each other.
In that
case, whatever else they are, these aren't 'dialectical opposites', and
whatever else this is, it isn't a 'dialectical change/interaction'. Hence, the above anti-DM points remain valid.
[Readers are
invited to rehearse the above argument, but applied to more complex molecules
found in the average can of beer. The result will not be significantly
different! The
analysis developed here continues in Interlude Twelve.]
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
At this
point, readers are again reminded of something they were asked to keep in mind as this
Essay unfolds:
(2) Between the
forces operating in the system? Or is it,
(3) A 'dialectical
union' of both?
However, even if A-,
and R-forces were opposites of the same type, they
actually alter the motion of bodies. As such they don't directly
confront each other asopposing forces, and hence they don't 'struggle'
with one another. Admittedly, they can be
represented as 'oppositional' in a vector calculus, but we have
already seen that a formal translation
like this is of little use to Dialectical Marxists. That is partly because the relevant forces disappear, to be replaced by a single resultant force,
which is the actual cause of the subsequent action.
It could be
argued that these initial difficulties could be resolved if emphasis
were placed once more on the oppositional nature of AR-forces as a way of
explaining change and development.
Unfortunately, that alternative turns out to be no more successful here than it
was when it was considered earlier, in relation to
AA-, and RR-forces.More to the point, AR-forces
don't imply one another such that neither of them can exist without the other (once
again: unlike, say, the proletariat and the
bourgeoisie, which are supposed to imply one another). In that case, and
once more: whatever else they are, AR-forces can't be
'dialectical opposites'. They don't 'interpenetrate' each other.
Even if this
recurring 'problem' were shelved (for now), it would still
prove difficult to see how AR-forces could be interpreted literally or
figuratively as 'dialectical contradictions' (especially as they supposedly
operate in HM). That is because of the
way in which they can combine and augment one another.
For example, consider
two forces operating in diametrically opposite directions, tangentially placed
around a rotating body (hence, not acting in the same line -- even if they act
in the same plane). These two forces -- although 'opposites' at their point
of action -- exercise a combined, augmenting effect on the angular acceleration of that body, thus ceasing to be
oppositional in any plausible sense of that word.38
But, this is a familiar feature of force vectors. In some
instances
they do seem to 'oppose', in others they appear to 'augment', each other,
while in still others they look like they do both at once.39, 40
And the above is no flight-of-fancy on the part of
the present author. This principle was even recognised in the Ancient World and
prompted
Hero of Alexandria,
for example,
into inventing the very first stream engine:
Video Five: 'Opposing Forces'
That
Augment One Another
[AR = Attraction-Repulsion; UO = Unity of
Opposites; DN =
Dialectics Of Nature,
i.e., Engels (1954); DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, depending on the
context;
HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist, also depending on the context.]
Engels himself regarded the
two poles of a magnet as a clear example of the unity of AR-opposites in nature
(another idea he borrowed from Hegel and other German Idealists, and which has been parroted down the ages
by countless 'highly original' DM-echo-chambers!).
Here
is Hegel:
"Positive and negative are supposed to express an
absolute difference. The two however are at bottom the same: the name of either
might be transferred to the other. Thus, for example, debts and assets are not
two particular, self-subsisting species of property. What is negative to the
debtor is positive to the creditor. A way to the east is also a way to the west.
Positive and negative are therefore intrinsically conditioned by one another,
and are only in relation to each other. The north pole of the magnet cannot be
without the south pole, and vice versa. If we cut a magnet in two, we have not a
north pole in one piece, and a south pole in the other. Similar, in electricity,
the positive and the negative are not two diverse and independent fluids. In
opposition, the different is not confronted by an other, but by its other." [Hegel
(1975), §119, p.173.
Bold emphasis added. (There are
somewhat similar comments to these in
Hegel (2004), §312, p.165. This links to a Scribd page which
features a photographic reproduction of this book.) Clearly, Hegel borrowed
some of these ideas from Kant's theory of 'real negation'. On that, see Appendix A.]
And here is Engels,
in places almost copying Hegel, word-for word:
"Dialectics has proved from the results of our
experience of nature so far that all polar opposites in general are determined
by the mutual action of the two opposite poles on one another, that the
separation and opposition of these poles exists only within their unity and
inter-connection, and, conversely, that their inter-connection exists only in
their separation and their unity only in their opposition. This once
established, there can be no question of a final cancelling out of repulsion and
attraction, or of a final partition between the one form of motion in one half
of matter and the other form in the other half, consequently there can be no
question of mutual penetration or of absolute separation of the two poles. It
would be equivalent to demanding in the first case that the north and south
poles of a magnet should mutually cancel themselves out or, in the second case,
that dividing a magnet in the middle between the two poles should produce on one
side a north half without a south pole, and on the other side a south half
without a north pole. Although, however, the impermissibility of such
assumptions follows at once from the dialectical nature of polar opposites,
nevertheless, thanks to the prevailing metaphysical mode of thought of natural
scientists, the second assumption at least plays a certain part in physical
theory." [Engels
(1954), p.72.
Bold emphasis added.]
The alleged 'unity' in this case
clearly revolves around the presumed fact that the
North and South
poles of a magnet can't exist independently of each other -- or even without
one another. Their 'opposite'
nature is supposedly revealed by the affect they have on magnetically
susceptible bodies and upon the effect each pole has on its opposite pole.
[Of course, if the
legendary
Magnetic Monopole is ever discovered (as it seems it
might have been!),
this classic DM-example will go the way of other defunct ideas -- rather like the
Celestial Spheres of
Ancient and Medieval Astronomy, for instance.]
However, upon closer
examination, it is clear that the relationship between the poles of a
magnet
is actually an example of AA-, or RR-, but notAR-opposites. That is because,
in this case
non-opposites -- i.e., like poles --, repel each other (i.e., two Norths or two
Souths). On the other hand, opposites attract -- i.e., a North and a
South. Consequently, in the way that its poles inter-relate, magnets illustrate AA-,
and/or RR-type forces. A moment's thought will
also confirm
this: since when do magnets attract and repel each other at the same
time? In that case, how could they represent an AR-type force?
Hence,
it turns out that the magnet
isn't a clear-cut example of an AR-type force -- 'united in opposition' --,
that
Dialectical Folklore has been trying to sell its gullible audience for at least two centuries.
Mysteriously, DM-theorists,en masse,have failed to notice this obvious flaw in one of their most important and
most often cited examples!
So
much for the claim that DM has been
read from -- not
imposed on -- the facts.
The same
comments apply in equal measure to electrical, and hence to sub-atomic, phenomena in general.
There,we find the same situation: like
charges repel, unlike charges attract. This means that much of the
(sub-atomic) 'dialectical evidence' published in, for example, Woods and Grant (1995/2007), is
seriously flawed. How on earth do electrons and protons, for instance, manage to 'struggle'
among themselves (as a DM-UO) if they actually attract one another?
[There will be more on this in Essay Seven Part Two (when it is published).]
It could be objected
that while it might be true that two unlike poles are examples of AA-forces, their continued motion toward
each other will be prevented at some point
by structural forces within the magnets themselves, and it is these
couples that function as AR-forces. In that case, R-forces operating between
approaching atoms of the material from which the magnets are made will at some
point prevent two opposite poles closing in on one another, counteracting the A-forces that brought them together. This
confirms that the relationship between the poles of a magnet is in fact that of an
AR-couple.
Or, so an objector might
try to claim...
Unfortunately, this means that, as magnetic opposites,
the poles themselves still
fail to be AR-UOs. Certainly, other forces might come into play,
but that doesn't affect
that salient point. In which case, these new forces coupled with the
original magnetic forces aren't opposites of the same
Aristotelian/Hegelian type (as noted
above).
Furthermore, the above
pro-DM objection would reduce the oppositional relationship between forces originating in these magnets to
the effect that the poles have on motion (since, manifestly, these
opposite forces don't affect each other, just the relative motion induced by
either or both of them). Hence, once more, the two poles aren't inter-related
to each other directly as opposite AR-forces. All they do is oppose any motion
that either or both of them induce in the system. But, we have already had occasion to dismiss that
alternative, since it turned out to be
inimical to DM.
In which case, the
inter-atomic forces governing the operation of AA-, RR-, or even
AR-couples,
actually oppose, limit or augment whatever motion is already present in the system
-- or, they restrict the freedom of bodies to move, once set in motion.
But, they still don't seem to oppose -- i.e., 'contradict' -- each other
as force-on-force.
Again, this is probably one reason why
Engels toyed with a positivistic
re-interpretation of forces (in
DN, as pointed out in Note 4), since no physical
sense can be given to any such relation between forces (as was also
established
earlier) -- that is, over and above
seeing any such relation as an obscure/obsolete way of attempting to
paraphrase the relative motion between bodies.
Of course, it could be argued that the force field
induced by each pole
does affect a force field of other poles; hence, the above claims are incorrect. But,
these force fields are merely the expression of the motion of, or the motion induced
in, measuring instruments (or, indeed, patterns created by scattered iron
filings, for instance) placed near the said poles, so the above anti-DM
conclusions aren't false. Such forces are a shorthand for
relative motion-- as even Engels maintained. Leaf through any Physics textbook that deals with this,
and it will tell the reader that a field is just an array of numbers (scalars),
or vectors, etc.
[Fields in Physics are not to be confused with
Fields in Mathematics!
(This links to a PDF.)]
There thus appears to be no more substantiality to them than
this.
Figure Four: Force Fields And
Iron Filings
Here, for
example, is how The Encyclopedia Britannica defines a field:
"Field,
in physics,
a region in which each point has a physical quantity associated with it. The
quantity could be a number, as in the case of a scalar field such as the Higgs
field,
or it could be a vector,
as in the case of fields such as the gravitational field,
which are associated with a force.
Objects fall to the ground because they are affected by the force of Earth's
gravitational field (seegravitation).
A paper clip, placed in the magnetic
field surrounding
a magnet,
is pulled toward the magnet, and two like magnetic poles repel each other when
one is placed in the other's magnetic field. An electric
field surrounds
an electric
charge;
when another charged particle is placed in that region, it experiences an electric
force that
either attracts or repels it. The strength of
a field, or the forces in a particular region, can be represented by field
lines; the closer the lines, the stronger the forces in that part of the field."
[Quoted from here;
accessed 19/05/2026. Links in the original; bold emphasis added.]
This is how
one University Physics Department defined a field:
"A field is a representation of what is going on in a
region of space. It's defined as a function that takes a point in space and
returns either a scalar (a
number) or a vector (a
number and a direction). Fields that are functions that return scalars are
called scalar fields. You can see an example of a scalar field when you open a
weather app and look at a map showing the temperatures in different locations.
Fields that are functions that return vectors are
called vector fields. Gravitational, electric, and magnetic fields are all
examples of vector fields. We often call them just fields for short, as we care
about vector fields more often than scalar fields in introductory physics. These
fields can show us regions of space in which a mass or a charge within this
space experiences a non-contact force.
We can represent a field using vectors in a field diagram, and in the case of
gravitational, electric, and magnetic
fields, we can use fields to figure out forces
on objects." [Quoted from
here; accessed 16/06/2026. Links in the original; paragraphs merged. Bold
emphasis added.]
And this is
how one Philosopher of Science defines a field:
"A particular field
is represented by an assignment of number (or, if the relevant quantities have
direction, vectors) to each point of space at each moment of time." [Dainton
(2001), p.355.]
In that
case, a field is just a set of numbers or vectors. In other words, a field is
little more than how bodies (such as iron filings), instruments or other measuring devices behave in certain regions of space.
In that case, it might prove rather difficult to explain how one set of numbers
(or even one set of vectors) can affect another set of numbers (or vectors) in any
physically meaningful sense, and hence provide a materialist
depiction of
a 'dialectical contradiction' -- which, given this reading of DM, turns out to
rely on non-physical
foundations (such as numbers and/or directions recorded by a set of instruments)!
So, if by "force field" we mean the
mathematical
structures postulated by Contemporary Physicists, they can't affect one another, for they aren't
physical. They certainly affect the theorists in question, those who do the
calculations or draw the diagrams, but that is about the extent of their
physical contact with anything in this world.
[That topic was
covered in more detail in Interlude Two, and will be again, below.]
Anyway,
as we have seen, the
nature of the UO here clearly depends on what is meant by "opposite" and "unity". North and
South poles aren't united in the sense that they are
one (as DM-theorists would be among the first to acknowledge). They are connected in
the sense that they 'depend' on each other. But, this 'dependence' is causal,
not logical. Magnetism
is the result of the vector configuration of
the 'motion' and 'spin' of electrons. There is nothing in nature that
logically forces this physical interrelation on these poles (as, for
example, the capitalist class supposedly 'implies' the proletariat, and vice
versa). Indeed, the idea that such a configuration
represents a 'dialectical'-UO is misconceived, since the 'forces' involved are the consequence of a
vector field, which is no more 'contradictory' than your front and back
are. And, as we have already seen,
it isn't easy to see how vectors can be interpreted as 'contradictory', or,
indeed, seen as UOs.
Moreover, in
ferromagnetic substances, the magnetic field is built up by the cooperative
alignment of individual magnetic moments (perhaps illustrating the fundamentally
cooperative nature of reality, once again, created by all those helpful 'dialectical tautologies' we
met elsewhere in this Essay). [For the benefit of those who might draw the wrong
conclusion: I am being ironic here!]
Certainly, given Engels's use of the term "force" (whether forces
themselves are interpreted
realistically, or positivistically as a
"useful fiction"), this is a disappointingly poor example of a DM-UO.
It is follows from a particular sort of mathematical analysis (i.e., it
is
based on the alignment of electrons, which orients the vector field that
aligns the direction of the
magnetic field). Calling this a UO would be to substitute an obscure
metaphor for a clear mathematical description, but for no explanatory gain.
Of course,
there is no UO here
anyway,
since the field in question is the result of
one sort of
cause, the
electron,
which is a single, charged elementary particle (or wave?) that isn't itself a UO.
(That DM-busting fact has already been established
here
and here.)
In relation to this, it is worth asking: Do
the following arrows form a DM-UO? But that is how we picture vectors (especially those
associated with magnetic fields).
→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→
Figure Five: A 'Dialectical
Tautology'?
Figure Six:
Where's Waldo? Where
Exactly Is The DM-UO?
Naturally, deflationary conclusions like these will satisfy few DM-fans since
those conclusions depend on a non-standard view of the nature
of mathematical 'objects' (i.e., concerning vectors, matrices,
manifolds,
dimensions,
abstract spaces, etc.,
etc.).
Hence, in response it could be argued that
mathematics in fact reflects what is objectively out there in the world.
That is because it has been abstracted from nature by the human mind as a result of the
practical activity of our species and our social development -- or so the story
goes. This means that mathematics presents us with an
abstract representation of reality.
[Chapter
Sixteen of
Woods and Grant (1995/2007) contains
a classic (but nonetheless confused) version of that idea. Because of its
influence, I will be devoting a special Essay to that (execrable) book, which will be posted
at this site (as Essay Seven Part Two) at some point in the future.]
However, that interpretation of
mathematics is seriously mistaken. Mathematics can't be a description of the
world (nor an 'abstraction' from it) for reasons rehearsed in Essay Three Parts
One and
Two and Essay Thirteen
Part One (as well as
earlier). Mathematics is based on systems
of concepts that aren't causally inter-linked. The concepts that mathematicians
construct do not exercise any sort of causal influence on material bodies; nor do they
'correspond' to anything in reality that could conceivably so behave,
unlike material bodies and processes that both can and do. [On that, see
here and
here.]
Mathematical propositions and theorems yield neither an abstract nor a concrete
picture of reality. That is because they aren't pictures to begin with -- nor
could they be. They express rules for the manipulation of
certain symbols that licence inferences we make about objects and events in nature
and society (or, indeed, purely in a formal system).
At best, they set up complex analogies and models that assist in our understanding of
structures and processes in the material world.
The
development of
Field Theory since
Maxwell's
day doesn't alter that interpretation
in any way.
Vector and scalar fields are typically built into mathematical models that not only enable
scientists to study nature, they assist in the derivation and interpretation of
the empirical consequences of hypotheses and theories. To imagine otherwise (to suppose that
mathematics is an abstract description or picture of the world -- i.e.,
that it 'reflects' the world in an 'abstract' or 'formal' mode) would reduce its
structures to absurdity. For example, it would imply that, say, a vector field
--
in reality -- is actually composed of, or 'reflects', a set of infinitelythinand infinitely strong wire-like curves, or curve segments (of mysterious
composition and provenance) that aren't actually made of anything.
Or, that a scalar field really is, or 'reflects', an invisible array of real numbers
'floating' in (abstract?) space -- or, worse still, that it is an infinite
n-dimensional set of dimensionless connected,
dense
but
disjoint points (which can't themselves physically exist -- since they have no
shape (circular, spherical, or otherwise), or they wouldn't be points, or even
volume intervals) --, and so on.
Such
an approach might try to picture, for instance, a
mathematical point as an 'infinitely small dot'
-- or it somehow 'reflects' one such in 'reality' -- if
it helps mathematicians/scientists make appropriate inferences,
but, as already noted, a dot, no matter how small, has a shape (which is circular to normal vision, irregular under a microscope),
otherwise it would vanish or cease to exist. [An abstract 'dot' could reflect nothing
in 'reality' if that were the case.] But no mathematical point has a shape, circumference, radius,
diameter, or even a centre. What
then can a mathematical point possibly share with anything physical in the universe?
What can it possibly 'reflect'? More-or-less the same can be said about all other mathematical structures. In that
case, what can mathematical points, lines or surfaces possibly be
abstracted from, or be a generalisation of, if they share absolutely nothing
with the material points, lines, or surfaces they supposedly represent or
'reflect'?Of course, at this point (no pun intended), abstractionists go
suspiciously quiet. And that isn't just because they have nothing with which to work.
Here is a
comment I left on Quora a few years ago,
aimed at those who think mathematics is some sort of 'abstract picture of
reality' (slightly edited):
Clearly, a mathematical point has no shape, circumference, diameter or radius --
they aren't even circular or have a centre! Nor are they containers,
so no other point can 'occupy' them. Otherwise they'd be volume intervals, not
points.
We sometimes say lines are 'made of points', but that can't literally be so or they'd fall
apart rather quickly (and they would be rather bumpy, like a string of pearls)
--
since there is no 'mathematical' force to hold those points together. Lines are
also perfectly strong and rigid, they neither age nor begin to fray at the edges
-- and yet they can be easily cut or intersected by other lines and planes, as well
as bent into any shape we please by a suitable
homeomorphism. But even then the
original line is still there in 'mathematical space', 'unbent', so that someone
else can use it as many times as they like and for whatever mathematical purpose
they choose -- as can any number of other mathematicians, and they can all do
so
at the same time. They don't need to form a queue.
Lines are supposed to intersect other lines at a 'common point', but if neither
line is made of points, they can't have 'common points', can they? How then do
they intersect?
And if planes aren't made of points, either -- otherwise we could ask the same
questions about them as those above about lines --, how can a line intersect a plane at a
'common point'? Furthermore, planes can't be made of lines (or they'd be like an
array of really thin knitting needles with nothing to 'hold them together'); and
if that is so, planes can't intersect at a 'common line', either.
Furthermore, there are no 'perfect circles', since there are no mathematical
circles to begin with. If there were, we might well ask where they exist, and
what their size or thickness is -- or even what they are made of. Are they
solid, or do they have a big hole in the middle, like a rarefied polo mint, with
an extremely thin non-minty rim?
The same goes for rectangles, squares, cubes, cones, ellipses, spheres,
ellipsoids, paraboloids…
As [the original Quora] answerer rightly says, we mathematicians deal with
'objects’ that not only do not exist, they can't exist, and not just in
real life -- but, anywhere. They soon exhibit contradictory properties
when we think otherwise or we confuse them with physical objects. But are they
even 'non-physical' objects, or, indeed, 'objects' of any sort? If they were
'non-physical', how could they be perfectly rigid, for example? Is a line
comprised of 'non-physical' points? And how does that hold together? What
exactly are 'non-physical points', anyway? They, too, have no shape,
circumference, or centre. They, too, aren't containers, otherwise they'd be
'non-physical volume intervals'! If that is so, no other 'non-physical point'
can occupy them, either.
Much of traditional analytic and differential geometry, as well as topology,
will need to be re-written if we are to free them of such crude interpretations, and,
indeed, avoid such awkward questions. [That is if we regard mathematics as a
picture of 'reality', or we view 'reality' as fundamentally mathematical.]
The above approach to mathematical 'objects' and 'processes' confuses
mathematics with physical science -- and physicists return the compliment with
interest by treating the universe as a mathematical object in its own right.
Hence all those 'worm holes', 'parallel universes', 'branched' time zones,
'warped spacetime', 'branes' -- and, of course, the 'paradoxes' of 'time
travel'. No wonder physicists face insuperable problems explaining 'force',
'energy', 'space' and 'time' -- not to mention all those particles that seem to
be wave and particle, can be in two places at once and can 'pop
into existence' whenever they feel the urge.
And such problems don't stop there; the 'paradoxes' of number theory (and,
indeed, set theory) also arise from viewing even them as if they were
physical objects or collections of some sort.
Of course, this means that there are no viable versions of mathematical
Platonism, which theory positively invites such awkward questions.
And that also goes for 'bargain basement' Platonism — i.e., 'Mathematical
Realism'.
Added on edit: You can see this confusion spreading through many of the
comments in this thread as Quorans, for example, try to work out the 'pressure'
exerted by a mathematical sphere (!!) (as if such objects are subject to gravity, or
any other force!), or when they make comments about the size (!!) of a
mathematical point. If it had any size, it wouldn't be a mathematical
point, for goodness sake, whatever else it was. They are still conflating
mathematical objects with physical objects, hence their irresolvable puzzlement, the
'contradictions' this generates, and all those inexplicable 'infinities' that so
'effortlessly' emerge from nowhere.
[The above
does not deny that mathematical lines, for instance, are 'made of points', or that
planes are 'made of lines', etc., only that any attempt to picture them as
actual, or physical-like, objects, which supposedly 'reflect reality', or which have been
'abstracted from
reality', when they share nothing with anything in the material world, leads to
the sort of absurdities outlined above. Nor is it to suggest that sophisticated
mathematicians view the objects and structures they study in the above crude way
-- although a case could be made that Platonists and Mathematical Realists
rather too often
stray in that direction when they try to popularise their ideas (Max
Tegmark being an excellent example of this foible, but there are many others).]
Furthermore, if abstractionism were
true, no two mathematicians
would, or could, agree with each other. Indeed, if abstractionism were true,
mathematicians would be able to dispense with all
those useless definitions, theorems, lemmas and proofs, and just brain scan
each other.
[On Maxwell, cf., Buchwald (1985); on
mathematics, as it features in Physics, see Morrison (2000),
pp.62-108. In addition, the last chapter of Harré and Madden (1976) is also
relevant. Other literature
related to this
topic has been listed here.
More has been added to several later Essays concerning the nature of mathematics
and 'mathematical objects', for instance,
this. See also
here.]
But, even if DM-theorists
were correct about the nature of mathematics,
it would still fail to explain how, for example, the arrows from earlier could
possibly form part of a UO. Again: this is how mathematicians represent vectors on
the page, white board or screen (but, of course, not always arranged in a
single line!):
→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→→
Figure Seven: Is This Still A 'Dialectical
Tautology'?
So, even if
mathematical objects and structures were 'abstractions from reality', or they
'reflect' what exists in the physical world, DM-theorists would still owe
their readers an explanation of exactly how the above arrows constitute a UO.
Indeed, it would be as ridiculous to regard the above alignment as a UO as it
would be to regard a column of ants as a UO if they were all marching in the
same direction.
Figure Eight: Anti-Dialectics?
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
Examples like
those considered prior toInterlude Six
illustrate the fact that forces aren't rigidly fixed as permanent
opposites, nor are they always oppositional, even when they act as
opposites (or they are aligned along the same line-of-action, but at 180ş
to one another). Hence, it isn't easy to see how viewing forces only as polar oppositional pairs could accommodate
this widely instantiated property of natural forces.
In that case, this is unwelcome news, since little 'dialectical' sense can be given to the idea
that opposites can switch in this way.41
Of
course, that remark itself could very well
be regarded as a serious interpretive blunder given the fact that universal change is
a core DM-precept. But, the point being made above was specifically targeted at
the theory that all change is a consequence of an interplay between
polar opposites. Clearly, if polar opposites can combine in a way that results in their augmenting
one another, the term "opposite" can't fail to lose its 'dialectical bite'.
[An actual example of this was given
earlier.] If change
can occur as a result of 'opposites' that don't work as 'opposites'
(still less as "polar" opposites), in any ordinary sense of that term, then this
particular DM-'law' stands in real danger of violating the dialectical
equivalent of 'The Metaphysical
Trades Description Act'.
If the
picture is now widened to encompass HM, and if, for example, we consider the operation of
"opposing" forces in the class war, it isn't easy to see how,
say, one social force could switch around in the way that forces operating in nature
manifestly can and do.
Is it possible, therefore, for the capitalist class to swap sides (as a class force -- not as individual members of that class) to augment workers' battles in
the latter's interests and on their terms? Admittedly, the detailed
structure of, and the processes within, the class war are complex; elements from
each side may detach themselves (or be detached), and can work against their own
(misperceived) class interests on a temporary or even semi-permanent basis,
but that isn't
something upon which revolutionaries can or should rely -- still less ought they to trust in
the
outcome. If they were to do this, it would clearly encourage reformism and centrism, let
alone invite defeat, or something far worse. Even at the margin (where whole class forces aren't
involved), switches are sporadic. We only have to look at what happened in the
Chinese Revolution of
1926-27 to see what disasters result from trusting forces aligned with the
class enemy.
[I
don't expect Marxist-Leninists to accept the analysis of that revolution
developed in the article to which I have linked above, but to get the point they
only have to think about how they might explain what happened to Stalin's legacy
in the former Soviet Union and the rest of the Eastern Block after 1953, or what
has taken place in China since Mao passed away. Overt or covert opposing forces
cannot be relied on -- to state the 'bleeding obvious'!]
But, such things occur all the time in nature.
Hence, the crude analogy that attempts to relate 'opposite forces' to
'contradictions' at work in DM is, at best, useless when imported into, and then applied in, HM.
Again, it could be objected here
that the above is a gross distortion since the
sort of phenomena mentioned are consistent with DM. Dialectical Marxists themselves
reject the idea that there are fixed and unchanging forces in
nature. Hence, the recognition that forces can change and operate in 'opposite
directions' is one of DM's strengths not one of its weaknesses.
Or, so it
could be maintained...
However,
if it achieves nothing else, the above volunteered, pro-DM response
succeeds in at least one respect, it helps
focus on what has been a recurring problem throughout this
site: DM is so vague and equivocal that it is impossible to say with any
certainty, let alone with any clarity or finality, what
its implications are --, or even if it has any. Under close
examination, the theory that 'dialectical contradictions' in nature can be
viewed as 'opposing forces' has turned
out to mean that they might not actually oppose one anther --
indeed, according to
Engels, the
concept of a force could simply be a convenient shorthand for relative motion.
It now seems even that is incorrect, for
oppositional forces may actually augment one another, but only if they aren't viewed as shorthand for the relative motion of bodies!
And, as if to cap it all, we have just discoveredthey can't even be 'dialectical opposites'!
As a result,
it is impossible to decide which
of these DM-type forces are genuine opposites (or which are even polar
opposites -- that is, if any are), or distinguish
those that are opposites from those that aren't. But, if every force can work in
any manner
whatsoever, it becomes deeply problematic why only some are depicted as
opposites, others aren't.
What actual work does the word "opposite" do if it is so easily ignored, or its apparent
consequences are so often nullified? And, what has become of the AR-typology Engels regarded as fundamental?
Given such vague and ambiguous
language, little meaning can be attributed to a
single DM-concept (in this area); still less to the idea that
'dialectical forces' operate anywhere in nature.
Imagine a
Chemist, for instance, who identified an element as having just so many protons in its
nucleus, except it didn't really have that number of protons, and
those protons weren't really protons, and the element rarely if ever had a
nucleus, and anyway it wasn't an element to begin with! Suppose further
that this chemist claimed that she knew what she was talking about (even if no
one else did) because she was an expert player of the 'Nixon
Card' -- and, as such, was skilled in the art of "grasping contradictions"
as and when that was required --, but which
lack of 'flexibility', compounded by a slavish adherence to 'formal concepts', prevents her critics from seeing the
'truth' not only for what it is but exactly as she sees it.
Few, I think, would take her seriously.
I suggest the same judgement should also be reserved for Dialectical Marxists
whenever they try to tell the rest of us that 'dialectical contradictions' can
be interpreted as
'opposing forces'.
Unfortunately, such vague and confused
'contradictions' simply provide more
grist for the
DM-mill to work on, but this isn't something about which Dialectical Marxists should feel
a atom of pride.
If Capitalists (as a social force), for example, can indeed operate in such a contradictory
manner, who is to say whether a revolution is necessary to overthrow
them? Perhaps -- as result of yet another 'dialectical inversion' -- that class
enemy could become the strongest, most reliable ally of the working class? In such a topsy-turvy,
'dialectical universe'
anything might happen. Capitalism might be reformed away;
Imperialists could lead the fight against oppression; the Nazi's might one
day help bring about 'racial' harmony; the
Ku Klux Klan
might even lend their whole-hearted support to Black Lives Matter. Who
knows? The ruling-class might even overthrow itself42
If it is a central postulate of
a theory like DM that 'contradictions'
are 'oppositional forces', and that they themselves are capable of changing in
'contradictory' ways to become 'non-oppositional', then reformism, centrism,
class collaboration (and the prospect of having the Fascists (etc.) as our best allies)
can't be ruled out. On the other hand, if these 'possibilities' are to be
rejected -- as surely they must! -- then the importation of such 'contradictory'
DM-nostrums into HM must be resisted no less emphatically.
In fact, as we will see in Essay Nine
Part Two, class collaborationists have
indeed argued along the above lines. For example, as noted above, the supposedly 'contradictory'
nature of the Kuomintang
'allowed' the CCP 'justify' the formation of an alliance with them.
DM also supplied the -- shall we say -- flexible
theoretical atmosphere that 'allowed' the Stalinist regime to enter into a
pact
with the Nazis, which then helped
rationalise such treachery in the face of the communist movement world-wide. As we
will also see, this contradictory theory, DM, can be, and has been, used to defend
whatever is deemed expedient or opportune, and its opposite --
oftenby the very same Dialectical Marxist, in the very next breath,
sentence or paragraph!
Of course, it could be
argued that the type of forces that operate in history
are vastly more complex than those we find in nature, so the above analogy with
natural forces (and the KKK, etc., etc.) is completely misguided, especially
when applied in the crude manner we have just witnessed.
Or so it might be argued...
Unfortunately, if that
rebuttal were itself apposite, or even accurate, it would still be misleading to describe
'oppositional' natural-, and social-forces as
'contradictory', for if, according to the above pro-DM rebuttal, the analogy between
'opposing forces' and 'dialectical contradictions' is
inapt, it is inapt. End of story.
Clearly, any such admission would amount to the abandonment of this unhelpful
analogy in its entirety -- i.e., that 'dialectical contradictions' may be
interpreted as 'oppositional forces'
-- anywhere, in any shape whatesoever.43
Nevertheless, even if all of the above
criticisms turn out to be
completely misguided, there are other, far more fundamental,
reasons for ruling-out the identification of 'opposing forces' with 'dialectical contradictions'.
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context;
HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist, also depending on the context.]
The above
objections to classical versions of DM were largely aimed at demonstrating that the
analogy often drawn between 'opposing forces' and 'dialectical contradictions' seriously mis-fired. Despite
this, it could be countered that none of that material affects the fact that the
identification of 'opposing forces' with 'dialectical contradictions' is meant to be
taken literally, not
figuratively.
Or so it might be maintained...
In response, it is worth pointing out that despite the key role it plays in DM,
the precise details underlying a literal connection between
'opposing forces' and 'dialectical contradictions' have never actually been
worked-out or even specified by a single Dialectical Marxist! Those who have
made it this far, and have read the other Essays published at this site will no
doubt find that claim unsurprising. Indeed, that is why DM was labelled
Mickey Mouse
Science and Minnie Mouse
Philosophy in Essay Seven Part One.
[Anyone who
thinks differently, and can show where this aspect of DM -- the equation of
'opposing forces' and 'dialectical contradictions' -- has ever been set out in
detail (on a par with that found in this Essay), is invited to email
me with the information.]
One reason for this
gaping hole in their core theory might be that DM-theorists consider this identification to be so obvious,
so clear
and straight-forward, that the specifics either don't matter or they are
deemed so trivial that they warrant no further explanation. On the other hand, it might also
turn out to be the case that nothingcould have been saidin
this regard, which would more obviously explain the deafening silence
over the last century-and-a-half. Indeed, as will soon become apparent, that does
appear to be the
reason. As we are about to discover, this long-term silence/omission isn't the
least bit surprising: the connection between 'opposing forces' and 'dialectical contradictions'
turns out to be entirely illusory, howsoever it is configured,
re-packaged or spun.
In
order to substantiate those rather bold claims it might help if we back-track a little. Part of the argument in favour of the identification of
'opposing forces' with 'dialectical contradictions' at first seemed to depend on an analogy drawn
between literal contradictions and conflict, a view
that was a clear call-back to ancient, animistic theories concerning the origin of all forms
of conflict, as we will see in Essay Twelve (summary here). In the Ancient World, conflict was located in, or
it was attributed to, the activities and antics of the 'gods'
and/or other invisible, personified forces
at work 'behind the scenes' or 'beneath appearances'.
Unfortunately, for religious mystics, ordinary, everyday contradictions simply report or express what turn out to be boring, verbal wrangles, which can, in certain
circumstances, look oppositional.
When one person asserts "p", and another person denies it (or asserts "not
p",
where "p" stands for a spoken
tokenindicative sentence),
then, at least, at the level of discourse, some sort of opposition
sometimes seems to be implied
(but on that, see here).
So, analogously, it seemed to some that a 'contradiction' in nature signals, or
even reveals, the existence of
real
material opposition -- but, alas, this move only proved plausible to those who
were happy to
fetishise
and thereby alienate social relations (i.e., those expressed in and by
language) as if they represented real relations in nature, or even 'Reality
Itself'.
[In Essay
Twelve Part Four this ancient projection onto nature of human and linguistic
categories will be labelled "The RRT" -- "The Reverse Reflection Theory". Until that
Essay is published (sometime in 2027), the RRT has been very briefly
explained here.]
Nevertheless, DM-theorists view
real, 'material
contradictions' as their primary concern; verbal wrangles are only
of peripheral interest. Having said that, many Dialectical Marxists refer
their readers to the origin of
'the dialectic'
in the verbal wrangles recorded in Plato's dialogues. Here are just a few
examples:
"In his
Phänomenologie des Geistes [Hegel] compares human life with dialogue, in the
sense that under the pressure of experience our views gradually change, as
happens to the opinions of disputants participating in a discussion of a
profound intellectual nature. Comparing the course of development of
consciousness with the progress of such a discussion, Hegel designated it by the
word dialectics, or dialectical motion. This word had already been used
by Plato, but it was Hegel who gave it its especially profound and important
meaning." [Plekhanov (1917),
p.601. Bold emphases alone added.]
"Dialectics comes from the Greek dialego,
to discourse, to debate. In ancient times dialectics was the art of arriving at
the truth by disclosing the contradictions in the argument of an opponent and
overcoming these contradictions. There were philosophers in ancient times who
believed that the disclosure of contradictions in thought and the clash of
opposite opinions was the best method of arriving at the truth. This dialectical
method of thought, later extended to the phenomena of nature, developed into the
dialectical method of apprehending nature, which regards the phenomena of nature
as being in constant movement and undergoing constant change, and the
development of nature as the result of the development of the contradictions
in nature, as the result of the interaction of opposed forces in nature...."
[Stalin
(1976b), p.836. Bold emphasis added.]
"Let us inquire into the sources of dialectics in antiquity. Why was it that in
antiquity man had already come upon the foundations of the dialectical method of
thinking? 1. The old philosophers of nature, Heraclitus, Anaximander, etc.,
investigated the emergence and decline of the world. They thus had to arrive at
the concept of the universal change and the universal motion of all things. I
refer to Heraclitus especially. 2. Social relations, meditation on the form
of the State, on religion, etc., stimulated the consideration of all things as
changeful and self-contradictory. (This applies especially to Socrates, Plato,
etc.) The immediate stimulus was that in public life contradictory viewpoints
clashed one with another. Public life in Athens was a very lively affair. In the
market-place discussions were constantly taking place concerning what is good
and what is evil, how the State should be constituted, etc. One said A, another
Not-A. This was true of all things in public and private life. From this there
ultimately developed an art of conversation, and this art of conversation became
the source of the art of dialectics. Dialectics was originally called the art of
discourse because it grew out of discourse." [Thalheimer (1936),
pp.98-99. Bold emphasis added.]
"This consideration enables us to understand the original
meaning of the term 'dialectics.' The word is derived from the Greek
dialego, meaning to discuss or debate. It was considered that to discuss a
question from all sides, and from all angles, allowing different one-sided
points of view to oppose and contradict each other during the debate, was the
best method of arriving at the truth. Such was the dialectics employed, for
example, by Socrates. When anyone claimed to have a formula which answered
some questions once and for all, Socrates would enter into discussion with
him and, by forcing him to consider the question from different angles, would
compel him to contradict himself and so to admit that his formula was false.
By this method Socrates considered that it was possible to arrive at more
adequate ideas about things." [Cornforth (1976), pp.60-61. Bold emphases alone
added.]
"For the Greeks, the word dialectic meant an
exchange of ideas; in Plato, it was used to mean a dialogue in which opposing
positions interacted so that the truth emerged to the greatest possible degree.
Hegel, who was interested in the formulation of a philosophy of history, used
the dialectic to explain the historical process as the unfolding and coming to
self-consciousness of the Idea of Freedom." [Curtis (1997), p.175. Bold emphasis
alone added.]
"Elaborated first by the Greek philosophers (dialego – I debate), dialectics
remained something of an intellectual curiosity, a philosophical cul-de-sac,
particularly when religious beliefs dominated." [Quoted from
here.
Bold emphasis added.]
"Dialectics
is derived from the Greek word 'dialego' which means to discourse or debate.
Many of the old Greek philosophers were dialecticians like, Aristotle and Plato.
Heraclitus formulated masterpieces of dialectic. Plato used the 'dialectical
method' in his dialogues, whereas Aristotle, the most encyclopaedic intellect
among these philosophers, investigated the most essential forms of dialectical
thought." [Quoted from
here.
Quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions adopted at this site.
Minor typo corrected. Bold emphasis added.]
"Dialectics was initially a particular
kind of dialogue invented in Ancient Greece in which two or more people holding
different points of view about a subject seek to establish the truth of the
matter by dialogue with reasoned arguments.... Today dialectics denotes a
mode of cognition which recognizes the most general laws of motion,
contradiction and new development.
In ancient times dialectics was the art of arriving at the truth by exposing the
contradictions in arguments of opponents and overcoming these contradictions.
They thought that the clash of opinions was the best method of eventually
getting to the truth."
[Quoted from
here. Paragraphs merged. Bold emphasis added.]
"The word dialectics refers to a method of intellectual discussion by dialogue.
It is a term of logic. The meaning of dialectics is the conflict between two
mutually opposite forces or tendencies. According to the Greek philosopher
Aristotle (384-322 BC) it referred to the art of deputation by question and
answer." [Quoted from
here.
Bold emphasis added]
Even so, the
theory that there are 'contradictions', even 'dialectical contradictions', in
nature and society is still plainly analogical. The human race was certainly
aware that (everyday) contradictions often involved verbal wrangles well before
they were informed
(by Hegel)
that there were any such in nature. In that case, Hegel's argument must have
proceeded from the social to the natural world, which is indeed
what the history of the subject reveals: 'Hegelian dialectics' didn't exist
in pre-historic times (nor even before the 18th
century -- although there were earlier precursors of his ideas -- a few of
which have been itemised
here, several more
here
and
here), even though humans have been arguing and contradicting
one another for countless centuries.43a Hence, social interaction
of this sort clearly takes precedence. In Hegel's hands, this meant
'contradictions' had to be analogically projected onto nature and society,
not read from it. Dialectical
Marxists subsequently relied on his analogy -- i.e., the one
drawn between the way human beings often argue or verbally wrangle and the way conflict seems
to occur in the
natural and social world. Unfortunately, this makes the
interpretation of 'opposing forces' as 'dialectical contradictions' depend on analogical and figurative language,
leaving non-believers perplexed with absolutely no clue what literal meaning
--
if any -- could possibly be attributed to this way of re-configuring conflict. Even
to this day, we are still in the dark about thematerial groundingthat DM-theorists
assume underpins their idiosyncratic, analogical use of the word "contradiction".
Labelling them "dialectical" in no way helps resolve this difficulty, but in the
eyes of DM-fans that word clearly operates like "abracadabra" does in stage
magic shows. Wave that word around and the highly receptive, DM-faithful
nod their heads sage agreement, no further questions asked.
While
critics are still in the dark, so
are Dialectical Marxists, since they all struggle to explain themselves, as this Essay and
several
othershave shown.
[Of course,
it could be argued that conflict in nature existed long before human beings
invented language or formed social structures that enabled verbal wrangles (and
other forms of social conflict) to develop. I have tackled that proffered
pro-DM response here.]
We certainly have a
much clearer grasp of the role of
contradictions in language -- and arguably also in Logic --, but we have none at all
when it comes to those that allegedly occur in nature -- or, indeed,
those that supposedly litter
class-divided societies --, as we are about to discover.
Having said that, there is this minimal consideration in favour of the
application of DM to society: 'contradictions' in capitalism, for example, are
based on the presumed fact that certain concepts (or what they supposedly
'reflect') are 'dialectically inter-linked'. For instance, the capitalist class not only
implies the working class (the proletariat), and vice versa, neither
class can exist without the other, so we are told. [Although,
I have thrown that clichéd inference into considerable doubt
here.]
Hence, these two classes are said to be 'dialectically-united opposites', 'interpenetrating'
one another (or so the story goes, once again). But, as we have discovered, there is nothing
in the natural world that enjoys this sort of 'logical' inter-connection.
Indeed, as
we have seen,
not even the opposite poles of a magnet,
or positive and negative charges in atomic theory and electrodynamics can be
viewed this way -- even though both perhaps constitute the best (and only) two examples of this phenomenon
(allegedly) in the natural world, regularly hauled out of the DM-box-of-tricks by Dialectical Marxists. In that
case, the application of DM to the non-social world is, at best,
figurative and non-literal -- which interpretation, as we found out in the first half of
this Essay, won't wash either.
Nevertheless, the above
considerations would at least account for the figurative way
that 'dialectical contradictions' continually surface in DM (and
are seriously over-hyped in HM!)
-- and why
Dialectical Marxists regularly conflate these social and material
examples.44
Once
more, even if we were to ignore this latest problem, one thing is
clear: for DM-theorists verbal contradictions represent perhaps the
least significant, least interesting, least relevant form of opposition. Changes in nature and society are (for
them) the
result of much more fundamental 'contradictions' than those occasioned by the
mere gainsaying of another person's words. In some cases,
of course, discursive contradictions -- verbal wrangles -- might turn out be a 'reflection' of
deeper-seated
conflicts in society, but it still remains the case that the latter are of far
greater interest to
Dialectical Marxists.
However,
when this 'neat' DM-picture is examined a little more closely, it completely
disintegrates.
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; CAR =
Cartesian Reductionism; DL =
Dialectical Logic; FL = Formal Logic.]
As has already been
pointed out, DM-theorists have so far failed to
offer a clear account of the precise nature of the connection between
'dialectical contradictions' and 'opposing forces' that their theory both postulates and requires. In
which case, once again,
this will have to
be done for them!45
Presumably, when Dialectical Marxists claim that 'contradictions' are
represented in nature by 'opposing forces' they have something like the following
in mind (if they but knew it):45a
F6: Let force, P1,
oppose force, P2,
in configuration, C1,
in nature.
F7: Here, opposition amounts to the
following: the normal effects produced by P1
in C1 (had
P2 not been
present) are the opposite of the effects P2
would have produced in C1
(had P1similarly not been operative).
F8: Let P1's
normal effects in C1
be elements of an event set, E1,
and those of P2
be elements of an event set, E2.
For the purposes of simplicity let E1
and E2 be
disjoint.
F9: By F7, E1
and E2
contain only opposites, such that elements of E1
and E2,
taken pair-wise respectively from each set, form oppositional couples.46
[Here, the content of C1
could include any other local or remote forces and/or processes operating in the system.
Alternatively, the forces themselves may even be 'edited out' along the lines envisaged by
Engels (as a sort of
shorthand for relative motion, etc.). In addition, all the internal "mediations"
between these forces, events and processes in the "Totality" (T) may
also be incorporated at any point. Other 'dialectical' caveats and protocols could, of
course, be stirred into the pot if and when they are deemed necessary or appropriate.
("Disjoint" means that no element of one set belongs to the other set; they are
mutually exclusive sets. Why that is a necessary assumption will be explained
presently.)]
In ordinary
terms, F6-F9 are saying this: Consider two 'oppositional forces' operating in
nature: the first force produces certain effects that prove to be the
opposite of the effects the second force would have produced had the first
not been operating. It is worth re-emphasising this point: the second force's effects are
prevented from occurring by the operation of the first force, which (obviously)
means they either do not exist or fail to take place.
[Whether or
not this captures what DM-theorists think they mean by their equation of
'opposing forces'
with 'contradictions' will become the subject of much of the rest of this Essay,
where every conceivable alternative interpretation, combination and re-configuration will
be taken into account.]
It is also worth emphasising that P1
and P2 must
operate 'independently' in C1.47
This seems to be an essential assumption so that sets E1
and E2 may
be disjoint themselves -- and so that some sort of comprehensive,
non-trivial change actually results from this.
[If this
weren't the case, several elements of either set might prove to be changeless,
which seems to run contrary to the DM-theory that everything is constantly changing.
This is quite apart from the fact that the elements of each set can hardly be
the opposite of elements of the other set if those sets themselves aren't
disjoint. Anyway, later on, alternative possibilities will be considered, such
as: (a) The above sets aren't disjoint, and (b) There is a 'dialectical
interaction' between elements of one of the sets and the opposing force.]
Having said that, it looks like mutual exclusivity
was a condition Marx himself required, at least in connection with the following:
"The relative
form and the equivalent form are two intimately connected, mutually dependent
and inseparable elements of the expression of value; but, at the same time, are
mutually exclusive, antagonistic extremes -- i.e., poles of the same expression.
They are allotted respectively to the two different commodities brought into
relation by that expression. It is not possible to express the value of linen in
linen. 20 yards of linen = 20 yards of linen is no expression of value. On the
contrary, such an equation merely says that 20 yards of linen are nothing else
than 20 yards of linen, a definite quantity of the use value linen. The value of
the linen can therefore be expressed only relatively -- i.e., in some other
commodity. The relative form of the value of the linen presupposes, therefore,
the presence of some other commodity -- here the coat -- under the form of an
equivalent. On the other hand, the commodity that figures as the equivalent
cannot at the same time assume the relative form. That second commodity is not
the one whose value is expressed. Its function is merely to serve as the
material in which the value of the first commodity is expressed. No doubt, the expression 20 yards of linen = 1 coat, or 20 yards of linen are
worth 1 coat, implies the opposite relation. 1 coat = 20 yards of linen, or 1
coat is worth 20 yards of linen. But, in that case, I must reverse the equation,
in order to express the value of the coat relatively; and, so soon as I do that
the linen becomes the equivalent instead of the coat. A single commodity
cannot, therefore, simultaneously assume, in the same expression of value, both
forms. The very polarity of these forms makes them mutually exclusive."
[Marx and Engels
(1996), pp.58-59. Bold emphases added; paragraphs merged.]
"We saw in a former chapter that the exchange of
commodities implies contradictory and mutually exclusive conditions. The
differentiation of commodities into commodities and money does not sweep away
these inconsistencies, but develops a modus vivendi, a form in which they can
exist side by side. This is generally the way in which real contradictions are
reconciled. For instance, it is a contradiction to depict one body as constantly
falling towards another, and as, at the same time, constantly flying away from
it. The ellipse is a form of motion which, while allowing this contradiction to
go on, at the same time reconciles it." [Ibid., p.113.
Bold emphasis added.]
If factors like these mentioned by Marx are "mutually exclusive", it isn't easy to
see why that wouldn't also be the case with the elements of the above two
sets --
E1
and E2.
Admittedly,
this qualification
(i.e., that P1
or P2 must
operate 'independently' in C1) runs foul of the idea that everything in the
"Totality" (T) is inter-linked, but we can circumvent that untoward consequence by modifying the stated condition to
something like
"relative independence" -- a verbal sleight-of-hand often used
throughout the DM-literature, where the word "relative" seems to work like a
universal solvent when attached to other words like "truth", "knowledge", and
even "inter-connected" itself. Naturally, that would mean several other comments
in this part of the Essay (originally aimed at trying to make this
aspect of DM clear -- and for the very first time ever!) would become
rather too
vague by default. However, as will readily be appreciated, a 'theory' like this
-- beset as it is on all sides by internally-generated fog, further
aggravated by
its supporters continually lobbing metaphysical smoke bombs in its general
direction -- will always resist any attempt to dispel the
Stygian Gloom in which it is permanently engulfed.
Anyway, the
'independence' clause needn't suggest a
CAR-like scenario since it could form part of the 'dialectical development' of
new forces and processes as C1
and the rest of T 'develop'. Naturally, this simplifying assumption can
be modified at a later stage, if or when the need arises.
The first problem with
this attempt to explain what DM-theorists might mean by their equation of
'opposing forces' with 'dialectical contradictions' centres on the term
"opposites" in F9. Something a little more precise than merely
speaking about "opposites"
seems to be required in order for DL to surpass FL in its ability to
account for change and development, etc.48
F9: By F7, E1
and E2
contain only opposites, such that elements of E1
and E2,
taken pair-wise respectively from each set, form oppositional couples.
Unfortunately, the difficulty here lies in seeing whether even this
minimal condition is actually implied by F6-F9, and whether the rather weak
concept of an "opposite" is capable of bearing all the weight usually placed on it.
The factors mentioned in F6-F9 can't be 'dialectical opposites', anyway, since they don't imply
one another. As we have seen several times with respect to other presumed
'opposites', effects can (and, in this case, actually do) exist independently of
one another
-- unlike, say, the proletariat and the bourgeoisie, or so we have been told.
Hence, whatever else they are, the factors mentioned in F9 aren't 'interpenetrated
opposites', which means they can't be 'dialectical opposites', either.
[I have
resisted the temptation to represent E1
and E2propositionally since I want to concentrate on real material opposites
rather than their (supposed) linguistic correlates. Nevertheless, it is worth recalling, once again, that in
FL two contradictory
propositions can't both be true and can't both be false at once. They
(necessarily) have opposite truth-values. One
implication of this condition is that the claim that two allegedly contradictory states of
affairs could both exist at the same time (expressed by two
supposedly true 'contradictory' propositions) must rest either on a mis-description or
on an un-discharged ambiguity --,
or even, of course, on an anthropomorphic projection of logical
categories onto nature. Logical complexities like those will be analysed in more detail in a
later sub-section --
indeed, as they already have been in
Essay
Five from a more general direction. They will be further examined in the
following:
Interlude Eleven,
Essays Eight Part Three and
Eleven Part One.]
However,
independently of these (latest)
'difficulties',
far more problematic is the fact that given F6-F9, it would be impossible to
say what the 'contradictory' state-of-affairs here is meant to be, whether or
not it turns out to be 'dialectical'.
That is
because F6-F9 imply that E1
and E2 do
not in fact obtain together, for if just one of P1
or P2
operates normally (i.e., if one of these forces is prevented from 'doing its
thing' by
the other force), only one of E1
or E2 will
be instantiated.
Clearly, in such circumstances, there
could be no
'contradiction' -- even if we were charitable enough to accept the usual vague
and confused DM-'definition'
of a 'dialectical contradiction'. That is because at
least one 'half' of the alleged contradiction wouldn't actually
exist for it to contradict anything, having beenprevented
from acting/existingby the operation of one or other of P1
and P2!49
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; MECW = Marx and Engels Collected Works.]
Of course, the above conclusion (i.e., that at least one 'half' of the alleged
contradiction wouldn't actually
exist for it to contradict anything, having been prevented
from occurring by the operation of one or other of P1
and P2)
itself depends on the peculiar Hegelian doctrine that contradictions can somehow exist,extra-linguistically (as 'inter-connected objects and processes', etc.).
However, if
that thesis is abandoned, DM falls apart, anyway.
F6: Let force, P1,
oppose force, P2,
in configuration, C1,
in nature.
F7: Here, opposition amounts to the
following: the normal effects produced by P1
in C1 (had
P2 not been
present) are the opposite of the effects P2
would have produced in C1
(had P1similarly not been operative).
F8: Let P1's
normal effects in C1
be elements of an event set, E1,
and those of P2
be elements of an event set, E2.
For the purposes of simplicity let E1
and E2 be
disjoint.
F9: By F7, E1
and E2
contain only opposites, such that elements of E1
and E2,
taken pair-wise respectively from each set, form oppositional couples.
It could be objected that the disjunction of
the effects of P1 and P2 (as in "E1orE2",
defining these two sets as mutually exclusive)
completely distorts the picture. Indeed, it might be argued that what is missing here is an account of howP2interacts withE1,
which would itself be dialectical. [One variation on that (possible)
scenario will be considered
presently, others later on -- for example, in Interlude Nine.]
Admittedly, what hasn't been taken into consideration is
the counter-claim that
any change induced in E1
by its interaction with an 'opposing force'
clearly implies that the theory that development ismotivated by 'dialectical
contradictions' -- modelled by 'opposing forces' -- actually turns out to be true.
Hence, it could be argued that the contradiction between P1 and P2 alters E1 so that it becomes, say,
E1a. In that
case, and contrary to the above argument, we would have
here genuinely real (i.e., existent) terms for
a 'contradiction' to reflect, which
clearly means we do have a concrete example of change through 'internal
contradiction', vindicating Engels and other DM-theorists.
Or, so it
might be maintained...
But, plainly, that would only be so because a decision had already been taken to describe these forces as
"contradictory", when it hasn't yet been established whether that is an accurate, or even an
appropriate, way to depict the relationship between
them.
Nevertheless,
ignoring even that rejoinder for now -- and as has already been
emphasised -- what actually happens here is that
the resultant of the above two forces is what causes the said change. If so,
labelling this as 'change motivated by a dialectical tautology'
would be far more accurate. [That particular alternative, among
others, will be re-examined below.]
Moreover, even if the
pro-DM-objection
volunteered above were
valid -- whereby
the interaction between
P1 and P2
alters E1
so that it becomes
E1a -- it would
still be of little use to
Dialectical Marxists. That is because, in
this instanceE1 itself will have been altered externally,
and so change here wouldn't have been the result of E1's own
'internal contradictions'. That is because, as we have seen many times, the
factors involved in the above scenario don't imply each other (or, rather, we still wait
for the proof they
do!), so they can't be 'internally-connected' in the way that the
proletariat is supposedly 'internally related' to the capital class -- which
means that neither class can exist without the other, these two classes
supposedly implying one
another. Hence, and for the nth
time, whatever else this is, it can't be an example of 'dialectical change' through
'internal contradiction'.
Worse still, if
this is to be the model for all DM-change,
then no
change whatsoever would be 'internally-generated'. We saw that problem recur throughout
Part
One of this Essay, where no matter how we tried to re-package DM, the result
was always the same: if everything is "self-moving" (according to Lenin and
several other DM-theorists, quoted in Part One), the
universe must be populated by:
(i) Eternally changeless simples; or by,
(ii) Non-interacting systems.
On the other
hand, if systems of forces actually change the objects internal to the
system to which they belong, then, plainly, those objects can't be
"self-moving". The volunteered anti-DM objection outlined above
simply reproduced that fatal defect in a more
abstract form.
[The terms, "system" and "simples" were also defined in
Part One.]
Do forces
really change into their effects? If they do, DM-fans have kept that rather
important fact well
hidden for over hundred and fifty years.
Since this Essay was originally written, a superficial
attempt has in fact been published that at least tries to specify the
precise nature of the link between 'oppositional forces' (or, to be more honest,
oppositional "tendencies") and 'dialectical contradictions' -- i.e.,
Weston (2012).
Weston
focuses on a (throw-away!) passage that appears in Volume One of Das Kapital. Here are two
different translations (one offered by Weston himself, the other
quoted from the published version), along with what I have said about it in Essay
Nine Part One:
Tom
Weston refers his readers to this passage from Das Kapital (I have quoted
it as it appears in Weston's article first, and then as it has been rendered in
MECW):
"We saw that the process of exchange
of commodities includes relations that contradict and exclude one another. The
development of the commodity does not overcome [aufhebt] these
contradictions, but creates a form within which they can move themselves. This
is in general the method through which real [wirkliche] contradictions
solve [losen] themselves. It is a contradiction, for example, for one
body to continuously fall into another, and just as constantly fly away from it.
The ellipse is one of the forms of movement in which this contradiction is
actualised [verwirklicht] just as much as it is solved [lost]."
[Quoted in
Weston (2012), pp.5-6. This links to a PDF; italic emphases in the
original.]
"We saw in a former chapter that the
exchange of commodities implies contradictory and mutually exclusive conditions.
The differentiation of commodities into commodities and money does not sweep
away these inconsistencies, but develops a modus vivendi,
a form in which they can exist side by side. This is generally the way in which
real contradictions are reconciled. For instance, it is a contradiction to
depict one body as constantly falling towards another, and as, at the same time,
constantly flying away from it. The ellipse is a form of motion which, while
allowing this contradiction to go on, at the same time reconciles it." [Marx and Engels
(1996), p.113.
This links
to a PDF; italic emphases in the original.]
Weston takes exception to several of the translated phrases in the second of the
above two passages, such as "it
is a contradiction to depict one body as constantly falling towards another",
on the grounds that:
"[T]he phrase 'it is a
contradiction to depict' conveys an idea directly opposite to the assertions of
the German text. The contradiction is not only in the depiction of elliptical
motion; it is in the motion itself. This is the clear sense of the German text's
assertions that the contradictions are 'real [wirklich]', are 'actualised
[verwirklicht]', and that the sides of the contradiction are the two
tendencies of motion that are mentioned, not their depictions." [Weston
(2012), p.28. Italic emphases in the original.]
Be
that as it may, for this and other reasons, Weston clearly prefers the first
translation to the second.
The
following is
also a passage from Weston's article we have already had occasion to quote in part, concerning the
above
obscure, off-the-cuff
comment taken from Das Kapital, about the elliptical motion of planets around the Sun:
"As we saw above, an opposition is a contradiction if negativity is present,
that is, if the two sides interfere with each other.... Although tendencies can
interfere with each other in numerous ways, I suggest the following criterion is
a sufficient condition for negativity of, or interference between,
opposing tendencies A and B:
Tendency A, if strong enough, with cause the opposite
tendency B to be less fully realised than if tendency A were absent, and
conversely.
"This criterion is satisfied by both tendencies that Marx
finds in the ellipse case. The tendency of a planet to fly away from the Sun
will only result in its actually flying away (a parabolic or a hyperbolic orbit
[in that case, the last of these wouldn't be an orbit, just a trajectory, unless
we count it as an orbit around a common centre of the galaxy -- RL]) if the
tangential velocity is large enough to overcome the counter-tendency produced by
gravity. On the other side, the tendency of the planet to fall into the Sun will
only result in the planet actually hitting the Sun if the tangential tendency is
small compared with the gravitational tendency. Thus unless one of the
tendencies is too weak to constrain the other, each tendency prevents the
realisation of the other. At least one will not be fully realised, although both
may be partially realised." [Weston
(2012), pp.17-18. Italic emphasis in the
original.]
I will
return to this passage
later in this Essay, in a
section where I plan to discuss these and other possibilities in much greater
detail. For present purposes it is sufficient to point out that:
(1) Just like other
DM-theorists, Weston simply helps himself to the word "contradiction" with no attempt to
justify its use in such circumstances, that is, over and above merely stipulating that these
phenomena are to be so described. Plainly, this is a rather blatant attempt to
foist this
concept
on nature (in defiance of what DM-fans
constantly
assure us they never do);
(2)
We have already seen that "tendencies"
aren't in any way causal, and can only be called forces by those with an
agenda (which is, in this case, to foist this Hegelian mess on Marx!);
(3) Weston
had to appeal to "tendencies" as an
artificial way
of trying to link these phenomena since "force" won't work here, nor
will "inertia" (his other favoured word);
(4) Even if
the DM-use of "contradiction" were justifiable, and had ever been justified(!), how can "less fully realised" be viewed as
the equivalent of
"dialectical contradiction"? Weston pointedly failed to say;
(5) Do these
"tendencies" turn into each other? And how exactly do they "struggle" with one
another? But they should do both if the
DM-classics are to be believed; and finally,
(6) As we
saw in Essay Nine
Part One, Marx told us he was merely "coquetting" with Hegelianisms like
this in Das Kapital. Hence, in conjunction with the points made
above (and again below), no
weight can be placed on a literal interpretation of Marx's use of Hegelian
jargon in this
passage.
So, and once
again: whatever
else it is,
this relation can't be
'dialectical', either.
But what
else could anyone expect of a throw-away line like this, with which Marx
told us he was merely 'coquetting'?
It is also worth pointing out that
Newton's First Law (which appears to be integral to Weston's attempt to defend
the 'neo-Hegelian world-view' he hopes to foist on Marx) says nothing about "tendencies":
Moreover, the
Classical Law of Gravity
[this links to a PDF] also fails to mention "tendencies":
"Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation states that any two
objects exert a gravitational force of attraction on each other. The direction
of the force is along the line joining the objects.... The magnitude of the
force is proportional to the product of the gravitational masses of the objects,
and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them." [Quoted
from
here. Accessed 04/07/2016.]
"Newton's Law
of gravitation: every particle attracts any other particle with a gravitational
force whose magnitude is given by
F = G m1m2
r2
"Here m1
and m2 are the masses of the particles, r is
the distance between them, and G is the
gravitational constant." [Halliday, et al (1993), p.412. Link added.]
Which means that Weston's theory
clearly depends on a series of
Persuasive Definitions -- or even
Persuasive Re-descriptions. That is the only way he can even attempt to sell
these regressive ideas to his readers.
Later on, I will examine the question whether E1
and E2
(from earlier), even though 'opposites', can
legitimately be described as 'contradictory'. In what follows, I will simply
assume they are.50
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context.]
Despite this, it could be
argued that the following propositions
are all that DM-theorists really need (which, if some of the language is
modified appropriately, appears to be analogous to
Weston's attempt to make
this doctrine a little less opaque):
F10: P1
prevents E2,
and P2
prevents E1.
F11: Anything that prevents something else
from happening contradicts it.50a
F12: Therefore, P1
and P2
contradict each other's effects.
[The above
schematic letters were explained earlier --
P1
and P2
are opposing forces; E1
and E2
are sets of events that either of those two force prevents or could prevent.]
If so, plainly P1
and P2
fail to contradictone another, just each other's effects. In
that case, it is far from clear whether or not DM-theorists (i.e., those intent
on promoting the
'orthodox view' that 'opposing forces' 'contradict each other') will want to
embrace F10-F12 too enthusiastically. It is also worth recalling an earlier fatal objection to
this attempt to do
CPR on this rapidly dying theory: we saw that, for example, when P1
prevents E2
it can't be contradicting it in a 'dialectical' sense of that word. That is because they don't imply one another and both can exist without the other (unlike
the bourgeoisie and proletariat, which do imply one another, so we are told).
Hence, whatever
else this is, it, too, can't be a 'dialectical contradiction'.
That
anti-dialectical point remains (and will continue to remain)
a fatal
objection to this entire way of viewing 'dialectical contradictions' and
'opposing forces' -- an insurmountable obstacle we have
met several times already in this Essay (and which we will meet several more
times before this aspect of DM is finally 'sent
to join the choir invisible' -- a saying popularised, but not invented, by
the comedy sketch feature in Video Six).
Nevertheless, I will once again ignore
this lethal defect so that other flaws in this
theory may be highlighted. I will, however, introduce it again from
time-to-to-time to remind the reader that DM is rather like the Monty PythonParrot:it is an ex-theory thathas gone to meet
its maker, killed by its own poisonous implications.
F11: Anything that prevents something else
from happening contradicts it.
Once more, this
appears to be
the line promoted in
Weston (2012):
"Hegel
distinguished contradiction from opposition by the category of negativity,
which means, roughly,
conflict of the opposite
sides: 'Opposites...contain contradiction in so far as they relate to each other
negatively in the same respect or are both mutually canceling...and
indifferent to each other.' It is the negativity
of a contradiction that is responsible for its key role in dialectical theory,
that contradiction causes motion: 'The sides of a manifold only become active
and lively against each other when they are driven to the peak of contradiction,
and contradiction contains the negativity, which is the indwelling pulse of
self-movement and liveliness.'... (p.12) [Weston is here quoting
Hegel (1999), p.441,
§960,
but the published version posted on-line at the MIA renders this sentence
slightly differently: '
Opposites,
therefore, contain contradiction in so far as they are, in the same respect,
negatively related to one another or sublate
each other and
are indifferent to
one another.' (Italic
emphases in the original. In what follows I have used Weston's version (for
reasons that will soon become apparent) - RL.]
"For Marx
as for Hegel, the main difference between opposition and contradiction is
negativity, the internal activity of a contradiction.... (p.13)
["
Negativity
is an abstraction of conflict,
notof the absence of something....
(Footnote p.13)]
"As we saw above, an opposition is a
contradiction if negativity is present, that is, if the two sides interfere with
each other. From Marx's brief comments, he appears to have thought that it is
obvious that falling into a body and flying away from it are contradictory
tendencies, but we can reinforce his conclusion. Although tendencies can
interfere with each other in numerous ways, I suggest that the following
criterion is a sufficient
condition for negativity of, or interference between, opposing tendencies
A and B:
Tendency A, if
strong enough, will cause the opposite tendency B to be less fully
realised than if tendency A were absent, and conversely.
(α)
"This criterion is satisfied by both tendencies that Marx finds in the ellipse
case. The tendency of a planet to fly away from the Sun will only result in its
actually flying away (a parabolic or hyperbolic orbit) if the tangential
velocity is large enough to overcome the counter-tendency produced by gravity.
On the other side, the tendency of the planet to fall into the Sun will only
result in the planet actually hitting the Sun if the tangential tendency is
small compared with the gravitational tendency. Thus unless one of the
tendencies is too weak to constrain the other, each tendency prevents the
realisation of the other. At least one will not be fully realised, although both
may be partially realised.... (pp.17-18)
"A reasonable interpretation of
increased intensity or sharpness of a contradiction is an increase in the mutual
interference of the two sides. As the contradiction undergoes the fullest
possible development and nears resolution, this interference is increased to
such an extent that the two sides cannot coexist any longer, and one must defeat
the other, either by destroying it or by weakening it so completely that it can
no longer interfere with the victorious side.... (p.24)
(β)
"In that case, the inertial tendency will prevent the full realisation of the
gravitational tendency -- falling into the central body -- and the gravitational
tendency will prevent the full realisation of the inertial tendency, the
tendency to fly off to infinity. Thus the two tendencies interfere with each
other, and represent a contradiction." (p.34) [Weston
(2012), pp.12-34.
Italic emphases in the original; the Greek lettering has been added in
order to make reference easier.]
Weston here
appeals to a handful of rather obscure ideas connected with "negativity"
(which appears to be a reference to Hegel's adoption and use of a highly
questionable concept, "real negation", examined in detail in
Appendix A), the latter of which we are told is "an abstraction of conflict"
and "interference" (whatever
that means!). This implies Weston's analysis
doesn't rely on 'one side' of a contradiction preventing the 'other' from
operating, but merely "interfering" with it. Nevertheless, it is
clear from this that, for Weston, the two sides of
a 'contradiction' must co-exist (in such circumstances), or no
'interfering' could take place.
If so, it should
be possible to adapt what was said earlier
(except, of course, it was pointed out that Weston has dropped the use of
"force" and replaced it with "tendency") in order to summarise Weston's
argument, as follows:
W1: Let force/"tendency", P1,
oppose/"interfere" with force/"tendency", P2,
in configuration, C1,
in nature.
W2: Here, opposition amounts to the
following: the normal effects produced by P1
in C1 (had
P2 not been
present) are the opposite of the effects P2
would have produced in C1
(had P1similarly not been operative).
W3: Let P1's
normal effects in C1
be elements of an event set, E1
(comprised of sub-events, E1a-
E1n),
and those of P2
be elements of an event set, E2 (comprised
of sub-events, E2a-
E2n).
For the purposes of simplicity let E1
and E2 be
disjoint.
W4: By W2, E1
and E2
contain only opposites, such that elements of E1
and E2,
taken pair-wise respectively from each set, form oppositional couples.
From what Weston says in paragraphs (α)
and (β) above the word "opposite" can
-- perhaps even should -- be given a
Weston-style make-over so that it means something like "the opposite result of...", or
maybe even, "prevent
the full realisation of...", one or more events. This means
that one or more of E1a-
E1n
and E2a-
E2n
will be prevented from occurring in this manner. That seems to be the only
plausible way of
interpreting the following sentence:
"[T]he inertial
tendency will prevent the full realisation of the gravitational tendency --
falling into the central body -- and the gravitational tendency will prevent the
full realisation of the inertial tendency, the tendency to fly off to infinity."
[Ibid.]
So,
P1
might prevent, for instance, event, E2i,
while P2
will prevent, for example, event, E1j.
In which case:
W5: P1
and P2
contradict one or more of each other's effects.
But, if
these effects don't happen, or don't take place (even Weston's concedes this), they
can't exist to be contradicted by anything, let alone by a force/"tendency".
More to the point, these two forces/"tendencies" don't actually 'contradict' one
another, just each others effects. As noted
earlier (edited):
In that case, it is far from clear whether or not
DM-theorists (i.e., those intent on promoting the 'orthodox view' that 'opposing
forces' 'contradict each other') will want to embrace W1-W4 too
enthusiastically.
No surprise then: we hit the same
non-dialectical brick wall!
[I will
return this side-argument again later, after a few
peripheral 'difficulties' have been ironed out.]
It could be
objected that Weston doesn't mean events are totally prevented from
happening, he means that some of them are prevented from being "fully realised".
But, it is far from clear what that itself means. Of course, this depends on
how we identify and count events. However, since
Weston doesn't enter into that knotty problem, no more will be said about it
here. [Anyone who wants to sink into that quagmire might like to begin
with Simons (2005) and
Casati and Varzi (2025). See also Davidson (1963,
1967a,
1967b,
1969,
1970a,
1970b,
1971) {these link to
PDFs}, and the following responses to Davidson: Hacker (2007), pp.57-89, Glock
(2003), pp.233-67, and Schroeder (2001b).]
Independently of that, "not fully realised" seems to
be a million miles removed from what we read in the
DM-classics (and scores of other DM-theorists) -- i.e., that objects and
processes 'struggle' with their 'dialectical opposites' and then change into
them. There is nothing there -- nor is anything even implied -- about effects not being
"fully realised". Quite the reverse: objects and processes involved in
'dialectical change'
develop into their 'opposites'. It is hard to see how "not fully realised" can, under
any circumstances, be interpreted as an 'opposite'. If event, E, is
expected and not-E emerges as a result, it isn't the case that E
hasn't been "fully realised", it has vanished!
But even if Weston is taken at his word (and we
ignore the DM-classics, which Weston appears to have done!), "not fully
realised" seems to mean that the following remarks might still be valid:
From what Weston says in paragraphs (α)
and (β) above the word "opposite" can
-- perhaps even should -- be given a
Weston-style make-over so that it means something like "the opposite result of...", or
maybe even, "prevent
the full realisation of...", one or more events. This means
that one or more of E1a-
E1n
and E2a-
E2n
will be prevented from occurring in this manner. That seems to be the only
plausible way of
interpreting the following sentence:
"[T]he inertial
tendency will prevent the full realisation of the gravitational tendency --
falling into the central body -- and the gravitational tendency will prevent the
full realisation of the inertial tendency, the tendency to fly off to infinity."
[Ibid.]
So,
P1
might prevent, for instance, event, E2i,
while
P2
will prevent, for example, event, E1j.
In which case:
W5: P1
and P2
contradict one or more of each other's effects.
But, if
these effects don't happen, or don't take place (even Weston's concedes this), they
can't exist to be contradicted by anything, let alone by a force/"tendency".
More to the point, these two forces/"tendencies" don't actually 'contradict' one
another, just each others effects.
Independent
of that, too: Weston's earlier words -- here repeated -- seem to imply that the
aforementioned planet
will orbit the Sun when the "tendencies" involved have balanced
each other out:
"Hegel
distinguished contradiction from opposition by the category of negativity,
which means, roughly,
conflict of the opposite
sides: 'Opposites...contain contradiction in so far as they relate to each other
negatively in the same respect or are both mutually canceling...and
indifferent to each other.' It is the negativity
of a contradiction that is responsible for its key role in dialectical theory,
that contradiction causes motion: 'The sides of a manifold only become active
and lively against each other when they are driven to the peak of contradiction,
and contradiction contains the negativity, which is the indwelling pulse of
self-movement and liveliness.'... (p.12)
"For Marx
as for Hegel, the main difference between opposition and contradiction is
negativity, the internal activity of a contradiction.... (p.13)
["
Negativity
is an abstraction of conflict,
notof the absence of something....
(Footnote p.13)]
"As we saw above,
an opposition is a contradiction if negativity is present, that is, if the two
sides interfere with each other. From Marx's brief comments, he appears to have
thought that it is obvious that falling into a body and flying away from it are
contradictory tendencies, but we can reinforce his conclusion. Although
tendencies can interfere with each other in numerous ways, I suggest that the
following criterion is a sufficient condition for negativity of, or
interference between, opposing tendencies A and B:
Tendency A, if strong enough, will
cause the opposite tendency B to be less fully realised than if tendency A were
absent, and conversely.
"This criterion is
satisfied by both tendencies that Marx finds in the ellipse case. The tendency
of a planet to fly away from the Sun will only result in its actually flying
away (a parabolic or hyperbolic orbit) if the tangential velocity is large
enough to overcome the counter-tendency produced by gravity. On the other side,
the tendency of the planet to fall into the Sun will only result in the planet
actually hitting the Sun if the tangential tendency is small compared with the
gravitational tendency. Thus unless one of the tendencies is too weak to
constrain the other, each tendency prevents the realisation of the other. At
least one will not be fully realised, although both may be partially
realised.... (pp.17-18)
"In that case, the
inertial tendency will prevent the full realisation of the gravitational
tendency -- falling into the central body -- and the gravitational tendency will
prevent the full realisation of the inertial tendency, the tendency to fly off
to infinity. Thus the two tendencies interfere with each other, and represent a
contradiction." (p.34) [Ibid., bold emphases added.]
So,
according to Weston, it looks like the "tendency" to fly off at a tangent is
balanced by the "tendency" to fall into the Sun, and when that
happens the planet enters into
an orbital pattern.
I take up
this notion (i.e., "balancing"), alongside several other related issues below (here,
here, and
here), but in more detail
in Interlude Nine, where I consider
one or two additional variations on Weston's theory. [See also
here.]
Independently of that, too, as pointed out above, Weston's repeated use of
"negativity"
is clearly a reference to Hegel's theory of 'real negation'. However,
we have
already had occasion to note that that theory itself was
thoroughly misconceived since it was based on:
(ii) Kant's
introduction of the concept of "real negation", which has been taken
apart in Appendix A.
Finally, it is far from clear that the two "tendencies" Weston has
recruited to his cause are 'dialectical opposites', anyway. Once
again (and for the n+1th
time!): they clearly don't imply one another, which they would have to do in order to qualify as
'internally-connected opposites'. In what way does a "tendency" to fall into a
planet imply a "tendency" to continue to move along the same line of action
-- i.e., in the same way that one class under capitalism (the bourgeoisie) is said to imply
the existence of the other (the proletariat), such that neither can exist without
the other -- or so we
have been told? Like so many other Dialectical Marxists, Weston
blithely ignores of this core Hegelian principle, and it isn't hard to see
why: it allows him to hide the fact that this isn't by any stretch of the
imagination a 'dialectical
relation', which means it can't be a 'dialectical contradiction', either
-- whatever else it is.
[On that, see here.]
What is so offensive about all this is that Weston seems quite happy to
associate Marx's great name and reputation with this theoretical travesty,
failing to note Marx had already told he was simply playing around with Hegelian
jargon in Das Kapital -- he was
simply "coquetting"
with it!
[I will offer a different reading of this
passage in Essay Nine Part One --
and it will be one that
absolves Marx of any involvement in this 'Hegelian farce' (which turns out not to be
Hegelian or 'dialectical', after all!).]
But,
what about the "fully realised" aspect of Weston's argument?
"Tendency A, if strong enough, will
cause the opposite tendency B to be less fully realised than if tendency A were
absent, and conversely." [Ibid.]
This
has already been covered: If a 'tendency' is "less fully realised" then some of
its effects won't follow or take place, just as we have
found out. We have also discovered that, whatever else it is, this can't be a
'dialectical interaction' since these 'tendencies' don't imply each other. In which case, Weston's entire analysis is
devoid of rational support, at
any level -- even in Hegelian/DM-terms!
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
Despite this, and in order to examine
every possible way of reviving this moribund theory, I will concede for
the purposes of argument that
E1 and E2are 'contradictory' sets after all (exactly what that might mean isn't
too
clear -- not least because, according to the above
argument (repeated below), one of these sets doesn't exist, having been prevented from
occurring by one of the opposing forces --, but it will be further explored later).
It now seems (from earlier considerations and those mentioned in F10-F12)
that not only does E1
'contradict' E2,
but also that P1
'contradicts' E2,
and P2
'contradicts' E1,
as well! I will return to consider these added complications,
below, too.
F10: P1
prevents E2,
and P2
prevents E1.
F11: Anything that prevents something else
from happening contradicts it.
F12: Therefore, P1
and P2
contradict each other's effects.
However, there
now appears to be no good reason
to accept F11,
and every reason to reject it. Consider the following scenario -- which is aimed at
showing why F11 is unacceptable (evenif the truth of other DM-precepts is
accepted for the sake of argument); this involves a passerby seeing a young
child in difficulties in a body of water, upon which he dived in to rescue the
infant and pull her out onto the bank:
The problem here lies not so much with the non-standard use of
language evident in the above sentences, but with the fact that if a drowning
(or if anything) is prevented from happening, it never actually took place.
In that case, if the said incident didn't happen it can't have been
'contradicted' by any of the forces or events doing the preventing -- since there
would be no 'it' for anything to contradict. Unless we are prepared to
envisage forces 'contradicting' something that doesn't exist, or we imagine they can
'contradict' unrealised possibilities -- or that they can even 'contradict'
certain ideas
(perhaps those in NN's mind or in the mind of a bystander) --, the word "contradiction" gains no grip
here, even
in DM-terms!
Indeed, it
would be even more 'problematic' trying to explain how this 'contradiction' is
'dialectical' to begin with, in the above sense. That is because what an individual (like
NN) does or doesn't do in no way implies
whatever it is they hope to prevent by their actions -- in this case, the drowning. These two
situations/scenarios (i.e., (i) what an individual does or doesn't do, and (ii) what they hope to
prevent) can certainly exist without each other -- unlike the proletariat and the capitalist class, or,
so we have been told. In which case, and once again, whatever else this is, it
isn't 'dialectical'.
It might be
objected that if NN formed the intention to prevent the aforementioned drowning, that
intention implies there exists a drowning to prevent.
Or so it might be argued...
In fact, all that is
implied here is that NN believed a childe was drowning (or about to
drown) and intended to
save her. It certainly doesn't imply that there is someone who is
drowning, since NN could be mistaken, delusional, or even a publicity seeker.
Even more
problematic: did what NN attempt to do turn into the drowning? But that is what
the
DM-classics tell us must happen (link a few paragraphs back) -- i.e., that the 'opposite sides' of a
'dialectical contradiction' must turn into each other after struggling among
themselves -- if a series of events is to be counted as a
'dialectical'. If these are 'dialectical opposites locked in struggle', they
must change into one another! Do attempts to save drowning children always
turn into that drowning, and vice versa? DM-fans might like to share with
us details concerning the last time a
drowning turned into the attempt to prevent it...
Once again: whatever else this is, it can't be
'dialectical'.
[Of course,
on some occasions an attempt to save someone from drowning can go badly wrong,
leading to the drowning of the one attempting to prevent it, but that isn't an
example of one side of a DM-contradiction turning into the other. That is
because NN did not jump into the water intending to prevent his own
drowning, but MM's drowning. If things do go badly, we can assume NN
will then try to prevent his own drowning, and he might fail. If he succeeds, he
didn't drown, which means there is no 'dialectical' outcome here. In that
eventuality, he certainly prevented his own drowning, but he didn't turn into it,
so he didn't 'contradict' it. According to the DM-classics, he would have had to
turn into that with which he struggled -- i.e., into the water or his drowning,
take your pick! Had NN drowned instead, even then he didn't turn
into his own drowning. Whenever in all of human history has a single human being turned into a
drowning? Or even into the water in which they perished? Howsoever we try to spin this,
none of it makes the slightest sense in
DM-terms!]
One obvious fall-back
position for Dialectical Marxists to occupy
(in response to the above) would
be to argue that the action mentioned in F13 halted a series of events that
would have led to the said drowning. Hence, that intervention contradicted
this series of events (or, at least, the last event, or the last few events,
leading up to the drowning). That objection will be examined in Interlude Nine -- and again, presently, below.
However,
just in case
this latest counter-example (concerning the drowning) is considered prejudicial, or
even contentious (in that
it doesn't deal with real forces,
or with the sort of forces concerning which DM-theorists are interested), then perhaps the
following considerations might prove to be more acceptable. To that end, let us begin with this
rather obvious -- and it is hoped perfectly uncontroversial -- assumption:
F16: Any process or series of events that is prevented from occurring does not exist
(or take place).51
It is clear that while
F16 is a truism, it does seem to ignore protracted or extended
(series of) events and processes, so it might not be
fully acceptable as a clarification of the 'contradictions' that are of interest to
Dialectical Marxists.
Consider, then, the following clarification:
F17: Event, E, consists of a set of
inter-connected sub-events, E1-En.
F18: E1-En
form a complex of material interactions (of a sufficiently mediated and
contradictory nature) within T.
F19: Let P2
prevent some or all of E1-Enfrom taking place.
F20: Therefore, some or all of E
do not exist, never will exist, or do not take place.
["T"stands for "The Totality",
"P2"
stands for an opposing force.]
Hence, because of the
operation of
P2
certain events failed to materialise, which generalises the point made in
relation to the drowning example covered
earlier. Even if it were (charitably) assumed that the vague and
confused
DM-use
of "contradiction"
were itself in the end valid, it is still difficult to see how anything could 'contradict'
anything else if that 'anything else' doesn't actually exist or
never even occurred. Hence, in the above example, if P2
halted certain unspecified elements of the series of events -- perhaps, Ek-En
--, which would have led to the said
drowning had they not been stopped, those 'prevented events' never happened (so,
nor did the drowning), which means they can't have been 'contradicted'.
That
objection also appears to be fatal to DM in a what seems to be novel way: it tells us that,if
anything,forces actually prevent 'contradictions' from
arising or emerging!
Of course,
all this is independent of the fact that even if it could be shown that the
above factors could validly be described as a
contradiction, it can't be a 'dialectical contradiction', since the elements
involved -- i.e., the actions that were aimed at preventing the drowning and
the events
that led up to the drowning -- don't imply one another, and can all exist
without each other -- unlike the proletariat and the bourgeoisie (so we
have been told) -- nor do they turn into one another.
As we have
seen, time and again, this is a recurring problem that has so far
nullified every single attempt to
breath life into this rapidly fading theory.
So, far from
'opposing forces' being
DM-friendly they appear to be among its very worst enemies. Any
Dialectical Marxists who still want to cling to this aspect of DM will clearly be
clutching a viper to
their breast.
In that case, if this
recurring 'problem' is to be neutralised, a novel and more consistent account of the
relationship between 'contradictions' and 'opposing forces' must be found --
indeed, as a matter of some
urgency.52
In order to construct a
more viable, pro-DM account
we need to reconsider a difficulty encountered earlier that was
temporarily put to one side: the claim that 'opposing forces' -- not 'forces and
their effects', or simply
'effects in general' -- but, 'opposing forces', directly 'contradict' each other. Consider then the following
scenario:
F21: P1 contradicts P2 in
so far as it prevents P2 acting, and/or vice versa.
Again, this perhaps puts too much
weight on the term "prevent"; it might prompt F21 to self-destruct just as fast
as F17-F20 did -- for if one of the said forces fails to operate (it having been
prevented from doing so), no 'contradiction'
would be implied.
[Whether or not the
actualact of prevention is what constitutes the 'dialectical
contradiction' in this instance will be considered below --
here and Interlude Nine.]
But,
drawing the above conclusion might still prove to be a little too hasty.
For example, both of the above forces could still exist even if one ceased to
operate (in an F21-style configuration), and no problem need arise because of
that -- because no reference has been made to the non-existent effects
of either one of them (an outcome that undermined several earlier attempts at
clarification).
This means that even
though one of P1
or P2
might have been prevented from acting, they couldboth still exist in some form or other. [This appears to be one version of
the interpretation promoted by
Weston.] If so, F21 appears to be the viable option Dialectical Marxists are looking for. One further advantage would be that F21 connects
'opposing forces'
directly with 'contradictions', rather than linking 'contradictions' with the
effects of such forces.
Could this be the lifeline Dialectical Marxists desperately need?
Alas, upon closer examination, this
'promising lifeline' soon
turns into a noose.
Figure Nine: Surprise! Surprise! Yet
Another DM-'Lifeline'
Turns Into A Noose
The fatal consequences
that this latest alternative presents DM-theorists become apparent when we attempt to unravel what it
means for a force to be 'prevented' from operating.
Despite disclaimers, it
seems that if a force no longer operates, it no longer exists (in some sense of
that word). Perhaps the
problem lies not so much with the precise physical form that forces take (which,
even to this day, is still a mystery; on that, see Interlude One), but with the fact that the word "operate" is
itself ambiguous. Consider the
following examples of forces that are capable of being rendered inoperative:
F22: The electromagnetic force ceased to operate
when worker
NN threw the switch.
F23: An aerofoil produces the lift necessary to keep an
aeroplane in the air provided that there is sufficient relative velocity
between that aerofoil and the ambient medium to prevent the force of gravity from operating
normally, pulling the aircraft to the ground.
[In order to avoid unnecessary complexity, I
have left F23 in a more colloquial form -- for instance, by the use of "pulling".]
In F22, the relevant force simply ceased to exist (or it was
converted (or it perhaps reverted) into another force, 'potential force', or some 'form of energy', etc.)
when the switch was thrown. But, in F23, a second force (lift) 'opposes' the effects of the first force (gravity) -- which, of course, still exists
(perhaps appearing as part of the resultant force operation on in the system).
[In this,
and for the sake of argument, I am, of course, assuming gravity is a force!
That concession doesn't affect other statements made in this Essay that throw it
into doubt.]
The question now is: Can
F21 be interpreted along lines
similar to those suggested by F23? This way of viewing the relation between
P1
and P2
would still see them both existing (or operating) even while they counterbalanced each other. In which
case, it might prove helpful to re-write F21 in the following manner:
F24: P1 contradicts P2
only if it counterbalancesP2.53
[F21: P1 contradicts P2 in
so far as it prevents P2 acting, and/or vice versa.]
Now,
F24 doesn't appear to face any of the existential problems that F21 faced
since the relevant forces co-exist,
counterbalancing one another. Perhaps then we have here a clear statement of the
relation between 'opposing forces' and 'contradictions' that
DM-theorists require?
Alas not.
A new difficulty emerges
just as soon as we ask: Why should
only
counterbalancing forces be considered 'contradictory'? This is
relevant since F24 simply restricts our attention to situations where there is
an equilibrium between forces, and ignores dis-equilibria.54
But surely, it is largely as a result of the latter that (significant) change occurs
-- certainly changes of the sort that interest Dialectical Marxists. Clearly,
this means 'contradictions' should be connected with dis-equilibria rather than
equilibria. If so, F24 ought to be re-written in the following way:
F25: P1 contradicts P2whether or not it counterbalances P2.
Unfortunately,
F25 can't now provide the clarity that was missing from previous attempts to
shed some light on this part of DM. That is because F25 fails to
distinguish between the circumstances surrounding equilibria and dis-equilibria. F24 seemed to express a clear definition of 'contradictory forces', but in order to make it
applicable to the real world, F25 had to be recruited in support, completely
undermining F24. F25 informs us that forces are 'contradictory'
whether or not F24 is true! Worse still, F25 could be true even when F24 is false:
F24:
P1 contradicts
P2
only if it counterbalances P2.
F25: P1 contradicts P2whether or not it counterbalances P2.
Hence,
if the following were true (which is what F25 at least allows), F24 would be false:
F26:
P1 contradicts
P2
even though it doesn't counterbalance P2.
Now, anyone reading the
above sentences (and taking them for an
accurate exposition of this aspect of DM) would rightly complain that nothing had
actually been explained, since there is nothing about the relationship between
the forces involved that explains what the overall theory is committed to. If
F25 (and hence F26) were true, forces would appear to have no part to play, at
least in connection with DM-'contradictions'.
In response,
it could
be argued that this latest 'difficulty' is not just spurious, it is clearly a result of
the use of the phrase "only if" in F24. Its removal should eliminate the
problem.
Or so it might be maintained...
Unfortunately, the removal of the "only if" in F24 would plunge the
theory back into all the existential problems it had been introduced to
eliminate. That can be seen if we try to re-word F24 in the following manner:
Although F27 might
look
acceptable, it merely expresses a sufficient
condition; hence, it fails to rule out the following:
F28: P1 contradicts P2 in
so far as it prevents P2
acting, and/or vice versa.54a
[F21: P1 contradicts P2 in
so far as it prevents P2 acting, and/or vice versa.]
[F22: The electromagnetic force ceased to operate
when worker
NN threw the switch.]
But, F28 is
just a resurrected version of F21, which we found didn't rule out F22 with its
non-existent forces. What was required instead was a description of
'contradictory forces' that doesn't imply one of the forces operating ceased to
exist as a result of the action of other force in the system.
Furthermore, we also required an account that doesn't rely on forces merely 'contradicting' the effects
of other forces
--
because of the serious difficulties that that particular alternative faced earlier.
That is why an appeal had to be made to forces that
counterbalance each other, since (clearly) they must exist to do so. Hence,
an "only if" had to be introduced, making this a
necessary condition.
But, as we discovered, the more restrictive version ruled out forces that didn't counterbalance one another,
which Dialectical Marxists seem to need. Reintroducing them at a later stage
then ruined the neat
picture.
Unfortunately,
it now looks like F24 and F26 divorce 'contradictions' from
equilibria, since the presence or absence of the latter is in no way affected by
the former.
F24:
P1 contradicts
P2
only if it counterbalances P2.
F26:
P1 contradicts
P2
even though it does not counterbalance P2.
This means that if F24 and F26
'reflect the real nature of things', 'contradictions' would be unrelated
to the balancing effects of 'opposing forces'. As paradoxical as this might seem, DM-theorists should reject the
conjunction of F24 and F26 if they want to maintain their belief that there is
some sort of a
connection between 'opposing forces', 'contradictions', equilibria and disequilibria, in nature and
society. Alas, in order to account
for the 'contradictory nature of reality', DM-theorists can't actually afford to do that.
For, as soon as F24 and F26 are adopted, DM ceases to be explanatory; but the minute
F24 and F26 are rejected, this attempt to render comprehensible the nature of
the relationship between DM-'contradictions' and 'opposing forces'
itself begins to circle the
drain.
Nevertheless, the above 'unhelpful' anti-DM conclusion might also appear
to be a little too hasty, and even contrived.
But, with so little in the writings of Dialectical Marxists to guide us, how is it possible for
anyone to decide whether or not the above attempt to
understand DM is itself misleading, prejudicial or contrived? Indeed, how could
Dialectical Marxists
themselves arrive at a clear and unambiguous decision on this score
without (novel)theoretical innovation
of some description
--
an otherwise eminently reasonable option that has so far been complete anathema to the 'Orthodox' DM-community, who are only too
eager to wave the 'Revisionism'
(or even the
'pedantry') card at anyone who has the temerity to try to 'think outside the
box' on this and other 'difficulties' this theory continually faces?
[Apologies
for those mixed metaphors!]
Nevertheless, if we
are to maintain some sort of commitment to the
DM-requirement that 'contradictions' are capable of explaining change -- when pictured as
'opposing forces' (that is, if we attribute 'contradictions' with some sort of physical
bite, some sort of materiality) --, then this theory must self-destruct by the above argument. That is
because this reconfiguration of DM maintains that forces are 'contradictory' whether what its
theorists claim about them is true or not -- if this is, indeed, what
DM-theorists claim, or it is even what DM itself actually implies!
Naturally, all this is independent of the far more fundamental question whether
the theory that 'contradictory forces' are capable of counterbalancing each other
can itself be explained without referring to the sort of 'prevented' or
'non-existent' effects we met earlier. If it can't, this latest 'rescue
attempt' would
prove to be just another 'theoretical blind alley', since 'prevented effects' don't exist to be contradicted.
On the other hand, if
DM can be explained
without referring to such effects, it is difficult to see what
impact, if any, that 'theory'/'method' could possibly have on the real world. How could such
forces genuinely be described as "material" if they have no effect on anything
physical?
Of course,
whether or not the above considerations are themselves valid, they are still independent of the fatal defect mentioned
numerous times throughout this Essay: these
forces don't imply one another, nor do the forces themselves and their effects (unlike the proletariat and the
bourgeoisie, once more!), so they can't be 'dialectical contradictions', whatever else they
are. For example, gravity doesn't imply the existence of the lift created by a
wing (or anything else that can provide lift). Gravity existed for billions of
years, and wings for maybe a couple of hundred million (in winged insects,
flying dinosaurs, birds, or plants that use the air to spread seeds, etc.,
etc.). Of course, if there were no 'force of gravity', such things wouldn't have
evolved; but then, if there were no 'force of gravity', there would be no universe.
Clearly, gravity can exist without such 'flying devices/contraptions', so the relation between the force
provided by a wing and gravity itself can't be 'dialectical'. Even if such forces
proved to be
'opposites' -- in some-as-yet-unspecified sense --, they certainly do not 'interpenetrate' each other,
and so can't be 'dialectical'.
Well, this is
yet another
'unforced error' -- unforced, since no one held a gun to anyone's head;
it was all done voluntarily --, this yet another 'dialectical hole' out of which DM-fans will have to dig themselves. I am merely
content to remind them that it is a hole; it is very deep, and it is
one they have dropped themselvesinto by taking 'logical' and
philosophical advice from a notorious Christian Mystic.
Figure Ten: Inveterate DM-Fan Still Looking To
Hegel For Sound Advice
Maybe even
this is being a little too hasty? In that case, perhaps we should begin
again.
To
that end, it might help if we
re-examined a passage from one of Cornforth's books, quoted in Part One of this Essay:
"The unity of opposites in a
contradiction is characterised by a definite relation of
superiority-inferiority, or of domination, between the opposites. For example,
in a physical unity of attraction and repulsion, certain elements of attraction
or repulsion may be dominant in relation to others. The unity is such that one
side dominates the other -- or, in certain cases, they may be equal. Any qualitative state of a
process corresponds to a definite relation of domination. Thus, the solid,
liquid and gaseous states of bodies correspond to different
domination-relationships in the unity of attraction and repulsion characteristic
of the molecules of bodies.... Domination relationships are
obviously, by their very nature, impermanent and apt to change, even though in
some cases they remain unchanged for a long time. If the relationship takes the
form of equality or balance, such balance is by nature unstable, for their is a
struggle of opposites within it which is apt to lead to the domination of one
over the other.... The outcome of the working
out of contradictions is, then, a change in the domination relation
characteristic of the initial unity of opposites. Such a change constitutes a
change in the nature of a thing, a change from one state to another, a change
from one thing to another, a change entailing not merely some external
alteration but a change in the internal character and laws of motion of a
thing." [Cornforth (1976), pp.97-98. Paragraphs merged; bold emphases added.]
The above argument might
appear to work if it is applied to human social systems and their
development, where agents
(individually or in groups) are capable of 'upsetting' any number of 'balanced'
configurations, and
who don't need too much in the way of external motivation to do so (although, in
order for Cornforth to be able to say eventhat much with any clarity,
he found
he had no use for the obscure jargon Hegel had inflicted on humanity). However, when this theory is applied
to nature as a whole, it can't work. Consider, therefore, the following:
F29: Let FDbe a set of force 'elements' in a 'dominant'
relation to FS, which is
a 'submissive'
set of forces (i.e., FD>FS),
and let both operate in system, S, howsoever that is defined or
characterised.
F30: For this relation to change so that a qualitative transformation
occurs in the overall system, S, one or other of FD
and FS will
have to change first.
F31: If the change occurs in FD
it will have to do so because of the latter's own 'internal contradictions', otherwise the
theory must fall at the first hurdle. [The same applies to FS,
or, indeed, to both taken severally or collectively.]
F32: But, if that is so, then the same analysis will now apply one more level down,
as it were: whatever causes FD
to change will have to be the result of further 'dominant'/'submissive' relations
inside,
or internal to,FD itself.
In turn, the pre-conditions noted in F31 will also apply at, or to, these 'lower level' relations;
they must change because of their own 'internal contradictions'.
F33:
Either this continues forever or it will halt at some point.
F34: If it halts at some
point, then there must be fundamental units that don't change
because of their 'internal contradictions', and the theory will fail at this point. [In fact, these
'fundamental units'
can have no effect on each other for reasons set-out in detail in
Part One
of this
Essay.]
F35: If
this process continues forever, there would be nothing to condition
anything internal to anything else, just more and more layers, tailing off to
infinity (i.e., to "who knows where?"). DM would thus have its own "bad
infinity". [We saw that this was a non-viable alternative, anyway, in
Part One, as
well as
here.]
F36: All this is independent of whether or not an external cause (or causes) initiated
these
internal changes in FD
or FS. While the latter may be influenced by external causes (according to
Cornforth), external causes can't bring about the internal, qualitative changes
required (again, according to Cornforth himself). The latter must be
internally-generated in the last analysis.
It looks, therefore, like this
'theory' can't be rescued if this particular line is adopted.
Of course,
the above considerations are independent of the fact that Cornforth failed --
just as all other Dialectical Marxists have failed -- to show that the factors mentioned
imply one another, such that neither can exist independently of the other (like the
proletariat and the capitalist class can't exist in splendid isolation, so we are told). In which case, and
once more, whatever else these 'relations' are, they can't be 'dialectical'.
Howsoever we try, there seems to be no way of rescuing this
self-destructing theory -- killed-off by its own
internal obscurities.
In short: if a force
prevents something from happening, that force can't contradict that
'something'. Once
prevented, whatever it was that had been prevented doesn't exist or take place. Moreover, when any effects of that force have
also been prevented, they can't contradict any other effects that haven't
themselves existed, or don't yet exist, either.55
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; NON = Negation of the Negation; LOI = Law of Identity; LOC = Law of
Non-contradiction;
STD = Stalinist Dialectician; MIST = Maoist
Dialectician.]
However, some may still object and claim that if a force prevents something coming into being,
or happening,
it must have contradicted it.
In that
case, let us say that:
Ω1:
If event, Ei,
at time, t1, belonging to process, Δ (normally comprising sub-events,E1-En), is prevented from becoming Ei+1,
at time, t2, by force, P, then Ei
will have been contradicted by P. [t2 > t1.
As before, ">" in this context means "later than".]
[Here, "event" can be interpreted as widely or as narrowly as is required so
that it is compatible with any plausible/acceptable 'dialectical' theories of
"causation", or even of any such "mediations", and their effects. I have had to use Greek letters "Ω" and "Δ"
here since I have run out of viable Latin capital letter options that haven't
already been co-opted! I originally used the letter "T" (now replaced by "Ω"),
but decided that it might be confused with the "T"s I have also
employed to
stand for "time"and for the "Totality". On
events, see here.]
Hence,
it could be argued that in this sense it is clear that forces have prevented the effects of other forces
from being realised, and this they have done by
'contradicting' a given event, stopping it from occurring.
But, even
hereforces
still fail to
'contradict' each other as force-on-force; they merely prevent the events, or
the effects,
induced
by other forces from happening. So, this alternative can't help us
understand how 'opposing forces' actually 'contradict' one another.
Nevertheless, this objection still needs to be examined a little more closely so that every conceivable
alternative has
been explored and shown not to work.
To that end,
therefore, consider the
following:
Ω2:
Let there be an event set, E, consisting of sub-events, E1-En,
which would all take place, or would all have taken place, had force, P, not
stopped things at the Ei-th stage.
Ω3: Had
these events proceeded as 'normal', Ei
would have been followed by
Ei+1,
but as things turned out,
Ei+1
failed to occur because P prevented it.
Ω4: Hence, P contradicted
Ei+1.
However, since
Ei+1
never existed or occurred, it can't have been 'contradicted' by P -- unless, once
more, we assume that a force
can 'contradict' non-existent objects, events or processes.
Moreover, since P
didn't prevent Ei
itself,
it can't have 'contradicted' it, either.
And, as we
have seen several times, Pand Ei+1
fail to imply one another; both can (and do) exist without each other (indeed,
as we have just seen). Hence, whatever else this is, it can't be a
'dialectical relation'/'contradiction'.
We hit the same
non-dialectical brick wall,
yet again.
It might now
be objected that the above force prevented one event following on from another,
so in that sense it (or the series of events) was contradicted.
Or so it might be claimed...
So,
consider this variant on
Ω3:
Ω5: P contradicted Ei
by stopping it producing
Ei+1.
But,
this alternative is no good, either. That is because events aren't like eggs that
produce other egg producers (i.e., chickens!). If so, events themselves can hardly be prevented from producing other
events if they don't produce them in the first place.
In that case, perhaps the following revision will
work in its place:
Ω6: P contradicted Ei
by stopping
Ei+1 following on from
Ei.
But, again, the alleged 'contradiction' amounts to the
prevention of something that doesn't now exist (and never did) -- namely Ei+1. If forces can
only
'contradict' something by preventing or stopping non-existent objects, processes
or events from taking place, then all the above objections still have their
place. [No pun intended! In case the above comment is unclear: no force can
contradict something that does not exist or take place!]
It could now be argued that if the
chain of events above is replaced by a series of causes and their effects, the
contradiction will become clear -- perhaps along the following lines:
Ω7:
Let there be an event set, E, consisting of sub-events, E1-En,
which would all take place, or would all have taken place, had force, P, not
stopped things at the Ei-th stage.
Ω8:
In the normal course of events, let each event, Ei,
cause the next event,
Ei+1.
Ω9: However, Ei+1
failed to occur because P prevented
Ei
causing it.
Ω10: Hence, P contradicted
Ei.
This looks a little more promising, but there
still remain several problems:
(i) Once again, if this were so, DM-fans will have to drop their claim that forces contradict each other;
(ii)
Force, P, and event, Ei,
aren't 'internally related' -- how can a force be 'internally related' to an
event? So, to repeat, whatever else this is, it can't be a 'dialectical contradiction'
(we saw something similar to this obstruct
Weston's attempt to
recruit Marx to this own mystical view of nature, just as we have seen it neutralise
other, alternative rescue attempts);
(iii)
Even if it were a legitimate example of a 'dialectical contradiction', P and event, Ei,
would have to
turn
into each other, if the DM-classics are to be
believed. Plainly, they don't!
Consider, therefore,
a more concrete example of the above scenario: Imagine a forest fire that had been started by a match
inadvertently dropped on some tinder dry
grass. All things being equal, the resulting conflagration will (at least) be
maintained by the following factors: (a) The organic material in the
grass, (b) The energy released by this fire, and (c) The oxygen in the
surrounding air. Imagine further that someone hits the burning grass with a fire
broom before the blaze has a chance to grow, putting it out. Plainly the
force of the blow from the broom deprived the nascent conflagration of enough oxygen to keep it going and so quelled the
fire. In that case, one cause (the supply of oxygen) was prevented by the force
of the broom; had it been left alone the above contributory causes would have
further caused a series of damaging events. But, does the blow from the broom
turn into the oxygen? Or, into the organic material comprising this tinder dry grass?
What if that fire were extinguished by a rain storm? Would such a fire turn into
a rain storm? And yet all of these ought to happen if the
DM-classics are to be believed.
As we have seen several times, those classics tell us that objects and processes
turn into that with which they have struggled, their 'dialectical opposites'.
[Anyone interested can read
the doomed attempts made by one or two comrades to defend the DM-theory of change
(among several other things) in the face of objections like those above (or
aired in other
Essays),
here. (Unfortunately, that link is now dead.) Added on Edit: Fortunately, a Web
Archive Site has captured the entire debate
here.]
However, one of the biggest problems with
the above proffered pro-DM-response lies in
its almost total lack of detail -- a failing not helped by the difficulty of
trying to span this theoretical chasm on behalf of DM-fans, who don't seem
at all bothered to do it for themselves!
In that
case, consider
a different situation where a match is used to light a trail of gunpowder. The match
sets off a series of chemical reactions that pass along that trail, each of
which causes the next reaction in line. Label this series of events, or causes,
"C1-Cn". Let us further imagine that some force -- for example a violent thunderstorm, S,
which either blows the trail of gunpowder away or drenches it with rain in the
ensuing
downpour -- stops this series of events/causes at the Ci-thstage, preventing the next cause/event,
Ci+1,
from happening. In that
case, should we not say that S contradicted cause, Ci?
But,
the problems we met with Options (i)-(iii) above still apply in this
case (as they also did with the forest fire considered earlier -- i.e., when
the details are filled in). If the DM-classics are to be believed,
'dialectical'-objects/events should turn into that with which they have
'struggled'. In that eventuality we should expect any such thunderstorm to turn into the chemical
reaction in the gunpowder, and the latter to turn into the thunderstorm!
In fact, the idea that causes
necessitate their effects (whether or not those effects are
themselves causes in their own right), upon which the above example might seem to depend, is itself predicated
upon an anthropomorphic view of nature. Since I have considered that topic in
more detail in Essay
Thirteen Part Three,
I will say no more about it here.
Exactly
why this view of causation depends on necessitation is connected with the
points raised in Essay Seven
Part Three
(concerning Kant and Hegel's response to
Hume's criticisms of Rationalist theories of causation).
There, it was demonstrated that in order to defuse Hume's attack, Hegel had to
find a 'dialectical-logical', and therefore necessary, link between a cause and
its effects:
Hume had argued that there is no logical
or conceptual connection between cause and effect. [Yes, I know that this has
since been challenged -- for example, by Strawson (2014) -- but my argument here
is aimed at those who accepted the (then) received view of Hume, outlined
below.] This struck right at the heart of
Rationalism,
and Hegel was keen to show that Hume and the
Empiricists were radically mistaken. Kant had already attempted to answer Hume, but his solution
pushed necessitating causation off into the
Noumenon,
about which we can know nothing. That approach was totally unacceptable to
Hegel, so he looked for a logical connection between cause and effect;
he
found it in (1) Spinoza's claim that determination is also negation (which,
Hegel rendered as "Every determination is negation" -- by the way, neither
Spinoza nor Hegel even so much as attempted to justify this 'principle' -- more about
that in Essay
Twelve Part Five; on this, see
Melamed
(2015)), and in (2) His argument that the
LOI "stated negatively" implies
the LOC (which,
unfortunately for Hegel, it doesn't).
Based on this, Hegel was 'able' to argue that for any concept A,
"determinate
negation" implies it is also not-A, and then not-not-A. [I
am, of course, simplifying greatly here! I have reproduced
Hegel's argument below for
those who think I might have misrepresented him.]
This then 'allowed' Hegel to conclude that every concept has development built
into it as
A
transforms into not-A, and then into not-not-A. This move provided him with the
logical/conceptual link he sought in causation. Hence, when A changes it
doesn't just do so accidentally into this or that; what it changes into is not-A,
which is logically connected with A and is thus a rational
consequence of the overall development of reality. This led him to postulate that
for every concept A, there must also be its paired "other" (as he called it),
not-A,its 'internal' and hence its unique 'opposite'. Hegel
was forced to
derive this consequence since, plainly,
everything (else) in the universe is also not-A, which would mean that A
could change into anything whatsoever if he hadn't introduced this limiting factor,
this unique "other".
From these moves
was born the "unity of opposites". So, the link between cause and
effect was now given by a 'logical' unity, and causation and change were the result of the interaction
between these logically-linked "opposites".
Plainly, this
paired,
unique opposite,
not-A, was essential to Hegel's theory, otherwise, he could provide his
readers with no
explanation why A should be followed by a unique not-A as opposed
to just any old not-A -- say,
B, or, indeed, something else, C, for
example -- all of which would also be not-A.
So, since B
and C (and an indefinite number of other objects and
processes) are all manifestly not-A, Hegel had to find some way of eliminating
these, and all the rest, as candidates for the development of A, otherwise he
would have had no effective answer to Hume.
[Hume, of course,
wouldn't have denied that A
changes into "what it is not", into not-A, he would merely have
pointed out that this can't provide the conceptual link that rationalists require unless all the
other (potentially infinite) not-As could be ruled out in some way. He
concluded that it is only a habit of the mind that prompts us to expect A
to change into what we have always, or what we have in general, experienced before. There is no
logical link, however, between A and what it develops into since there is no contradiction in supposing A to
change into B or C, or, indeed, something else. (In saying this the
reader shouldn't conclude that I agree with Hume, or that Hume's reply
is successful!)]
Hence, as an integral part of his reply, Hegel introduced
this unique "other" with which each object and process was conceptually
linked -- a unique "other" that was 'internally' connected to A --, something he claimed could be derived by 'determinate
negation' from A.
[How he in fact derived this "other" will be examined in Essay Twelve Part
Five, but a DM-'explanation' -- and my criticism of it -- can be found in Essay
Eight Part Three.]
This special not-A
was now the unique
"other" of A. Without it
Hegel's reply to Hume falls flat.
Engels, Lenin, Mao, and Plekhanov (and a host of other Marxist
dialecticians) bought into this spurious 'logic' (several of them possibly unaware of the
above 'rationale'; although, as far as I can see, of the DM-classicists, only Lenin seems
to be explicitly aware of it!), and attempted to give it a 'materialist make-over'. And, that
is why this Hegelian theory (albeit "put back on its feet")
is integral to classical DM. It supplied Engels, Lenin and Mao (and all the
rest) with a materialist answer to Hume.
[There are in fact far better ways than this to neutralise Hume's criticisms,
as well as
those of more recent Humeans, which do not thereby make change
impossible. More details will be given in Essay Three Part Five. Until then, the
reader is directed to Hacker (2007), and Essay
Thirteen Part Three.]
Here is Lenin's open acknowledgement and endorsement of this
theory:
"'This harmony is precisely absolute Becoming
change, -- not becoming other, now this and then another. The essential thing is
that each different thing [tone], each particular, is different from another,
not abstractly so from any other, but from its other. Each particular
only is, insofar as its other is implicitly contained in its Notion....' Quite
right and important: the 'other' as its other, development into its opposite."
[Lenin
(1961), p.260. Lenin is here commenting on Hegel (1995a), pp.278-98; this
particular quotation coming from p.285. Bold emphasis added; quotation marks
altered to conform with the conventions adopted at this site.]
"But
the Other is essentially not the empty negative or Nothing
which is commonly taken as the result of dialectics, it is the Other of the
first, the negative of the immediate; it is thus determined as mediated, -- and
altogether contains the determination of the first. The first is thus
essentially contained and preserved in the Other. -- To hold
fast the positive in its negative, and the content of the
presupposition in the result, is the most important part of rational cognition;
also only the simplest reflection is needed to furnish conviction of the
absolute truth and necessity of this requirement, while with regard to the
examples of proofs, the whole of Logic consists of these." [Lenin (1961),
p.225, quoting Hegel (1999),
pp.833-34, §1795. Emphases in
the original.]
Lenin
wrote in the margin:
"This
is very important for understanding dialectics." [Lenin (1961),
p.225.]
To which he added:
"Marxists criticised (at the beginning of the twentieth century) the Kantians
and Humists [Humeans -- RL] more in the manner of Feuerbach (and Büchner) than
of Hegel." [Ibid.,
p.179.]
This shows that Lenin understood this to be a reply to Hume, and
that it was integral to comprehending dialectics.
It is
worth quoting the entire passage from Hegel's
Logic (much of which Lenin approvingly copied into the above Notebooks --
pp.225-28):
"Now this is the very standpoint indicated above from which a
universal first, considered in and for itself, shows itself to be the other of
itself. Taken
quite generally, this determination can be taken to mean that what is at first
immediate now appears as mediated, related to an other, or that the universal
appears as a particular. Hence the second term that has thereby come into being
is the negative of the first, and if we anticipate the subsequent progress, the
first negative. The immediate, from this negative side, has been extinguished in
the other, but the other is essentially not the empty
negative, the nothing, that is taken to be the usual result of dialectic; rather
is it the other of the first, the negative of the immediate; it is therefore
determined as the mediated -- contains in general the determination of the first
within itself. Consequently the first is essentially preserved and retained even
in the other. To hold fast to the positive in its negative, in the content of
the presupposition, in the result, this is the most important feature in
rational cognition; at the same time only the simplest reflection is needed to
convince one of the absolute truth and necessity of this requirement and so far
as examples of the proof of this are concerned, the whole of logic
consists of such.
"Accordingly, what we now have before us is the mediated, which to
begin with, or, if it is likewise taken immediately, is also a simple
determination; for as the first has been extinguished in it, only the second is
present. Now since the first also is contained in the second, and
the latter is the truth of the former, this unity can be expressed as a
proposition in which the immediate is put as subject, and the mediated as its
predicate; for example, the finite is infinite,
one is many, the individual is the universal. However, the inadequate
form of such propositions is at once obvious. In treating of the judgment
it has been shown that its form in general, and most of all the immediate form
of the positive judgment, is incapable of holding within its grasp
speculative determinations and truth. The direct supplement to it, the
negative judgment, would at least have to be added as well. In the
judgment the first, as subject, has the illusory show of a self-dependent
subsistence, whereas it is sublated in its predicate as in its other; this
negation is indeed contained in the content of the above propositions, but their
positive form contradicts the content; consequently what is contained in
them is not posited -- which would be precisely the purpose of employing a
proposition.
"The
second determination, the negative or mediated, is at the same
time also the mediating determination. It may be taken in the first
instance as a simple determination, but in its truth it is a relation
or relationship; for it is the negative, but the negative of the
positive, and includes the positive within itself. It is therefore the
other, but not the other of something to which it is indifferent -- in that case
it would not be an other, nor a relation or relationship -- rather it is the
other in its own self, the other of an other; therefore it
includes its own other within it and is consequently as contradiction,
the posited dialectic of itself. Because the
first or the immediate is implicitly the Notion, and consequently is also only
implicitly the negative, the dialectical moment with it consists in positing in
it the difference that it implicitly contains. The second, on the contrary, is
itself the determinate moment, the difference or relationship; therefore with it
the dialectical moment consists in positing the unity that is contained in it. If then the negative, the determinate, relationship,
judgment, and all the determinations falling under this second moment do not at
once appear on their own account as contradiction and as dialectical, this is
solely the fault of a thinking that does not bring its thoughts together. For
the material, the opposed determinations in one relation, is already posited and
at hand for thought. But formal thinking makes identity its law, and allows the
contradictory content before it to sink into the sphere of ordinary conception,
into space and time, in which the contradictories are held asunder in
juxtaposition and temporal succession and so come before consciousness without
reciprocal contact. On this point, formal thinking lays down for
its principle that contradiction is unthinkable; but as a matter of fact the
thinking of contradiction is the essential moment of the Notion. Formal thinking
does in fact think contradiction, only it at once looks away from it, and in
saying that it is unthinkable it merely passes over from it into abstract
negation." [Hegel (1999),
pp.833-35, §§1795-1798. Bold
emphases alone added. I have used the on-line version here, correcting a few
minor typos.]
The most relevant and important part of which is this:
"It is therefore the other, but not the other
of something to which it is indifferent -- in that case it would not be an
other, nor a relation or relationship -- rather it is the other in its own
self, the other of an other; therefore it includes its own
other within it and is consequently as contradiction, the posited
dialectic of itself." [Ibid.
Bold emphases alone added.]
This "reflection", as Hegel elsewhere calls it, of the "other in
its own self", a unique "other", provides the logical link
his theory required. Any other "other" would be "indifferent", and not
the logical
reflection he sought. It is from this that 'dialectical contradictions' arise, as Hegel
notes. Hence, Lenin was
absolutely right, this "other" is essential for "understanding"
dialectics -- except he forgot to mention that dialectics is in fact rendered incomprehensible and
unworkable as a result!
Hegel underlined this point (but perhaps less obscurely) in the
Shorter Logic:
"Instead of speaking by the
maxim of Excluded Middle (which is the maxim of abstract understanding) we
should rather say: Everything is opposite.Neither in heaven nor in
Earth, neither in the world of mind nor of nature, is there anywhere such an
abstract 'either-or' as the understanding maintains. Whatever exists is
concrete, with difference and opposition in itself. The finitude of things will
then lie in the want of correspondence between their immediate being, and what
they essentially are. Thus, in inorganic nature, the acid is implicitly at the
same time the base: in other words, its only being consists in its relation to
its other. Hence also the acid is not something that persists quietly in the
contrast: it is always in effort to realise what it potentially is." [Hegel
(1975), p.174;
Essence as Ground of Existence,
§119.
Bold emphases added.]
[The problems these rather odd ideas in fact create
for Hegel have been highlighted
here.]
Hence, any attempt to (1) Eliminate the idea that change results from
a 'struggle of opposites', or (2) Deny that objects and processes change into these 'opposites', or
even (3) Reject the idea that
these 'opposites' are 'internally'-related as one "other" to another
specific "other", will
leave DM-fans with no answer to Hume, and thus with no viable theory of change.
[For Hegel's comments on Hume, see Hegel (1995b),
pp.369-75.]
In which case,
Hegel's theory
(coupled with the part-whole dialectic) wasat least a theory of causation,
change
and of the supposed logical development of history; so the above
dialecticians were absolutely right (as they saw things) to incorporate it into
DM. It allowed them to argue that, among other things, history isn't accidental
-- i.e., it isn't just 'one thing after another' -- it has an inner logic to it. Hence,
Hegel's
'logical' theory enabled them to argue, for example, that capitalism must
give way to the dictatorship of the proletariat, and to
nothing else. Hume's criticisms -- or, rather, more recent incarnations of them (which,
combined with contemporary versions of
Adam Smith's
economic theory (Smith was, of course, a close friend and collaborator of Hume's)
in
essence feature in much of modern economic theory and large swathes of
contemporary philosophy, and thus
in criticisms of Marx's economic and political theory) -- are a direct
threat to this idea. If these bourgeois critics are right, we can't predict what the class struggle will
produce. Or, rather, if Hume is right, the course of history is contingent, not
necessary, not "rational" -- and there is no 'inner
logic' to capitalism.
As far as
I can tell, other than Lenin, very few dialecticians have discussed (or have even
noticed!) this aspect of their own theory. The only authors
that I am aware of who take this aspect of DM into consideration are Ruben (1979), Lawler (1982), and Fisk (1973, 1979). I will examine Fisk's arguments, which
are the most sophisticated I have so far seen (on this topic), in other Essays published at this
site. Lawler's analysis is the subject of Essay Eight
Part Three. [However, since writing this I
have also come across some of Charles Bettelheim's
comments
that suggest he, too, understood this point.]
Incidentally,
this puts paid to the idea that there can be such things as 'external
contradictions' (a notion beloved of STDs and MISTs). If there were any
of these oddities, they couldn't be 'logically'
connected as 'one-other-linked-with-another-unique-other' required by Hegel's
theory. For Hegel, upside down or the 'right way up', this would fragment
the rational order of reality, introducing contingency where once there had been
'logico-conceptual' or 'necessary' development. Hence, any DM-fan reckless
enough to introduce 'external contradictions' into his or her system/theory
would in effect be 're-Hume-ing' Hegel, not putting him 'back on his
feet'! In which case, it is no surprise to find that 'external contradictions'
were unknown to Hegel, Marx, Engels, Lenin and Plekhanov.
[I have analysed several other fatal defects implicit in the idea that there can
be 'external' and/or 'internal contradictions' (in nature or society) in Essay
Eleven Part Two, here
and here. See also
here, where I develop the above argument in response to a 'Marxist-Leninist'
who seems not to know his own theory.]
Nevertheless, as
we have seen, it is precisely this which makes the entire theory
unworkable, as
Options (i)-(iii)
above demonstrate.
How this is connected with my
reply to the earlier volunteered pro-DM-response will now be explained. Here is that response again:
Ω7:
Let there be an event set, E, consisting of sub-events, E1-En,
which would all take place, or would all have taken place, had force, P, not
stopped things at the Ei-th stage.
Ω8:
In the normal course of events, let each event, Ei,
cause the next event,
Ei+1.
Ω9: However, Ei+1
failed to occur because P prevented
Ei
causing it.
Ω10: Hence, P contradicted
Ei.
The first point
worth making (once more!) is that for this to be a
'dialectical contradiction', P and Ei
must be 'internally-connected opposites'; indeed, P must be the "other" of
Ei
(just as Hegel and Lenin argued).
But, P and Ei
belong to logically different categories, so they can't be 'internally-related
opposites'. In which case, the above
pro-DM-response
also falls at the first hurdle!
Moreover, P and Ei don't imply
each other (i.e., both can exist without the other, unlike the
proletariat and the bourgeoisie,
so we are told).
In that case, they can't be 'dialectical opposites', to begin with.
Moreover, as we
witnessed in detail
here,
if, in the normal course of events, Ei
is to cause, or to change into, Ei+1,
they must also be 'dialectical opposites' (which means that P can't be the
'dialectical opposite' of either of them, after all!), and they must
'struggle' with each (i.e., Ei
must struggle with Ei+1), if the DM-classics are to be
believed. But, they can't struggle with one another since Ei+1
doesn't exist yet! [Unless, of course, we are to suppose it exists before it exists!
After all, what could be more 'contradictory' than that? Items existing even before they
have the decency to exist!]
On the other hand, if
Ei+1already exists, so that Ei
is able to 'struggle' with it, and thus cause, or change into, Ei+1,
Ei
can't do so
since Ei+1
already exists! In that case,
Ei
would no longer be the cause of Ei+1,
which implies P couldn't have prevented it from causing Ei+1.
either!
The alleged 'contradiction' has simply vanished! The same applies to the
supposed relation between S and Cimentioned earlier.
Either way, if DM were 'true', change in such circumstances would be impossible.
[Which was the general conclusion reached in Essay Seven
Part Three.]
Admittedly, there is an
obvious and critically important clause missing from
Ω7-Ω10, above -- namely,
Ω11:
Ω7:
Let there be an event set, E, consisting of sub-events, E1-En,
which would all take place, or would all have taken place, had force, P, not
stopped things at the Ei-th stage.
Ω8:
In the normal course of events, let each event, Ei,
cause the next event,
Ei+1.
Ω9: However, Ei+1
failed to occur because P prevented
Ei
causing it.
Ω10: Hence, P contradicted
Ei.
Ω11: Instead of Ei+1
following Ei,
because of the operation of P, Ei
was followed by alternative event set, W, comprised of
sub-events,
W1-Wn.
Ω11 must be
the case otherwise, at the
Ei-th
stage we would have to suppose that Ei
was no longer part of the 'causal structure of the world', and hence ceased to have an
effect on anything at all, ever.
Consider again the concrete scenario examined earlier:
Imagine a forest fire that had been started by a match
inadvertently dropped on some tinder dry
grass. All things being equal, the resulting conflagration will (at least) be
maintained by the following factors: (a) The organic material in the
grass, (b) The energy released by this fire, and (c) The oxygen in the
surrounding air. Imagine further that someone hits the burning grass with a fire
broom before the blaze has a chance to grow, putting it out. Plainly the
force of the blow from the broom deprived the nascent conflagration of enough oxygen to keep it going and so quelled the
fire. In that case, one cause (the supply of oxygen) was prevented by the force
of the broom; had it been left alone the above contributory causes would have
further caused a series of damaging events....
No one supposes that if this fire is put out, the grass that was
burning, and is now out, simply disappears from the world or ceases to have an effect on anything else ever again. It, too, will initiate or take part
in another series of
causes/events, depicted schematically, perhaps by
Ω11:
Ω11: Instead of Ei+1
following Ei,
because of the operation of P, Ei
was followed by alternative event set, W, comprised of
sub-events,
W1-Wn.
But, if that is so,
Ei
will now be the 'dialectical opposite' of W1,
its new 'unique other' (that is because,
as we have seen several times, 'dialectical objects'/'processes' turn into their opposites,
into that with which they have 'struggled', their 'unique other', as both
Hegel and Lenin called them). That
would mean Ei's
earlier 'unique other' -- Ei+1
-- must have been deposed, 'knocked off its perch' as its 'unique other',
becoming just another 'other' -- thereby making a mockery of the claim that each
changing object or process has a 'unique other'.
[Anyway, it has
already been shown that Hegel's entire
theory is defective to the core (or, at least what sense could be made of it).]
Even so, what hasn't yet been made clear is how this is
connected with my reply
to the volunteered pro-DM-response
outlined earlier. Given the fact that causes, E1-En,
aren't accidentally linked (i.e., they aren't linked in that way in the DM-scheme-of-things), but are connected
by a 'necessary law' (or a 'law of necessity') of some sort, Ei
itself isn't just plain-and-simple-Ei.
In fact, in DM each of the causes, E1-En,
is also identified by what it is not -- its unique 'other'. [That was the whole point of "determinate
negation" in Hegel's theory, as we saw
earlier.]
So, Ei
isn't justEi,
it is also not-Ei
(since, by 'determinate negation', Ei
is 'identical' with what it is not -- why that is so was explained
here, but more
concisely here)
--
which is alsoEi+1.
Hence, Ei+1
is also not-Ei,
its Hegelian 'other' -- it is what Ei
turns into. But, by the NON, Ei
is also not-not-Ei
-- and hence Ei
is not-itself, and thereby not-itself by 'reflection'. This is what
supposedly causes Ei
to
develop, according to Hegel: the lack of identity between itself and its 'concept'.
This is
'reflected' in and by what it subsequently becomes -- i.e., Ei+1.
[This is how Hegel and Lenin describe such relationships; this isn't my
description! For proof, follow the
links given above.]
That means Ei
is both identical with and different from Ei+1,
in an 'identity-in-difference' 'dialectical sort-of-way'; this is what links these two
factors together,
'logically', in a 'Hegelian sort-of-sense'. So, Ei
isn't now justEi,
it is Ei-that-causes-Ei+1
(except, perhaps, that will need translating back into something a little more
Hegelian
-- maybe along
these lines).
'Dialectical moves'
like these highlight
the necessary link between a cause and its effect(s), engineered in Hegel's theory
by 'determinate negation'. So, these 'dialectical relations' reveal/express the
'logical' connection between a cause and
whatever comes next in this (necessary) causal sequence/chain. Since Hegel
imagined he had 'proved' this 'logically', he clearly didn't think it required confirmation from experience or
from supporting evidence. So, for him, even if it
isn't possible to observe these 'necessary' links
-- after all, how could they be observed? -- they nevertheless must exist, if
we are prepared to buy into this Idealist Fever Dream.
Empiricist-inspired denials of such links are what gave superficial plausibility to
Hume's infamous attack on
rationalist theories of causation (and, updated, they still accomplish it for Contemporary
Empiricists). Hegel's theory nevertheless tells us these 'necessary'
links are there since he had (presumably) shown they
existof necessity -- which seemed to him (and his acolytes) to be a perfect, a priori 'answer' to Hume, Kant
and all subsequent anti-Rationalists.
[No, I am not claiming Kant was an anti-Rationalist! He merely
denied we can know the ultimate causal nature of whatever it is that lies beyond
experience. Hegel imagined he had shown that this was now possible.]
And that is why P
'contradicts' Ei:
P doesn't simply just affectEi;
it fundamentally changes Ei from
being Ei-that-causes-Ei+1
(its 'normal' casual relation to Ei+1)
into Ei-that-causes-W1,
and hence by implication, it also changes Ei-that-causes-Ei+1
into Ei-that-doesn't-cause-Ei+1
(that is, Ei's
'normal effects' are changed into their opposite), based on
Ω7-Ω11:
Ω7:
Let there be an event set, E, consisting of sub-events, E1-En,
which would all take place, or would all have taken place, had force, P, not
stopped things at the Ei-th stage.
Ω8:
In the normal course of events, let each event, Ei,
cause the next event,
Ei+1.
Ω9: However, Ei+1
failed to occur because P prevented
Ei
causing it.
Ω10: Hence, P contradicted
Ei.
Ω11: Instead of Ei+1
following Ei,
because of the operation of P, Ei
was followed by alternative event set, W, comprised of
sub-events,
W1-Wn.
So, the
following now seems to be what emerges as a result of all this:
Ω12:
It isn't the case that it is Ei that causes
Ei+1;
which is, of course, the contradictory of:
Ω13:
It
is the case thatit is
Ei that causes
Ei+1.
[I am
well aware that this is unsatisfactory as it stands, since P can't
'contradict' Ei
by altering it in the above manner, but this is the only way I can make sense of
the idea that P could conceivably 'contradict' Ei.
If anyone can make clearer sense of it,
please enlighten me.]
So, the
operation of P now means Eifails to cause Ei+1.
But, if
there are no necessary links here (and we have seen why there can't be any -- in Essays Seven
Part
Three, Twelve
Part One and Thirteen
Part Three), Pcan't affect Ei
in this way. That is because, in any such eventuality, it isn't the case that it is Ei-that-causes-Ei+1.
And that in turn is because there is no such defining condition for Ei,
and hence no such thing as is supposedly represented by the term "Ei-that-causes-Ei+1",
to begin with, as we have just seen. If
there are no necessary causes, it would be incorrect to identify Ei
in this way --, i.e., as Ei-that-causes-Ei+1,
since Ei
could be the cause of any one of these: A, B, C, D...,
instead. Of course, this
line-of-argument strikes at the heart of 'determinate negation' -- but that obscure notion
was laid to rest earlier (i.e., in Essays Three
Part One and Eight Part Three)
-- and, as a result, it strikes at the heart
of the
'dialectical theory of change'.
In short, because of the
incoherencies of 'determinate
negation', this entire way of viewing 'contradictions' falls apart (yet
again!).
[But, the real problems lie much deeper even than this, as we will see in Essay
Twelve Part Five.]
Of course, in an Ideal
'Hegelian
Universe' (not our universe!) this 'theory' might be ironed out so that it
(somehow!) works. I will pass
no comment here on that bare possibility. Nevertheless, as we will see
in Essay Twelve Parts Five and Six, Hegel's 'theory'
in
the end collapses faster than a portfolio of
Enron shares.
However,
in the real world (the one in which Dialectical Marxists actually exist!), where we are told that change results from a
'struggle between dialectical opposites', and
where everything
supposedly changes into its 'opposite', this theory can't work (even in its own
terms),
as we
have just seen.
In
which case, P
can't 'contradict' anything at all.
At this
point, it could be objected that this entire approach to 'events', 'forces' and
all the rest is completely misguided since it atomises the factors involved, putting them in rigid categories,
compartmentalising and thus fragmenting the fluid, inter-connected nature of reality. In
stark contrast, dialectics deals with the unified,
fluid and organic nature of existence, which means it pictures interactions like those above in a totally different, albeit contradictory, light.
Hence, the analysis presented in this Essay, and at this site, is totally wide
of the mark.
Or, so it
might be
argued...
But, unless and until DM-apologists tell us
with some clarity what it is they do intend, or
what, for example, the "fluid nature of reality" actually amounts to
(that is, over and above the phrase "fluid nature of reality" looking like an
inappropriate metaphor -- or,
indeed, informing us what that odd
metaphor about 'fluidity' couldpossibly mean), that objection is itself devoid
of content (since it contains several empty terms). [Anyway, it has been neutralised
here.]
Independently of that, in what way does the phrase "fluid
nature of reality" help explain how any of the forces involved in change are
'internally-related'? For example,
how are force, P, and event, Ei,
from earlier 'dialectical opposites'? How can
a force be 'internally related' to an event? How is a thunderstorm, for
instance,
'dialectically-linked' to a forest
fire (also from earlier), even if the first extinguishes the second? They don't imply
each other (like
the proletariat and the capitalist class do,
so we are told).
Thunderstorms happen all the time with no forest fires anywhere in sight -- and
vice versa. But there can be no proletariat without there also being the
capitalist class (again, so we are told). Furthermore, thunderstorms don't turn
into forest fires (nor vice versa), which they would do if the
DM-classics were to be believed.
So, whatever else it is, the
much vaunted 'fluid
nature of reality'can't itself be 'dialectical'.
[The allegedly 'fluid
nature of reality' will be examined in more detail in a later re-write of Essay
Eight Part Three. It is reasonably clear, though, that this metaphor is based on
Heraclitus's dogmatic 'theory' that 'everything flows'. But, we have
already seen that Heraclitus solely 'derived' that 'universally valid' conclusion
from what he thought was the
case when someone steps into a river! So this DM-'principle' is supposed to be
valid across all regions of space and time, even though all it is based on based
on is an obscure mystic's 'thought experiment' about dangling his foot into a
river! And,
Heraclitus even got those
details wrong! That is quite apart from the fact that we have also seen there are
countless trillion
particles in each microgram of matter
that don't change unless acted upon externally. And, yes, I am
fully aware that DM-theorists base their ideas about universal change on more
than Heraclitus's fever dream, an issue I have tackled at length in Essay Eleven
Part One. Readers
are directed there for more details. The only point being made here is that this
metaphor (concerning the 'fluid nature of reality' is based on Heraclitus's
'thought experiment'. whatever other 'evidence' is subsequently adduced in its
support.]
Once
again, faced with the above, there is a simple solution staring us in the face:
Dialectical Marxists should
tell us what, if anything, they do mean by their use of
obscure,
incoherent Hegelian jargon -- which hasn't been helped by the introduction of
inappropriate
figures of speech like
this.
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
Alternatively, if forces affect one another externally
(as seems to be the case), then, clearly, change can't be the result of 'internal contradictions'.
On the other hand, if forces have an internal influence on each other (in
some as-yet-unspecifiedway), and they change as a result of their own 'internal
contradictions', then either they are composed of simple units that don't change, or they are infinitely complex, and nothing
internal to them can condition anything else 'internally', for there would be no
such thing.
[The above
conclusions were established in Part One.]
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context;
[HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist, also depending on the context; FL =
Formal Logic.]
It
could be objected that these spurious results have been cherry-picked, tailored, and
even deliberately skewed to fit a
pre-determined result, the motivation behind which is clearly to malign DM,
come what may. The choice of F24 (repeated below) is a prime example of this
'anti-dialectical' mindset.
In that
case, the following could represent a much better way of picturing the oppositional and contradictory
nature forces, which could even meet with approval from the DM-community (in fact, with suitable changes in wording,
it is the line taken in
Weston (2012), for example):
F37: Contradictory forces are those that enter into
opposition in such a way that they (dialectically) partially or totally cancel
each other out.
[F24:
P1 contradicts
P2
only if it counterbalances P2.]
This means that the 'contradictory' relation between two or more
forces would operate along a sort of continuum, or sliding scale -- as it were -- with no fixed
relation operating between them. The arguments presented above clearly make the link between
'contradictory' forces an "either-or", all-or-nothing sort of affair.
But that isn't at all the case with dialectical contradictions or
dialectical opposites.
At this point, an example from mechanics might
help illustrate the complex relationship that is intended here: un-damped
Simple Harmonic
Motion. [SHM -- that link requires JAVA; try
here if you have no JAVA installed (and scroll down the page!).]
Consider a
body set in motion under the operation of two
forces such that its acceleration is proportional to its displacement from the
point of equilibrium and directed toward that point. Since the acceleration of
this
particle changes in proportion to its position, the net force operating on it
must also change accordingly. This is due to the fact that the resultant force
in this system is the vector sum of these two distinct but changing forces, which, at the
equilibrium point [EP], counterbalance each other, but at any other point they either augment or
partially 'nullify' one another, depending on the overall physics of the situation. Because
these two forces work in opposite directions and cause the resulting
acceleration (achieving this by their -- let us say for
now -- 'dialectical interaction') we appear to
have here an example of F37-type motion.
F37: Contradictory forces are those that enter into
opposition in such a way that they (dialectically) partially or totally cancel
each other out.
[F24:
P1 contradicts
P2
only if it counterbalances P2.]
In this
highly simplified picture of just one type of motion, the forces present in the
system appear to 'contradict' one another in complex, changing ways, just as DM
seems to require. But, if this scenario actually does succeed in illustrating F24-, or
F37-type 'contradictions', several untoward
consequences also seem to follow from it:
(1) Clearly,
this analogy means that 'contradictions' (just like forces)
operate on a continuum. Hence, at any point along the path of the above particle
(other than the EP), the net force operating isn't equal to the net force at any other point (in the
same cycle). So, at a specific displacement, the modulus of the net force might
be, for instance, 1% of its maximum; at another it might be 99% of it; while at a symmetrical location on the other side of the
EP, the same would be
true but in an opposite sense. Even so, it isn't easy to see how such a picture may
be made to fit seamlessly into the DM-interpretation of the term, "contradiction". In
addition, as we saw above,
such a model would have unacceptable consequences for HM (involving, for example,
the Nazis leading the fight
against racism!).
(2) This trope depends on forces viewed as basic
'units of reality', as opposed to the product of the relations between bodies in
motion.
[Recall, Option
(2) here appears to be one that
Engels himself
rejected when he spoke of relative velocities replacing forces. However, if
the term "force" is just a shorthand for relative motion (or if it depends on
the presence of a "field"), then, as we have also
seen, the
'dialectical unity of nature'
would be thrown into question. On that basis, the links between bodies and processes
would be external -- even while DM requires them to be 'internal', with
such forces providing the 'connective tissue of reality' (as it were). However, if forces themselves depend on
bodies in relative motion, reality would be fundamentally discrete, not
continuous.]
But, DM-theorists have yet to tell us what the
physical nature of a
single force actually is. In general, Physicists themselves have ceased to use this word (except as a
sort of shorthand, as noted earlier). If forces have no physical nature, can
they really be part of nature? How could such 'useful fictions' feature in a materialist
theory of
the universe?
(3) This neat picture,
tailor-made so that it is consistent with F37
(repeated below), obscures the complexity found in nature. Even so, it isn't
easy to see how such a neat and tidy model could cope with systems of forces, which,
given this view, indicate that several things must be 'contradicted' at once
by countless others. Or, indeed, which also suggest that bodies and/or processes
could have any number of 'contradictories'/'dialectical opposites'. That would, of course, divorce DM-type
'contradictions' completely from FL-contradictions and
Hegelian 'contradictions'. While this might not be totally unacceptable to some,
it would mean that the former sort of 'contradiction' would be even more tenuously
linked to the latter (or, for that matter, linked with 'contradictions' that supposedly
occur in everyday life). In that case, the meaning of the word "contradiction",
as it is used by Dialectical Marxists, would be even
more obscure than it already is. It would also imply that any
object or process in nature had more than one 'opposite' at any point in time. The
word "opposite" would thereby cease to have any clear 'dialectical meaning'. But, we have
been here several times already.
Despite these niggling problems, it might be felt that F37, suitably modified, could still capture essential features of the
'contradictory' nature of 'opposing forces'.
F37: Contradictory forces are those that enter into
opposition in such a way that they (dialectically) partially or totally cancel
each other out.
In order to investigate this alternative
further, let
us suppose that the two forces operating in the above scenario are aligned so
that the angle between them is 180°, once more.57
F38: Let the first force be, F1,
and the second, F2.
F39: At t1, let F1
+ F2 < 0.
F40: At t2, let F1
+ F2 = 0.
F41: At t3, let F1
+ F2 > 0.
[t3 > t2
> t1.
(As before, ">" used between each letter "t" means "later than";
elsewhere ">" means "greater than" and "<" means "less than".)]
[F24:
P1 contradicts
P2
only if it counterbalances P2.]
F39 and F41 imply that there is a net force operating in the
system, in either direction; F40 expresses the background condition to F24, where
no (relevant) net force exists.
But, as we saw earlier, we face immediate problems with
this way of depicting forces -- i.e., those we encountered in relation to an
inappropriate analogy drawn between 'contradictions' and mathematical
objects/structures like these (i.e., in connection with forces represented by vectors).
Ignoring
that 'problem', too, it is worth pointing out once
more that F40
implies
there are no forces operating in the system (unless we regard the zero
vector as a force by default), and F39 and F41 both mean that there is only
one force -- the resultant -- at work. On that basis, F37 would collapse for want of forces.
As we have seen, no contradiction
seems possible if only one force -- the resultant -- is present in the
system. Still less if no forces are at work (as is the case in F40).
F39: At t1, let F1
+ F2 < 0.
F40: At t2, let F1
+ F2 = 0.
F41: At t3, let F1
+ F2 > 0.
[t3 > t2
> t1.
Again, ">" means "later than".]
F37: Contradictory forces are those that enter into
opposition in such a way that they (dialectically) partially or totally cancel
each other out.
It could be objected that
in the above both of the
original forces (F1 and F2) still exist,
since it is they that create the zero vector and/or any resultant force(s) in
the system (as they do in F39 and F41). So, F27 is still valid.
The problem with
any such reply is that
it is difficult to see how the two original forces may also be said to
exist alongside this third force -- the resultant --, whether the latter is
zero or not. If they do exist in this way, there would plainly be three
forces at work here, not two.
That would, of course, create energy out
of nowhere.58
Admittedly, our ability to calculate resultant
vectors/forces involves us in
'mathematically processing'
the relevant components, but that doesn't mean natureitself does the calculating. If it did, that would clearly imply nature was
Mind, or the product of Mind! No one, it is to be hoped(!), thinks that in nature there are
three forces
here where there once were only two. And yet, it is this third force that does all
the work.
It could be
objected that there is no third force at work here, no resultant. That is just
how we express the relation between two genuine forces (or their components) in
the system. Resultants are therefore just mathematical fictions -- or so it
might be argued.
The drawback
with that response is that resultant forces can be measured, and what
subsequently happens to the bodies involved can be predicted from the magnitude and direction
of that resultant. If we can reject resultant forces so easily, then what are we
to say to those who reject forces altogether, even though they can also be
measured and their effects predicted? Aren't forces in general just 'mathematical
fictions' that we can edit out of nature in favour of the relative motion of
bodies --, indeed, just as Engels concluded?
If we rid the
world of resultant forces (as mathematical fictions), all forces would threaten to follow them
out of the window. With that will go any attempt to equate 'contradictions' with
'opposing
forces'. If the latter are in some way fictional, what does that say about the
former?
Now, if an F37-type model is in fact applicable in HM, we ought to
conclude that the 'contradiction' between Capital and Labour (or between
the forces and relations of production), for example, produces a resultant third
social force, the nature of which has, to this day, remained not just completely obscure,
but totally unacknowledged. Based on
this model, since all motion in the Capitalist system is produced by this
mysterious "third
force", its identification by revolutionaries is, to say the least, of the
utmost importance!59
It
might be
felt that this view of forces is simplistic in the extreme. In
HM,
social forces are far too complex to be represented as vectors, which means that
the criticisms aired above are once again completely misguided.
Or so it might be argued...
In
response, it is worth recalling that the
analysis developed in this Essay
has been forced
upon us (no pun intended) because Dialectical Marxists have so far failed to say what
they mean (if anything) when they equate 'dialectical contradictions'
with 'opposing forces'. Dialectical Marxists seem content to claim that
'contradictory forces' operate everywhere in the universe, even though that
approach has
been adopted in
the absence of any clear or detailed account of the
supposed relationships at work here. Except in connection with the proletariat
and the capitalist class, no DM-theorist has even so much as gestured in the
direction of
'dialectically'
deriving
one of the factors involved in a 'contradiction' (in nature or society) from any other, or show that one
element in the
relationship can't exist without the other. [Examples of this are given in Interlude Ten.] In its place,
DM-supporters offer little other than assertion and assumption, with no
attempt to
explain the alleged 'dialectical relation' in any detail or with any clarity -- certainly not to the
level explored in this Essay.
This means,
of course, that erstwhile critics of this Essay are
almost
totally in the darkabout their own theory and its implications! They
are surely in no position to point fingers.
Is
this not yet another example of DM-fans
foisting their theory on
nature and society?
[It is worth reminding the reader
that the existence of opposing forces in society isn't being questionedby the
present author (nor will it be), merely the assumption that they can
be equated with, or modelled by, 'contradictions'. But see also
Note 61.]
Apart
from simplyconforming to tradition -- as has been argued
here
-- DM-theorists
appear to use the phrase "contradictory forces" in order to provide their theory with a
scientific-lookingveneer or façade -- thereby linking it
to a genuine and successful sciences like Physics and Chemistry.
Otherwise, why do it?
If that (seemingly impertinent) allegation is correct, it would be disingenuous of Dialectical
Marxists to
complain that the analogy given above (i.e., using SHM to illustrate changing
forces) doesn't apply to social forces. If the word "force" wasn't
meant to be taken in its usual scientific sense (as a vector), the
analogy would indeed be inapt. But, in that case, the exact meaning of the word
"force" (as Dialectical Marxists use it) would be even more opaque and
obscure. If "force" isn't being employed in the way that
physicists use it (as a vector), what other scientific way is there?
Anyway, as
far as the complexity of social forces is concerned, the counter-argument
(mentioned above) itself
fails to address the problem of the identification of 'opposing forces' with
'contradictions' in nature and society. If it is impossible to give a clear sense
to an avowedly simplified picture of such forces as 'contradictions' (i.e., as they seem to operate in nature), more
complex versions (applied in HM) stand no chance.
As has been
pointed on many occasions at this site, if
DM-theorists object to any of the
comments made in this Essay, there is a simple, rather obvious remedy:they should say
clearlyandin detail for the first time ever what they do mean when they
equate 'opposing forces' -- or the relations between them -- with 'contradictions'.
Moreover,
such forces appear to be 'contradictory'
when and only
whenthey producea third resultant force. This might provide
DM-fans with a certain level of aesthetic satisfaction (in that such a picture is
triadic), but it would sink their theory faster than a lead-lined
diving suit sinks a diver. That is because change would then be a result, not of
contradictory forces, but of resultant forces.
And, as we have already
seen, it is just as easy to describe such a
set-up as 'tautologious'
as it is to picture it as 'contradictory' -- even though both options should rightly be fed into the 'mystical-concept-shredder'
as irredeemably anthropomorphic. Moreover, we have also seen that, whatever else they
are, these forces aren't involved in a 'dialectical contradiction'/'relation' with
each other since
none of them implies the existence of any other -- again, unlike the alleged 'dialectical contradiction'
between the proletariat and the capitalist class (so we have been told).
Howsoever we twist and turn, the equation of
'opposing forces' with
'contradictions' turns out to be as misconceived as anything could be. When
interpreted metaphorically it looks entirely inappropriate (if not
paradoxical and animistic); when interpreted literally it crumbles into incoherence and
confusion, even in DM-terms.
In
order to avoid these difficulties we need to re-think everything. Perhaps the
reconsideration of an alternative that was
briefly examined earlier could provide
DM-theorists with a successful way of interpreting 'opposing forces' as
'contradictions'. However, before that promising alternative is re-examined in greater detail, it is necessary to counter an objection that
should by now have occurred to the reader:
This entire analysis is
abstract
andfails to consider "real material forces".59a1
[HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context.]
As noted above, considerations like those
aired above would stretch the
patience of most Dialectical Marxists. Indeed, they would probably be the first to
complain that this
Essay has signally failed to consider real material, empirically verifiable
contradictions --, and by this they generally (but not exclusively) mean the
'contradictions' at work in HM, in the class war
and which help account for the dynamism in, and the development of, human history.
First
of all it is worth
reminding ourselves that many of the examples
considered earlier were in fact typically concrete, and undeniably material!
What else are gravity and magnetism, for instance?
However, if no sense can be made of 'contradictory forces' in nature (indeed,
as
we have seen), that
automatically throws into question their supposed role in HM.
Now, as is easy to demonstrate, revolutionaries
seriously,almost
neurotically, overuse the
word "contradiction" in their endeavour to depict, not just capitalism,
but the class war in general. Dialectical
Marxists
seldom bother to justify their profligate application of this word to everything
and anything they just happen to be discussing or
analysing. Few, if any, attempt to show the relations, concepts,
processes or objects in their preview are 'dialectical' by deriving one for the
other (as they at least endeavour to do with the proletariat and the capitalist
class). They seem content merely to assert that this or that is a
'contradiction' or a 'dialectical relation'.59b
Here are
just a few examples of the aforementioned profligate use of the word "contradiction":
1,
2,
3,
4,
5 (in this article
alone there are fifty-five uses of the word "contradiction"!). There
is a particularly crass list or examples posted
here
-- which link will take the reader to a site called
Dialectics
ForKids [DFK], so it can perhaps be forgiven somewhat for its
sub-sophomoric
level of
ultra-simplification. Several more instances were itemised
earlier (with even more
below). Readers
should also check out the handful of egregious examples aired in that
embarrassingly poor film, Half
Nelson, a movie not unconnected with the aforementioned site -- DFK. [Indeed,
the director of that film
is the son
of the owner of DFK!]
Updates: December 2011 and October 2013: See also my
recent debate with
Mike Rosen
(in the 'Comments' section at the bottom; organise them "Newest First").
[Unfortunately, that link is now dead!]
See also
here, again in the comments section at the bottom.
Here
is another recent example:
"The current debate over stem cells provides a
very good illustration of the contradictions inherent within capitalism. On the
one hand it is capable of generating amazing new technologies. However, the amount of money flowing into stem
cell research is still miniscule compared to that being used for developing new
ways to kill people. A recent report concluded that while stem cell
research was pioneered in this country, lack of funding was compromising the
ability of British scientists to keep things moving forward in this area.
Meanwhile, as the leader of the richest country
on earth talks about the sanctity of a ball of cells, in Iraq the most
sophisticated weapon systems are being used to murder real, living human
beings." [Parrington
(2007), p.9. Paragraphs merged; bold emphasis
added.]
In
fact,
this illustrates the by-now-familiar fact that Dialectical Marxists like Parrington are only too ready
to conflate 'contradictions' with unacceptable, paradoxical, irrational
or unexpected events, as I pointed out in
Essay Five.
Even in DM-terms this makes
no sense: Does one 'half'/'side'
of the above 'contradiction' struggle with the other? Does one turn into
the other -- which they should do, if the
dialectical classics are
to be believed? Is George W Bush (mentioned as "the
leader of the richest country on earth"), or
even the rest of his class, about to 'develop'
into a bunch of under-funded scientists, or new equipment, and vice versa?
Does the one imply the other, such that neither can exist without the other? If so, Parrington was
rather unwise to omit the
evidence.
So,what is the 'dialectical contradiction'
in the above example? What 'dialectical'/'logica;' argument proves we have here
a pair of 'dialectical opposites' struggling with each other?
Figure Eleven:
Dialectical Marxist Attempt
Derive A Dialectical Contradiction.
Cue Tumbleweed, Cue Rustling
Leaves, Cue Distant Church Bell...
Update,
October 31/10/2021:
Not to be
outdone,
David
Harvey thinks there are seventeen basic contradictions in capitalism,
and
here they are:
"The direct provision of adequate use values for all
(housing, education, food security etc.) takes precedence over their provision
through a profit-maximising market system that concentrates exchange values in a
few private hands and allocates goods on the basis of ability to pay.
"A means of exchange is created that facilitates the circulation of goods and
services but limits or excludes the capacity of private individuals to
accumulate money as a form of social power.
"The opposition between private property and state power is displaced as far as
possible by common rights regimes -- with particular emphasis upon human
knowledge and the land as the most crucial commons we have -- the creation,
management and protection of which lie in the hands of popular assemblies and
associations.
"The opposition between private
property and state power is displaced as far as possible by common rights
regimes -- with particular emphasis upon human knowledge and the land as the
most crucial commons we have -- the creation, management and protection of which
lie in the hands of popular assemblies and associations.
"The appropriation of social power by private persons is not only inhibited by
economic and social barriers but becomes universally frowned upon as a
pathological deviancy.
"The class opposition between capital and labour is dissolved into associated
producers freely deciding on what, how and when they will produce in
collaboration with other associations regarding the fulfilment of common social
needs.
"Associated populations assess and communicate their mutual social needs to each
other to furnish the basis for their production decisions (in the short run,
realisation considerations dominate production decisions).
"New technologies and organisational forms are created that lighten the load of
all forms of social labour, dissolve unnecessary distinctions in technical
divisions of labour, liberate time for free individual and collective
activities, and diminish the ecological footprint of human activities.
"Technical divisions of labour are reduced through the use of automation,
robotisation and artificial intelligence. Those residual technical divisions of
labour deemed essential are dissociated from social divisions of labour as far
as possible. administrative, leadership and policing functions should be rotated
among individuals within the population at large. We are liberated from the rule
of experts.
"Monopoly and centralised power over the use of the means of production is
vested in popular associations through which the decentralised competitive
capacities of individuals and social groups are mobilised to produce
differentiations in technical, social, cultural and lifestyle innovations.
"The greatest possible diversification exists in ways of living and being, of
social relations and relations to nature, and of cultural habits and beliefs
within territorial associations, communes and collectives. Free and uninhibited
but orderly geographical movement of individuals within territories and between
communes is guaranteed. Representatives of the associations regularly come
together to assess, plan and undertake common tasks and deal with common
problems at different scales: bioregional, continental and global.
"All inequalities in material provision are abolished other than those entailed
in the principle of from each according to his, her or their capacities and to
each according to his, her, or their needs.
"The distinction between necessary labour done for distant others and work
undertaken in the reproduction of self, household and commune is gradually
erased such that social labour becomes embedded in household and communal work
and household and communal work becomes the primary form of unalienated and
non-monetised social labour.
"Everyone should have equal entitlements to education, health care, housing,
food security, basic goods and open access to transportation to ensure the
material basis for freedom from want and for freedom of action and movement.
"The economy converges on zero growth (though with room for uneven geographical
developments) in a world in which the greatest possible development of both
individual and collective human capacities and powers and the perpetual search
for novelty prevail as social norms to displace the mania for perpetual compound
growth.
"The appropriation and production of natural forces for human needs should
proceed apace but with the maximum regard for the protection of ecosystems,
maximum attention paid to the recycling of nutrients, energy and physical matter
to the sites from whence they came, and an overwhelming sense of re-enchantment
with the beauty of the natural world, of which we are a part and to which we can
and do contribute through our works.
"Unalienated human beings and unalienated creative personas emerge armed with a
new and confident sense of self and collective being. Born out of the experience
of freely contracted intimate social relations and empathy for different modes
of living and producing, a world will emerge where everyone is considered
equally worthy of dignity and respect, even as conflict rages over the
appropriate definition of the good life. This social world will continuously
evolve through permanent and ongoing revolutions in human capacities and powers.
The perpetual search for novelty continues." [Harvey (2014), pp.294-97; I have
quoted the above from
here. Spelling altered to agree with UK English.]
Does Harvey
even attempt to derive any of the factors in the above list from any other
in the same pair? Do any of them imply any of the others? Can each one exist without
the other? Do they struggle with and then
turn into one another? But, once more, all of those should happen on a regular basis if what the
DM-classics
say is correct.
Readers can
check for themselves: Harvey simply asserts the above are contradictions; he nowhere
makes any attempt to show they are even 'dialectical', let alone that they
are any other sort of 'contradiction'.
But, that is
just par for the course on Planet
Dialectics.
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
Indeed, this word/concept seems to operate almost as a code word --, a
Shibboleth -- the use of which signals to others of like mind that the one
employing it belongs to
their 'speech
community' with its
own
distinctive and definitive jargon. This use of 'exclusivising language'
helps define an 'in-group',
which succeeds in excluding other who belong to the 'out-group', rather than
demonstrate how and why such terminology genuinely applies in each case -- orin
a way that 'reflects' anything
at all 'concrete', which isn't imaginary.
[Why DM-fans do this will be revealed in Essays Nine
Part Two and Fourteen Part
Two.]
But, perhaps this, too, is
a being little unfair?
In order to investigate
the accuracy of the above allegations it might prove helpful to consider a few
-- generally agreed upon --
examples of "real material contradictions
in capitalism" that supposedly drive change and social development.60
[TAR = The Algebra of Revolution; i.e.,
Rees (1998); HM =
Historical Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context.]
TAR, for
example, opens with several apposite and well-observed examples of the
irrational and destructive nature of Capitalism. As its author,
John
Rees, correctly points out, while life expectancy, for instance, has increased
dramatically over the last hundred years or so (even in the poorest regions of the
planet), other factors have grown alongside them that counteract or undermine
such seeming progress:
"[S]ince the Second World War there have been 149
wars which have left more than 23 million dead…. On an average yearly basis, the
numbers killed in wars during this period have been more than double the deaths
in the nineteenth century and seven times greater than in the eighteenth
century…. Regression, by any criterion. Yet it is the very same development of
human productivity that gives rise both to the possibility of life and to its
destruction…. Everywhere we look another paradox appears. How
can it be, for instance, that in the richest capitalist society in the world,
the United States, real weekly incomes have fallen steadily since 1973?… How is
it that in Britain, where the economy, despite the ravages of recession,
produces more than it has ever done…a full quarter of the population live below
the poverty line? The contradictions are no less striking if we
shift our gaze from economics to politics. The introduction of the market to
Russia and Eastern Europe was supposed to bring stability and prosperity but has
actually produced the opposite." [Rees (1998), pp.1-2. Paragraphs
merged; bold emphasis added.]60a0
Bertell Ollman had something similar to say:
"Like
virtually everyone else in his day, Marx was astounded by the scope and rapidity
of the changes that were occurring all around him,
but also by their contradictory nature. The enormous growth in the production of
wealth, for example, came along with an increase in the worst forms of poverty;
progress in science and technology that had a potential for making work much
easier only
succeeded
in speeding up the pace of work and lengthening the working day; even the
increase of personal freedom due to the abolition of various feudal ties came on
the back of an even greater decrease in freedom due to the unforgiving
conditions in which people were forced under pain of starvation to live and work
(or what Marx was later to call the 'violence of things'). Meanwhile, more and
more of the world was becoming privatized, commodified, fetishised, exploitable
and exploited, and alienated as 'all that is solid melts into air.'" [Ollman
(2005); quoted from
here. Spelling modified to agree with UK English; bold
emphasis added.]
First
of all, it is important to emphasise upfront that in what follows the validity of the above
criticisms of Capitalism won't be questioned -- nor will the
explanation given by Rees or Ollman for these and other intolerable aspects of
the political, economic and social system that still dominates this planet. The sole aim here is to ascertain what, if anything, these
two mean by calling such unacceptable developments "contradictions", or why they and other
Dialectical Marxists insist on linking that word with material/opposing forces in
nature and society.
Second, I have chosen the above passages since few DM-fans
belonging to other wings of Marxism (whether they are Stalinists, Maoists,
anti-Leninists, Orthodox Trotskyists, Libertarian Marxists or even Academic
Marxists) would disagree that what the above two call "contradictions" are
indeed contradictions. While they will certainly disagree over some of their causes, or
even over what to do to remedy them,
they will all characterise them in the same way as the above two authors, as 'dialectical contradictions'.
In
what follows, I will focus mainly on Rees's remarks.
[DM = Dialectical
Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context; HM = Historical
Materialism/Materialist, also depending on the context.]
Of course,
a trite and impertinent answer to the question, "Why do DM-theorists use
'contradiction' in the way they do?" would be to point out that
they do so simply because it is part of the 'Marxist tradition',
employment of which helps define
a DM-'in
group', as noted earlier. It is perfectly clear that the use of this term is
part of
'Materialist Dialectics' only because of contingent features in the lives of Marx and
Engels -- i.e., those related to (i) when and where they were born, (ii) the class
to which they belonged, (iii)
how they were socialised
and educated,
and (iv) whose ideas/theories they studied -- specifically, Hegel's.
Hence, as
fate would have it, the world-view adopted by Dialectical Marxist like Rees and
Ollman was
conditioned by their own "social
being" --
as Marx himself pointed out. Had Hegel died of Cholera (or whatever it was that
finally shuttled him off this "mortal
coil") 45 years earlier than he
actually left our company,
does anyone really think we would be using "contradiction"
in the way DM-theorists do?Would we even be bothering with 'dialectics'?60a
[Atheists
often point out to believers (of all faiths) that the only reason they have
adopted their particular belief system is because of when and where they
were born and how they were socialised. We might perhaps say the same about the DM-classicists.
(The evidence supporting that allegation can be found in Essay Nine
Part Two.)]
Be
this as it may, because of the towering authority that Marx and Engels have
(rightly) assumed on the revolutionary left ever since, all subsequent Dialectical Marxists
talk, think and reason along similar lines. They find they have to
use the obscure terminology bequeathed to them or risk being be accused of
'Revisionism', branded 'anti-Marxist', and maybe suffer political isolation,
ostracism, expulsion, or, in some cases, far far worse.
[Or, of course, face the same sort of
ritual abuse
to which I am constantly
subjected.
Not that I am complaining; given what has been revealed in Essay Nine
Part Two, I expect it and would be puzzled had there been
none.]
In
short, it is quite clear that DM-theorists (again, like Rees and Ollman) use obscure Hegelian
jargon -- particularly "contradiction" -- because leading comrades have always used it; they are merely
conforming to 'tradition', identifying their theoretical loyalties.
Naturally, the impertinent nature of that 'trite' explanation won't win
much support among Dialectical Marxists -- not that is was expected either -- but since a less impertinent
explanation stands
no chance
either, there is little to lose by advancing it here.
In that case, there is a pressing need to try to find a better
reason why hard-nosed materialists should want to anthropomorphise nature and
society in this manner, using terms drawn from
Christian and Hermetic Mysticism --
such as "contradiction" -- in what
is
supposed to be a scientific theory.
Unfortunately, as we
are about to discover, there
isn't a
better explanation why self-confessed materialists have allowed themselves to be
conned into accepting the use of
such
jargon, or for employing it quite so indiscriminately --
as we have seen.
We have also seen that
each and every attempt to render viable the analogy drawn between 'opposing forces' and
'contradictions' fall apart; hence, it should come as no surprise to witness the very
same thing happen when we try to examine the use of "contradiction" in HM,
below.
[Spoiler Alert: The result will be that,
apart from the ideological and political motivations mentioned in the next
paragraph,
the impertinent reason mentioned above turns out to be
the only option 'left standing'.]
[The politicalrationale underlying the use of "contradiction" will be
examined in detail
in Essay Nine Part Two (link above), but more
generally in Essay Twelve (summary
here), where the
class-, and social-background of the
DM-classicists will be examined in order to link the latter with
the reason why they were -- and why subsequent Dialectical Marxists still are --
pre-disposed to accept such a threadbare, confused, ill-supported,
badly-explained, decrepit, class-compromised and failed world-view. Thepolitical and ideological reasons
-- over and above the impertinent explanation -- for this debacle have been exposed in Essay Nine Part Two,
specifically
here.]
[HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, also
depending on the context.]
The underlying cause of the many absurdities
capitalism
has created is, as TAR rightly points out, the complex, changing interplay
between the "material productive forces of society" and the associated "relations
of production". [Rees (1998), p.2, quoting Marx.] That account of the driving force
behind this rotten system (interpreted
humanistically, in terms of the class struggle, shorn of every trace of Hegel), I totally accept.
However, this brings us no closer to understanding what it is about
'opposing (social) forces' that merits calling them 'contradictions'. Why
turn a clear employment of an ordinary word, "contradiction", drawn from the vernacular,
into an obscure concept, which forms part of a doctrine peppered with other
unintelligible jargon
imported from Mystical Idealism (i.e., phrases such as "determinate negation",
"unity and identity of opposites", "identity in difference", "negation of the negation", "mediate", and the like) -- the use of which
completely undermines our
ability to explain change?
In HM, we can certainly make sense of the
word "force" -- and
even of words like "opposing" and "struggle" --, but what is there to gain by calling these
'contradictions'?61
Some might regard
this as a
perfectly harmless use of this word, but, as we
will see in Essay Twelve (summary
here), in this
instancethere is no
such thing just as there is no such
thing as a neutral use of the word "oppression". We will also see in Essay
Nine Part Two that this particular word
'allows' DM-evangelists to impose contradictory (even counter-revolutionary) tactics,
strategies and theories on the party faithful in order to 'justify' and
rationalise class collaboration,
substitutionism, splits,
expulsions, and even mass murder (among other things). These
'accommodations' and 'adjustments' were all based on the theory that if reality is
contradictory, the Party should be, too. Indeed, as Lenin noted, this
concept lies
at the centre of, and cannot but affect, the party itself:
"The
splitting of a single whole and the cognition of its contradictory parts...is
the essence (one of the 'essentials,' one of the
principal, if not the principal, characteristics or features) of dialectics....
The struggle of mutually
exclusive opposites is absolute, just as development and motion are absolute...."
[Lenin (1961),
pp.357-58. Quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions adopted at
this site. Paragraphs merged.]
"Splitting" is here called an "essential" part of DM (and
hence a core aspect of the 'dialectically-compromised' version of HM that has
dominated Marxism for a century-and-a-half), with "struggle"
described by no less a figure than Lenin as an "absolute".
That must also involve the relations between comrades (how could it fail to do
so?).
Hence, an emphasis on intra-party strife and splitting sits right at the heart of
Dialectical Marxism!
In that case, we needn't sit around
waiting for the ruling-class to divide us, we are experts already!
But, why do
we act surprised when the theory we are all told is essential to Marxism
informs us to expect just such fragmentation, just such splits and divisions --
and that is precisely what has happened?
[An
excellent example of the use of this theory to 'justify' a regressive political
dogma (which would be roundly condemned if anyone else were to do it) is the way that Trotsky used
'dialectics' to justify the revolutionary defence of the former USSR on the
(sole!) basis of its 'contradictory' nature as a "degenerated workers' state" --
a "workers' state"
where workers
exercised no power and were systematically oppressed and exploited for their
pains. A man of Trotsky's great intelligence and political sophistication
actually fell
for this! Add to that his defence of the
murderous invasion
of Finland by the Stalinists. Another is the way that
Ted Grant, for instance, used 'Materialist
Dialectics' to 'justify' his
confused and contradictory theory of 'Proletarian
Bonapartism' (sic), which 'allowed' him to rationalise the substitution of the
Maoist ruling-clique for the Chinese working class -- a topic I have debated
here. (That link is unfortunately now dead!)]
So, these mystical concepts aren't 'innocent, neutral bystanders', as it were; their use helped
turn Dialectical Marxism into a spectacularly unsuccessful,
long-term, exemplary disaster.
[Notice the use of "helped" here. DM is just
one of the
reasons for the protracted failure of Dialectical Marxism.]
[TAR = The Algebra of Revolution;
i.e., Rees (1998).]
Nevertheless, the relevant part of the argument
developed in TAR appears to be the following:
F42: Capitalism seems to offer unprecedented possibilities
for human development.
F43: But, in reality Capitalism delivers only
partial or faltering progress.
F44: Alongside this progress we have witnessed
major regression.
F45: Thus, Capitalism actually delivers a mixture of
progress and regression.
For Rees, it
looks like the "contradiction" here is based on the fact that
Capitalism holds out or creates certain possibilities, which it either can't fully deliver
or can't provide at all. Almost invariably the opposite of what is
promised (to the majority of ordinary working people, one presumes) actually unfolds.
Rees clearly believes that the involvement of
opposites is important here: so, instead of peace we find war; in the place
of prosperity we have poverty (where it need not be); the growth in human need
isn't catered for by the incessant search for profit; the waste of human
potential conflicts with the increased capacity society has for augmenting and
satisfying its members' needs, and so on. Hence, it looks like 'contradictions' arise
either from the incongruity that exists between what might be expected of
Capitalism (presumably by those who don't understand its nature or who have yet
to learn) and what it actually
delivers. Or, perhaps 'contradictions' arise from the yawning gap that exists between the
system's potential to satisfy
human need and its
obvious inability to do so (at least for the majority). In that case, while the forces and structures brought into
existence by Capitalism seem capable of freeing
humanity from want and oppression, ignorance superstition, just as they also appear to be inextricably linked with
other forces and structures that
create and intensify the opposite.
However, these by-now-familiar observations
still leave the supposed link between 'opposing forces' and
'contradictions' entirely unclear. In
order to clarify Rees's point we perhaps need to consider various plausible
interpretations of what he might have meant.
There appear to be several distinct possibilities,
among which are the following:
F46: Capitalism offers A, but delivers only
not A.
F47: Capitalism offers A, but delivers both
A
and not A.
F48: Capitalism offers A, but delivers only
B, where A and B
are opposites.
F49: Capitalism offers A, but delivers
A and B, where A and B
are opposites.
F50: Capitalism offers A, but delivers
C instead, where C is
a paradoxical outcome.
F51: Capitalism offers A, but delivers
A and not A as well as
B and C.
[The
denotation of the above capital letters will be revealed as the argument unfolds.]
Doubtless
there are many other combinations that could be imagined along similar lines,
but I think they will merely be elaborations on
these six possibilities. I propose, therefore, to examine each of them in turn, beginning,
naturally, with the first.
[HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, also
depending on the context.]
The first option was:
F46: Capitalism offers A, but delivers only not
A.
[F46a:
Capitalism offers abundance, but delivers only scarcity (i.e.,
'not-abundance', or 'non-abundance').]61ao
But,
F46/F46a presents us with a scenario we have met already; it resembles several
earlier unsuccessful attempts to solve the overall problem.
As we discovered, whatever forces there are in the system that actually produce
not A, no contradiction can arise between A and not A because
A itself
does not exist, since only not A will have been actualised in place of A. Nor can
any forces that are at work in the system contradict what they themselves
actually produce (viz., not A in this case) --, especially if
whatever they 'offer' (i.e., A) doesn't exist.
F46
and F46a
are, therefore, of no use in our search
to find a viable way of equating 'opposing forces' and
'contradictions' in HM.
But, do
these factors even struggle with and then turn into each other? Does abundance struggle with
and turn into scarcity, or vice versa?
But, they would do both if they were 'dialectical opposites' (according
to the DM-classics). Once again: whatever else this is, it isn't a
DM-'contradiction'.
[FL = Formal Logic; DL = Dialectical
Logic;
DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; TAR = The Algebra of Revolution
(i.e., Rees (1998).]
The
second alternative went as follows:
F47: Capitalism offers A, but delivers both
A
and not A.
This seems to be a little more promising since
"A and not A"
certainly looks like a genuine contradiction. However, because F47 appears
to depict contradictory outcomes it can't illuminate the alleged
contradictory connection between 'opposing forces' in nature and society that exist
prior to their emergence (i.e., the emergence of A and not-A). That is because F47 is manifestly not about the
forces themselves, but about their results, their effects.
So, even here, we don't seem to have
'contradictory forces'.61a
It could be
objected that there are (opposing) forces in capitalism that produce
just such opposites, and those forces can most certainly be described as contradictory. For example,
competition forces individual capitalists to accumulate capital, but this
accumulation has a tendency to reduce the rate of profit for the whole
capitalist class. So, here we have one tendency imposed on individual units in
the system (in order to maintain or increase their own share of surplus value), which,
when actualised, produces the opposite result for the entire class. The search
for increased profit only succeeds in eroding it in the long term.
Maybe so, but in what way is this a 'contradiction'?
It would be
if this were the case:
Q1: Individual capitalists search for increased
profits and they don't.
Or, this:
Q2: Profit both rises and doesn't rise at the same
time and in the same respect.
But,
no sane Marxist would argue in support of either of these as an example of what
they mean by "dialectical contradiction".
Of
course, Dialectical Marxists might be using the word "contradiction" in
a new and as-yet-unexplained sense. If so, what is it? [On that, see
here and
here.]
It is worth emphasising at this point that I am
not objecting to new or innovative uses of the word "contradiction" (or, indeed, any other
word). [However, on this, see
Interlude Fourteen.]
Dialectical Marxists can
certainly use words as they see fit
(not that they need my permission or acquiescence!). But,
if or when they do, they can't also claim to be using any of these
'new words' with their old
meanings still locked in place. Hence, with respect to "contradiction", they can't also use
it to justify claims about, say, the 'contradictory' nature of the former Soviet
Union [fSU], either -- where that word is now being used in a more ordinary,
familiar sense. [Although, it has to be admitted, not even that is certain! On
that, see below.] If so, this new use of "contradiction" will bear no
relation to its meaning in FL or ordinary language, which in turn implies that DL
fails to 'surpass' both FL
and 'banal common sense'. In fact, any such 'new use' of this word will mean DL
by-passes FL, ordinary language and common sense. [I enter into this in much more detail
here. See also
here,
here,
and
here.]
[Although, there are Hegel scholars who deny this is what Hegel actually
intended -- for example, Hahn (2007). Of course, it could be argued that the
above assertion -- that "contradiction" is
being used in a more ordinary, familiar sense when describing the fSU as
contradictory, is seriously mistaken.
That response will be covered in detail in Essay Nine
Part Two.]
Once again,
and far
more importantly, do these forces, whatever they are, struggle with
and then change into each other, which (once more!) is what the
DM-classics tell us they must do?
Call these
(supposed) forces, F1
and F2,
respectively. If these they are capable of struggling with one another they must
coexist. [Follow the above link for a detailed explanation, but it should seem
reasonably clear that no force is capable of struggling with another force if
that second force fails to exist!] If so, F1
can't change into F2
since it already exists! If it didn't, no struggle could take place.
[This
general objection to the 'dialectical theory of change' has been expanded upon in
extensive detail in Essay Seven Part
Three, where I have responded to several objections, some obvious, some not
so obvious.]
Independently of this, it is clear that we are once again talking about the
effects of certain forces -- not the forces themselves -- being
contradictory. In that case, it now seems clear that
these forces are being
described as 'contradictory' because their effects run contrary to expectations,
not that they (i.e., the forces themselves) actually 'contradict' one another.
In fact,
what we have here is one economic factor (the accumulation of capital)
that somehow produces the opposite effect to what might be expected (by
those who don't understand the nature of capitalism, clearly!), not two
forces doing so, but with one of them predominating.
But, by no
stretch of the imagination can this be the option we are looking for in our
attempt to find out what Rees thought he meant. There aren't even two forces at work here!
[Or, if
there is a second force operating here, Rees was rather coy about what it
actually is!]
Nevertheless, this section is aimed at considering the last few alternatives
left open to Dialectical Marxists in any endeavour to render their theory comprehensible, so F47
won't be abandoned just yet.
F47: Capitalism offers A, but delivers both
A
and not A.
However, as noted above, F47
actually corresponds to a relation depicted abstractly in an
earlier sub-section (i.e., between E1 and E2,
in F6 to F9, reproduced below) -- but interpreted here concretely (albeit schematically).
In which case, it looks like we might at last have found a genuine interpretation of E1
and E2 that is undeniably
'contradictory' (if we now interpret "A" as "E1"
and "not-A" as
"E2").
F6: Let force, P1,
oppose force, P2,
in configuration, C1,
in nature.
F7: Here, opposition amounts to the
following: the normal effects produced by P1
in C1 (had
P2 not been
present) are the opposite of the effects P2
would have produced in C1
(had P1similarly not been operative).
F8: Let P1's
normal effects in C1
be elements of an event set, E1,
and those of P2
be elements of an event set,E2.
For the purposes of simplicity let E1
and E2 be
disjoint.
F9: By F7, E1
and E2
contain only opposites, such that elements of E1
and E2,
taken pair-wise respectively from each set, form oppositional couples.
Unfortunately, any apparent success turns out to be illusory since the conjunction of A and not
A can't be considered contradictory until it is clear what
(concrete) interpretation is to be given to the schematic letter "A" in F47.
[Replacing them with other schematic letters, E1
and E2,
for instance, is no help.]
At this point, it is worth recalling that we are searching for a
literal interpretation of the term "contradiction" that will allow
DL to
surpass FL -- not a metaphorical or an analogical extension to this word, still less
one that possesses a secondary or derivative connotation (or even one
that possesses the 'special' DM-meaningthat has yet to be explained, with
any clarity). As should
seem obvious, this search is of the
utmost importance if we are to rescue from oblivion the idea that 'opposing forces' and
'contradictions' may be equated objectively -- and not, for instance,
poetically, or in some
other fanciful manner.
Clearly, there are several different
ways of reading the
expression "A and not A"; some of them will be contradictions, others not.
In what follows, I shall
reference another example taken from TAR (quoted above), which seems to many DM-theorists to be a genuine contradiction
(i.e., that which supposedly exists between wealth and poverty). In that case, this might involve interpreting "A"
as "wealth", and "not A" as "not wealth" (it clearly can't be "not poverty"!). In that case, "A and not
A" becomes "wealth and not wealth".62
Unfortunately, the problem with this way of
interpreting "A
and not A" is that it actually creates a phrase, not a clause,
indicative sentence or proposition.63 As such, it can't be aliteral
contradiction.
[The vast
majority of
DM-supporters will fail to appreciate this point since their knowledge of logic is
woefully defective. That, of course, hasn't stopped them pontificating
about FL as if they were all latter-day Aristotles. (Oddly enough, the term, "Dunning-Kruger",
comes to mind at this point!)]
The only
apparent way to situate the
schematic noun phrase -- "A
and not A" -- in
a propositional (or clausal) context (so that it can, at a minimum, qualify as a
possible contradiction) would be to interpret it a little more loosely --
perhaps along the following lines:
F52a: Capitalism produces wealth and Capitalism produces not
wealth.
Or perhaps even:
F53: Capitalism produces wealth for some and not
wealth for others.65
F53 is
itself short for:
F53a: Capitalism produces wealth for some and Capitalism
produces not wealth for others.
None of these look at all promising; they are not
just stylistic
monstrosities, their meaning is rather unclear. Anyway, F53 and F53a aren't
contradictory -- that is, no more than, say, a tap would be contradictory if
it supplied water to some but not to others, or no more than the claim that
"opposing forces are contradictory" would itself be 'contradictory' if it
convinced some but not others. No one would think they had been contradicted if
they asserted that a certain factory, say, produced several batches of defective
Widgets, and someone else clamed it also produced some that weren't defective.66
Anyway, F52a is far too vague as it stands -- it is certainly no
more of a 'contradiction' than F53 and F53a were, and probably for the same reason.
If sentences like these have no clear meaning, they can't possibly assist in any
serious attempt to clarify DM. Hence, a further widening of the interpretation of "A and
not A" is called for if we are to gain a clearer understanding of the implications of F47.
Perhaps the following will suffice?
F54: Capitalism produces capitalists who
are wealthy and Capitalism produces workers who aren't wealthy.
F47: Capitalism offers A, but delivers both
A
and not A.
[F53: Capitalism produces wealth for some and not
wealth for others.
F53a: Capitalism produces wealth for some and Capitalism
produces not wealth for others.]
As was the
case with F53 and F53a, F54 isn't even a contradiction. Again, anyone who
asserted
the first clause of F54 -- "Capitalism produces capitalists who are wealthy" --
but who was then confronted with the second -- "Capitalism produces workers who
aren't wealthy" -- wouldn't feel
that they had been contradicted. That is plainly because the first clause is about
capitalists,
while the second is about workers. For F55 to be contradictory, it would have to
be something like the following:
F55: Capitalism produces worker, W1 (or
Capitalist, C1), who is both wealthy and not wealthy at the same
time and in the same respect.
But, quite apart from the fact that no one would assent to, or
even want to assert F55, it has no clear meaning, either! The situation
becomes no better
even if it were re-written as:
F55a: Capitalism produces a set of workers, W (or
Capitalists, C), who are both wealthy and not wealthy at the same time and
in the same respect.
It is reasonably certain that Rees meant neither F55 nor F55a.
[If he had intended either, it would be
entirely unclear what he could possibly have meant by either of them!]
At best, F55
and F55a might be re-interpreted in a comparative sort of way, as follows:
F55b: Capitalism produces a set of workers, W, that is
both wealthy (in comparison to a set of peasants, P) and not wealthy (in
comparison to a set of Capitalists, C), at the same time and in the same
respect.
But, F55b is no more contradictory than this would be:
F55c: John Rees wrote a book that is both long (when compared with the average
short story) and not long
(when compared with Das Kapital).
The
observation that TAR is both long compared with the average short story and not
long compared with
Das Kapital is not, one imagines, what most DM-theorists mean by a 'contradiction'. If it were, their theory would
plainly be based on
logico-linguistic naivety, or even linguistic incompetence, and little else.
Consequently, it looks like F47 can't be shoe-horned into
this ill-fitting
dialectical boot, after all.
More problematic,
however, is finding a convincing answer to the following question: Is either of
the above factors going
to turn into the other?
In the above example, is W going to turn into C,
or C into W? Indeed, is wealth going to turn into poverty? But,
if they were genuine 'dialectical opposites' or 'dialectical contradictions', they would. In which case, whatever else this is, it can't be a 'dialectical
contradiction'.66a
Further
attempts to interpret "A and not
A" can be
extended almost indefinitely. DM-enthusiasts are welcome to play around with
that phrase as much as they like, the end result will be no different. There are no
literally true contradictions that can be manufactured out of "A and not
A"
--
where these relate to the same person, persons, groups, forces, etc., etc. (in the same respect,
at the same time), which will be acceptable to Dialectical Marxists. [As
we saw was the case with F55/F55a, for instance.]
And as we have just seen,
howsoever it is re-interpreted, "A and not
A" can't even be a 'dialectical
contradiction'!
In addition to the reasons given above:
that is because, if a
supposed 'contradiction' were
held true, it would thereby (and on that basis alone) cease to
be a literal contradiction. [Indeed, just as a Marxist would cease to be a
Marxist is he or she fought alongside the White Army in 1920!] As was established in
Essay Five, if such a
'contradiction' were ever to be encountered in everyday life, it would be viewed
either as figurative or based on an undischarged ambiguity of some sort. There
is no way to by-pass, circumvent or avoid this socio-linguistic convention, at least not without altering the meaning of the word
"contradiction" itself. [On this, see also Interlude Eleven, below.] And, even that would be of little
use to DM-theorists since
such a move would 'solve' this 'problem' by means of yet more subjective,
question-begging,
'linguistic tinkering' -- which would, of course, amount to
imposing this aspect of DM on the
facts.67
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; FL = Formal Logic; DL = Dialectical Logic.]
Linguistic
tinkering (of the sort we have witnessed so often at this site) creates 'contradictions'
by fiat when what was required is an example of a real material
contradiction --not a
reified linguistic expression for one
-- hastily cobbled-together
just
to save the theory (or to re-confirm 'orthodoxy').
Nevertheless, some readers might object that the claim advanced earlier (i.e., that
contradictions would normally be regarded as figurative or ambiguous, if held
'true') isitself
both
controversial and contestable.
Or, so it might be argued...
But, as Essay Five demonstrated, that approach is based on
how we would respond
-- and do so respond --
in ordinary life (and in the sciences)
when faced with the odd things others sometimes say, especially with respect to
contradictory statements they might come out with. Hence, that earlier claim
(i.e., that contradictions would normally be regarded as figurative or
ambiguous, if held 'true')
is controversial only in the sense that some have
thought to controvert it.
Whether it is contestable, we will have to see.
[There
is a partial explanation of the background to the above approach (based on
Wittgenstein's work),
here.]
Naturally, this means that the earlier claim (to which the above objector took
exception) isn't a consequence of the
present author having been 'corrupted by
Analytic Philosophy'
(nor is based on an 'excessive
tenderness toward the world'). On the contrary, it is informed by the way workers
themselves speak, and how anyone not suffering from 'dialectics' converses in
everyday life. Indeed, it is based on the way DM-theorists
themselves would have to talk in order to make themselves understood
(also in
everyday life), let alone when they try to
agitate or
propagandise workers. [Substantiation for such sweeping statements will be
given in Essay Twelve Part Seven; arguments in support were aired in
Essay Five.]
Nevertheless, the following comments will test the patience of any Dialectical
Marxists
who might have made it this far. They will no doubt regard the examples of
contradictions aired below as discursive-, not dialectical-,
contradictions. That is, they will view them as purely
linguistic, and hence of little interest, or use, when trying to
understand, and then change, society. That 'concern' will be laid to rest in Essay Eight
Part Three, where examples of the
sort of 'contradictions' advanced by DM-theorists themselves (applied to nature,
for instance) will be
considered. [Anyway, much of Essay Five
along with significant sections of Essay Eleven
Part One were
devoted to just such DM-'contradictions'.] The only reason the following material
has been published is to remind us how we
generally proceed should anyone utter (and try to mean, or attempt to regard
as true)
genuine contradictions in everyday life.
In that
case, in order to illustrate how we would now handle such 'contradictions'
(weird and wonderful contexts excepted),
consider
how worker,
NN, would respond if she were faced with the following situation:
C1: Boss
BB: "NN, you are being paid Ł9.50 an hour and not being paid Ł9.50
an hour."
C1a:
"NN, you are being paid Ł9.50 an hour and not being paid Ł9.50
an hour."
[Of course, no one who isn't the worse for drink, drugs or mental confusion
would speak like this, but other than the examples considered
here, it isn't easy to cite
actual (or plausible) instances where ordinaryhuman beings (again,
those not in the grip of some theory, or under the influence of
Zen Buddhism, etc.) feel constrained to utter 'true contradictions'
-- or,
indeed, fully intend to utter 'contradictions' and genuinely mean them (experimental
literature, poetry and second language errors (etc.) excluded).]
At
first sight, in all likelihood C1 would
be interpreted as a joke of some sort, a
slip of the tongue, or a mistake. If BB insisted that none of the latter
were the case, the only way to proceed would be to ask what on earth he
meant by the sentence quoted in C1a. In the event, a viable explication of this
particular, non-standard use of that quoted sentence might involve interpreting the word "paid",
for example, in one of three
ways:
(1) It
might refer what NN was going to earn, regardless of whether or
not she will ever receive the money. Hence, in a round-about sort of way, the
sentence quoted in C1a could be alluding to the effect of taxation and other
deductions from NN's pay. It might even refer to the boss's intention to
pay the worker in 'kind'. Or:
(2) It
could mean that although the money in question had been earned, it wouldn't actually
be paid
to NN for some reason. So, it might be withheld as a part of the boss's
attempt to victimise NN for helping lead a successful strike, for example.
Or:
(3) It
could mean that although
NN will be paid at the stated rate, the true value of her
contribution to production can't be measured in cash terms. Hence, it might
suggest that BB intends to reward NN with more than mere money (or
maybe with none at all!) -- but, with his/her 'highest esteem', etc. A clue to
this way of viewing the sentence quoted in C1a would be the inflection in the
boss's voice -- a note of sarcasm or condescension, perhaps.
[Of course,
there might be other ways of interpreting C1a, but the above seem the most
obvious.]
However, 'contradictions' like this would never be regarded as literally
true, for as soon as NN was actually paid the said money the second
half of the sentence quoted in C1a would become false, which means that the
conjunction of a falsehood with a truth (in C1a) could never become
literally true (short of altering the meaning of several its key words -- or
the meaning of any other terms used to assert that it is true -- or, indeed, without
altering the meaning of "literal" itself). Weird and wonderful
situations to one side, we wouldn't be able to make sense
of anyone who thought that the outcome expressed by C1a could arise
(save in the ways indicated above, etc.). Certainly, without Alternatives (1)-(3) -- or, perhaps,
other options expressed by alternative plausible/implausible interpretations
--, no worker (or anyone else, for that
matter) would be able to understand the sentence quoted in C1a.
C1a: "NN, you are being paid Ł9.50 an hour and not being paid Ł9.50
an hour."
This
brings us back to a difficulty DM-theorists will always face if they persist in
holding (some) 'contradictions' true, or they continue to use the word
"contradiction" in the loose and indiscriminate way to which they have become accustomed, where one minute they sort of half mean the word in its ordinary-, or even
its FL-sense, the next they sort of half mean it in this new, and
as-yet-unexplained,
DL-sense. When we
bring this word back to its ordinary meaning (thus following Marx's
advice, quoted below), any sentences that
express a contradiction -- if they are still to be regarded as (literally) true -- could only ever be
understood in a non-standard way, or be disambiguated along lines suggested
earlier (and
here).
Exactly why
we should want to bring
words back to their ordinary meaning was made clear by Marx himself:
"The
philosophers have only to dissolve
their language into the ordinary language, from which it is abstracted, in order
to recognise it, as the distorted language of the actual world, and to
realise that neither thoughts nor language in themselves form a realm of their
own, that they are only manifestations of actual life." [Marx
and Engels (1970), p.118. Bold emphasis alone added.]
In other words, unless we want to base our
ideas on distorted language, it might be a good idea to take Marx's advice to
heart.
If, on
the other hand, the word "contradiction" is meant to be taken in a special or
a technical (but as-yet-unspecified) sense, Dialectical Marxists risk being
misunderstood at every turn. In such circumstances their words would fail to communicate anything
determinate, especially if they hope to depict the kinds of situations that are familiar to ordinary workers and their families,
or try to agitate/propagandise them. Furthermore, that risk will remain in place unless and until
DM-apologists make it clear (and for the first time ever) what they mean
by their odd use of this word, in such contexts.
This means
that
in practice, when faced with sentences like C1a, DM-theorists themselves would
interpret the alleged "contradictions" they express in a standard way, in
line
with the vast majority of ordinary human beings; hence they, too, would paraphrase
such contradictions
away. Despite their commitment to DM, few (if any) Dialectical Marxists would
understand the words attributed to the fictional boss (who uttered C1a)
literally. In fact, only the most useless trade union organiser in
history
would allow such a boss to get away with the nonsense reported in C1a.
Representing and defending the material interests of the working-class certainly
doesn't mean that we let bosses off the hook by adopting, or accepting, a way of
speaking that was invented by ruling-class hacks, card-carrying Mystics and
confused Idealists.
C1a: "NN, you are being paid Ł9.50 an hour and not being paid Ł9.50
an hour."
However, socialists, who are usually alert to the dangers of class
collaboration if and when they surface
elsewhere, seem only too happy to allow ordinary language to suffer
ideological contamination of this sort, when it comes to 'doing a
littlePhilosophy'.
Even
if Dialectical Marxists intend to take the word "contradiction" literally
in sentences they use (never mind C1a),
they themselves would struggle to explain what it was in nature or society
that a 'true contradiction' could depict without helping themselves to
yet more figurative (or 'philosophical') language. [On that, see Essay Eight
Part One.]
If, per impossibile, they could avoid
using any such language, and were
able to give a literal explanation of their use of "contradiction", then the word "literal" would have to
be taken non-literally!
In
Essay
Five we saw every attempt to
unravel the confusions that plagued Engels's (brief, almost off-the-cuff)
'theory' of motion fail. It turned
out that it was impossible to make sense of what Engels thought he might have
meantby the words he used -- that is, if
we attempt to take what he said literally.
[Any
who disagree are invited to check out that Essay and then
contact me with a detailed explanation
of (i) where I go wrong and (ii) what the f*** Engels did mean.]
So, it
is no big surprise to find that
DM-theorists have remained consistently vague and equivocal about such a core
aspect of DM for well over a century (and even longer of we throw in
Hegel and his Groupies). There is in fact
nothing that anyone could say, or could have said, to make
the incomprehensible comprehensible. Just like 'the mysteries' of
Transubstantiation and the
Incarnation of Christ, DM-propositions resist all attempts at clarification.
Indeed, as David Stove argued:
"If a statement 'p' is impossible to understand if taken
literally, it will also be impossible to understand the statement 'So-and-so
believes that p', taken literally. If you could understand the statement that
knowledge is literally a poached egg, then you could understand the statement
that Smith literally believes that knowledge is a poached egg; but since you
can't understand the former, you can't understand the latter either." [Stove
(1991), p.28.]
[However, readers should also check out the warning I have posted about Stove,
here.]
At present,
unless DM-theorists come up with the goods, it is impossible to understand anything they say about these mysterious 'dialectical contradictions'.
Hence, it is equally impossible to understand anyone who tries to tell the rest
of us that DM-theorists
themselves understand what they mean.
Over the last thirty-five years, when I have
made this point to DM-fans in
'debate', they tend to respond with something like the following:
"Just because
you can't make sense of this use of 'contradiction' doesn't mean it makes no
sense. Your failings can't be attributed to our theory!"
To which I invariably
reply:
"I agree. But in that case, help me out. What do
you mean by your odd use
of 'contradiction', for example?"
That is usually met with a barrage of abuse,
silence, or
further attempts at deflection. But in all the years I have been arguing
with DM-fans, not one of them has been able to help me out. Not that I ever
expected them to be able to do so -- or, no more than I expect Christians to
explain with any clarity, or even candour, the precise nature of
The Trinity.
At
this point, DM-apologists might be tempted to complain about the continual use
of contradictions drawn from FL to make points against their use of "dialectical
contradiction". The obvious response to this is (once again!) to request a
clear explanation of what a 'dialectical contradiction' itself could possibly
be so that those advancing this complaint could themselves
convince critics that theyactually meansomething (anything?) by that
term, as opposed to their
having used an empty string of words for over a hundred and fifty years, just because
it is traditional to do so.
Until
then, the volunteered complaint (recorded at the beginning of the previous
paragraph) would itself be devoid of meaning -- since it contains a
phrase that is so far
meaningless, "dialectical contradiction".
Dialectical Marxists might just as well use "schmontradiction" for all the good it does.
Finally, the claim that there
literallyare 'true contradictions' (advanced by philosophers like
Graham
Priest) will be examined in a later Essay. [However, it is a moot point
whether the examples (and the paradoxes) Priest considers are, or ever could be called,
"dialectical".
Strike that; they aren't.]
[Until then
the reader is directed toward the following: Goldstein (1992, 2004), Slater
(2002, 2007b, 2007c), and
this review,
by Hartry
Field. Field has
now published a book about the
paradoxes,
where he shows that the
Dialetheic and
Paraconsistent Logics that Priest favours and promotes can't even handle the
paradoxes of
truth, which had been one of the main motivators for launching this branch of
non-standard logic -- i.e., Field (2008), pp.36-92.]
[An entire
sub-section on 'dialectical contradictions' that used to appear here has now
been moved to Essay Eight
Part Three.]
Returning to
John Rees's quote, F48
might be the
(favourable) reading we are searching for?
F48: Capitalism offers A, but delivers only
B, where A and B
are opposites.
Unfortunately, as we have seen several times already, since A doesn't exist --
Capitalism not having delivered it --, it can't 'dialectically contradict' B. This means that
F48 doesn't appear to be a viable reading of Rees's intentions, either.
Even if B 'contradicted' any of the forces and/or processes already present in
the system,
that would just return us to where we were when we considered several earlier
scenarios, such as
the following (but substituting the word "society" for "nature"):
F6a: Let force, P1,
oppose force, P2,
in configuration, C1,
in society.
F7: Here, opposition amounts to the
following: the normal effects produced by P1
in C1 (had
P2 not been
present) are the opposite of the effects P2
would have produced in C1
(had P1similarly not been operative).
F8: Let P1's
normal effects in C1
be elements of an event set, E1,
and those of P2
be elements of an event set, E2.
For the purposes of simplicity let E1
and E2 be
disjoint.
F9: By F7, E1
and E2
contain only opposites, such that elements of E1
and E2,
taken pair-wise respectively from each set, form oppositional couples.
It looks
like this is yet another dialectical dead-end, for here we have even
more
non-existents 'contradicted' by existents.
[UO = Unity of Opposites; DM = Dialectical
Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context; HM = Historical
Materialism/Materialist, also depending on the context.]
[This follows on from Interlude Five and depends on
the conclusions reached there.]
But,
are opposites always contradictory? At this moment I am sat in front of my
computer looking at the house opposite. Is my house therefore in some sort of
'struggle' with that house? Or, indeed, am I 'struggling' with it? Does it even
'contradict' me and/or my house?
A little unfair?
Certainly. Indeed, DM-supporters would be the first to point out that the
opposites they regard as contradictory are those that are involved in a
dialectical union of some sort (i.e., each forms a UO). Since my house
and the one opposite aren't so linked (and neither am I), they aren't therefore in 'struggle',
don't 'contradict' one another, nor could they.
Well,
how do we know? Clearly we don't. Nature often surprises us. Anyway, isn't everything
inter-connected in DM?
Be this as
it may, consider the
opposite sides of an equilateral triangle (one that
has been carefully drawn on paper, so this isn't
an abstract example). Such a triangle has two opposite sides; do they
'contradict' each other? Are they
both battling against the third side, or with one another? Here, these sides are
both physically-, and logically-,
or 'internally'-, linked: (i) They are inter-connected, and (ii) they imply one
another -- otherwise this wouldn't be a triangle! Even so, they
steadfastly refuse to contradict one another. If we now extend this example to cover more
complex
manifolds, similar 'difficulties' multiply alarmingly.
But, once
again it could be argued that this latest batch of counter-examples aren't even remotely relevant since the items involved aren't
dialectico-logically linked.
Well, it seems then that only certain logical connections are allowed to be
or to constitute a DM-UO, which means that objects and processes that are merely
physically-, or even those which are formally-, connected
(as they are in such shapes)
can't be (automatically) described this way.
However, on a
purely empirical
basis, since no
house has yet been observed to be engaged in a life-or-death struggle with
another property across the way, can they be ruled-out conclusively (as UOs)? Who
is to say? And yet, who has ever actually
witnessed a set of use-values slugging it out with a set of exchange-values? Or seen 'appearances' locked in a life-or-death struggle with 'underlying
essences'? Or even witnessed a billiard ball battle with itself as it rolls
along? But, which Dialectical Marxist would now disagree with Engels -- who claimed
that motion like this is contradictory -- simply on the basis that it is
impossible to observe that alleged contradiction? If so, empirical niceties
(such as observation) can't in the end be crucially important, in such
cases.
We
are still in the dark, therefore.
Some might object to the
banal examples covered in this Essay. But Hegelian
opposites look pretty banal themselves (and so do those that litter most
DM-texts -- for example: opposite poles of a magnet,
males and females, up and down, seeds that negate plants, etc., etc.) -- and theydon't work, either, even in their
own
terms.
Oddly enough,
and by sheer coincidence (I'm sure), acceptable 'dialectical opposites' turn out to be (by-and-large) those dreamt-up by Idealist Philosophers thousands of years ago (and,
indeed,
by those who lived more recently). Now, since this doctrine (that there are
UOs everywhere) is
also a core
precept of
Hermeticism, that
should be enough to malign it in the eyes of anyone concerned to remain
consistent with atheistic materialism:
"For everything must be the product of opposition and
contrariety, and it cannot be otherwise." [Copenhaver (1995), p.32.
Bold emphasis added. (This has been quoted from
here. These are the
words of an Ancient Greek, or possibly even Egyptian, Mystic,
Hermes Trismegistus.)]
[In fact, pointing out
that DM has appropriated the ideas of previous generations of Mystics and
Idealists has absolutely no effect on
Dialectical Marxists. (Why that is so
will be
revealed in Essay Nine Part Two.)]
To test this
allegation,
readers should now try to spot the difference (over
and above a handful of superficial, stylistic variations) between the following
two passages:
"CHAPTER X POLARITY
'Everything is dual; everything has poles; everything has its pair of opposites;
like and unlike are the same; opposites are identical in nature, but different
in degree; extremes meet; all truths are but half-truths; all paradoxes may be
reconciled.' -- The
Kybalion.
"The great Fourth Hermetic Principle
-- the
Principle of Polarity -- embodies the truth that all manifested things have 'two
sides'; 'two aspects'; 'two poles'; a 'pair of opposites,' with manifold degrees
between the two extremes. The old paradoxes, which have ever perplexed the mind
of men, are explained by an understanding of this Principle. Man has always
recognized something akin to this Principle, and has endeavoured to express it
by such sayings, maxims and aphorisms as the following: 'Everything is and
isn't, at the same time'; 'all truths are but half-truths'; 'every truth is
half-false'; 'there are two sides to everything'; 'there is a reverse side to
every shield,' etc., etc. The Hermetic Teachings are to the effect that the
difference between things seemingly diametrically opposed to each is merely a
matter of degree. It teaches that 'the pairs of opposites may be reconciled,'
and that 'thesis and antithesis are identical in nature, but different in
degree'; and that the ''universal reconciliation of opposites' is effected by a
recognition of this Principle of Polarity. The teachers claim that illustrations
of this Principle may be had on every hand, and from an examination into the
real nature of anything
"Light and Darkness are poles of the same thing,
with many degrees between them. The musical scale is the same-starting with 'C'
you moved upward until you reach another 'C,' and so on, the differences between
the two ends of the board being the same, with many degrees between the two
extremes. The scale of colour is the same -- higher and lower vibrations being the
only difference between high violet and low red. Large and Small are relative.
So are Noise and Quiet; Hard and Soft follow the rule. Likewise Sharp and Dull.
Positive and Negative are two poles of the same thing, with countless degrees
between them....
"CHAPTER IX VIBRATION 'Nothing rests;
everything moves; everything vibrates.' -- The Kybalion.
"The great Third Hermetic Principle-the Principle
of Vibration-embodies the truth that Motion is manifest in everything in the
Universe-that nothing is at rest-that everything moves, vibrates, and circles.
This Hermetic Principle was recognized by some of the early Greek philosophers
who embodied it in their systems. But, then, for centuries it was lost sight of
by the thinkers outside of the Hermetic ranks. But in the Nineteenth Century
physical science re-discovered the truth and the Twentieth Century scientific
discoveries have added additional proof of the correctness and truth of this
centuries-old Hermetic doctrine.
"The Hermetic Teachings are that not only is
everything in constant movement and vibration, but that the 'differences'
between the various manifestations of the universal power are due entirely to
the varying rate and mode of vibrations. Not only this, but that even THE ALL,
in itself, manifests a constant vibration of such an infinite degree of
intensity and rapid motion that it may be practically considered as at rest, the
teachers directing the attention of the students to the fact that even on the
physical plane a rapidly moving object (such as a revolving wheel) seems to be
at rest. The Teachings are to the effect that Spirit is at one end of the Pole
of Vibration, the other Pole being certain extremely gross forms of Matter.
Between these two poles are millions upon millions of different rates and modes
of vibration.
"Modern Science has proven that all that we call
Matter and Energy are but 'modes of vibratory motion,' and some of the more
advanced scientists are rapidly moving toward the positions of the occultists
who hold that the phenomena of Mind are likewise modes of vibration or motion.
Let us see what science has to say regarding the question of vibrations in
matter and energy.
"In the first place, science teaches
that all matter manifests, in some degree, the vibrations arising from
temperature or heat. Be an object cold or hot-both being but degrees of the same
things-it manifests certain heat vibrations, and in that sense is in motion and
vibration. Then all particles of Matter are in circular movement, from corpuscle
to suns. The planets revolve around suns, and many of them turn on their axes.
The suns move around greater central points, and these are believed to move
around still greater, and so on, ad infinitum. The molecules of which the
particular kinds of Matter are composed are in a state of constant vibration and
movement around each other and against each other. The molecules are composed of
Atoms, which, likewise, are in a state of constant movement and vibration. The
atoms are composed of Corpuscles, sometimes called 'electrons,' 'ions,' etc.,
which also are in a state of rapid motion, revolving around each other, and
which manifest a very rapid state and mode of vibration. And, so we see that all
forms of Matter manifest Vibration, in accordance with the Hermetic Principle of
Vibration." [Anonymous (2005), pp.59-62, 55-58. The first has been posted
here;
the second
here.
Spelling altered to conform with UK English. For more quotations along the same
lines (taken from other mystical systems/theorists), see
here
and here.]
Compare the above with this:
"The Unity and Interpenetration of
Opposites
"Everywhere we look in nature, we see the dynamic
co-existence of opposing tendencies. This creative tension is what gives life
and motion. That was already understood by Heraclitus (c. 500 B.C.) two and a
half thousand years ago. It is even present in embryo in certain Oriental
religions, as in the idea of the ying (sic) and yang in China, and in Buddhism.
Dialectics appears here in a mystified form, which nonetheless reflects an
intuition of the workings of nature. The Hindu religion contains the germ of a
dialectical idea, when it poses the three phases of creation (Brahma),
maintenance or order (Vishnu) and destruction or disorder (Shiva). In his
interesting book on the mathematics of chaos, Ian Stewart points out that the
difference between the gods Shiva, 'the Untamed,' and Vishnu is not the
antagonism between good and evil, but that the two principles of harmony and
discord together underlie the whole of existence....
In Heraclitus, all this was in the nature of an
inspired guess. Now this hypothesis has been confirmed by a huge amount of
examples. The unity of opposites lies at the heart of the atom, and the entire
universe is made up of molecules, atoms, and subatomic particles. The matter was
very well put by
R. P. Feynman: 'All things, even ourselves, are made of
fine-grained, enormously strongly interacting plus and minus parts, all neatly
balanced out....' The question is: how does it happen that a plus
and a minus are 'neatly balanced out?' This is a contradictory idea! In
elementary mathematics, a plus and a minus do not 'balance out.' They negate
each other. Modern physics has uncovered the tremendous forces which lie at the
heart of the atom. Why do the contradictory forces of electrons and protons not
cancel each other out? Why do atoms not merely fly apart? The current
explanation refers to the 'strong force' which holds the atom together. But the
fact remains that the unity of opposites lies at the basis of all reality.
"Within the nucleus of an atom, there are two
opposing forces, attraction and repulsion. On the one hand, there are electrical
repulsions which, if unrestrained, would violently tear the nucleus apart. On
the other hand, there are powerful forces of attraction which bind the nuclear
particles to each other. This force of attraction, however, has its limits,
beyond which it is unable to hold things together. The forces of attraction,
unlike repulsion, have a very short reach. In a small nucleus they can keep the
forces of disruption in check. But in a large nucleus, the forces of repulsion
can't be easily dominated.... Nature seems to work in pairs. We have the
'strong' and the 'weak' forces at the subatomic level; attraction and repulsion;
north and south in magnetism; positive and negative in electricity; matter and
anti-matter; male and female in biology; odd and even in mathematics; even the
concept of 'left and right handedness' in relation to the spin of subatomic
particles. There is a certain symmetry, in which contradictory tendencies, to
quote Feynman, 'balance themselves out,' or, to use the more poetical expression
of Heraclitus, 'agree with each other by differing like the opposing tensions of
the strings and bow of a musical instrument.' There are two kinds of matter,
which can be called positive and negative. Like kinds repel and unlike
attract....
"Moreover, everything is in a permanent relation
with other things. Even over vast distances, we are affected by light,
radiation, gravity. Undetected by our senses, there is a process of interaction,
which causes a continual series of changes. Ultra-violet light is able to
'evaporate' electrons from metal surfaces in much the same way as the sun's rays
evaporate water from the ocean.
Banesh Hoffmann
states: 'It is still a strange
and awe-inspiring thought, that you and I are thus rhythmically exchanging
particles with one another, and with the earth and the beasts of the earth, and
the sun and the moon and the stars, to the uttermost galaxy....' The phenomenon of oppositeness exists in
physics, where, for example, every particle has its anti-particle (electron and
positron, proton and anti-proton, etc.). These are not merely different, but
opposites in the most literal sense of the word, being identical in every
respect, except one: they have opposite electrical charges -- positive and
negative. Incidentally, it is a matter of indifference which one is
characterised as negative and which positive. The important thing is the
relationship between them....
"This universal phenomenon of the unity of
opposites is, in reality, the motor-force of all motion and development in
nature. It is the reason why it is not necessary to introduce the concept of
external impulse to explain movement and change -- the fundamental weakness of all
mechanistic theories. Movement, which itself involves a contradiction, is only
possible as a result of the conflicting tendencies and inner tensions which lie
at the heart of all forms of matter.
The opposing tendencies can exist in a state of
uneasy equilibrium for long periods of time, until some change, even a small
quantitative change, destroys the equilibrium and gives rise to a critical state
which can produce a qualitative transformation. In 1936, Bohr compared the
structure of the nucleus to a drop of liquid, for example, a raindrop hanging
from a leaf. Here the force of gravity struggles with that of surface tension
striving to keep the water molecules together. The addition of just a few more
molecules to the liquid renders it unstable. The enlarged droplet begins to
shudder, the surface tension is no longer able to hold the mass to the leaf and
the whole thing falls." [Woods and Grant (1995/2007), pp.64-68; quoted from
here. Several paragraph merged; links added. The page number for this passage is slightly
different in the 2nd edition.]
"'Everything Flows'
"Everything is in a constant state of motion,
from neutrinos to super-clusters. The earth itself is constantly moving,
rotating around the sun once a year, and rotating on its own axis once a day.
The sun, in turn, revolves on its axis once in 26 days and, together with all
the other stars in our galaxy, travels once around the galaxy in 230 million
years. It is probable that still larger structures (clusters of galaxies) also
have some kind of overall rotational motion. This seems to be a characteristic
of matter right down to the atomic level, where the atoms which make up
molecules rotate about each other at varying rates. Inside the atom, electrons
rotate around the nucleus at enormous speeds....
The essential point of dialectical
thought is not that it is based on the idea of change and motion but that it
views motion and change as phenomena based upon contradiction. Whereas
traditional formal logic seeks to banish contradiction, dialectical thought
embraces it. Contradiction is an essential feature of all being. It lies at the
heart of matter itself. It is the source of all motion, change, life and
development. The dialectical law which expresses this idea is the law of the
unity and interpenetration of opposites...." [Ibid., pp.45-47; quoted from
here. Paragraphs merged. Quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions adopted at this
site. Again, the page number for this passage is slightly different in the 2nd
edition.]
Attentive readers will no doubt have noticed the same
low level Mickey Mouse Science
prominent in the Hermetic Tract that we also find in DM-literature, exemplified above
by comrades W&G.
Even so, a century-and-a-half after
Engels and Plekhanov concocted this theory, Dialectical Marxists have
still made no
attempt to explain with any clarity what it could
possibly mean to suggest that 'dialectical opposites' 'contradict
each other'. For example, who taught those opposites to speak?
Another unfair anti-DM talking point?
Not so.
Not, unless Dialectical Marxists mean something different by their use of
"contradiction", which they have so far studiously kept to themselves. If these 'opposites' do indeed
'contradict' one another, they must be able to talk.
[On this, see
here, Interlude Eleven and Essay Eight
Part Three -- where I have
published a lengthy analysis of the best pro-DM account of UOs I have
encountered in over 35 years, i.e., Lawler (1982); readers are referred to that
Essay for more details. There is also more on this in Essay Seven
Part
One.
In addition, check out the analysis of Kant's concept of "real negation" in Appendix A.
Also: since writing much of this Essay I have found out that this topic
(concerning DM-UOs) is covered in detail in McGill
and Parry (1948). (This link
will automatically download a saveable PDF of that article.)
Several thoughts about the latter will
be added to future re-write of Essay Eight Part Three.]
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
Returning to
the main feature, once more; here again is F49:
F49: Capitalism offers A, but delivers
A and B, where A and B
are opposites.
If we now read "A" as "wealth" and "B" as "poverty", we
obtain the following:
F63: Capitalism offers wealth, but delivers wealth and
poverty, where wealth and poverty are opposites.
However, there are several problems with that paraphrase
and, indeed, with this alternative. One such concerns the supposition that capitalism actually does offer
wealth to all. Admittedly, for propaganda purposes its ideologues often claim it
does, but who believesthem? Certainly, blatant lies like this
can't be part of an HM-analysis of Capitalism.69
The following might therefore be regarded as a more
acceptable option:
A1: Capitalism has
the potential to offer wealth to all but delivers wealth and poverty, where
wealth and poverty are opposites.
[F49a: Capitalism develops D, but actually delivers
B and C,
where B and C are opposites.]
In fact, that alternative has already been considered; it is just a variant of F49a.
Once again, an
unrealised potential can't contradict anything (in the sense that
DM-theorists require), sinceit doesn't exist. So, even if it were true, A1 would be of no help
in an attempt to understand what Dialectical Marxists mean by their equation of
'opposing forces' with 'contradictions' (in
HM).
Of course,
this raises wider questions about the semantic status of propositions about
non-existents. That topic will be entered into in greater detail in Essay
Twelve, but for present purposes we need only consider the following:
It might now be
argued, for instance, that the fact that there will be a sea battle
tomorrow is contradicted by the fact that there won't be one -- to use
Aristotle's example. Neither of those scenarios is actual, but that doesn't stop them from contradicting one
another.
Or so it
could be maintained...
Certainly, those two
sentences look contradictory (who has ever denied it?), but the
question is, can both be true? That would have to be the case if this were an example of a
'dialectical contradiction'. In addition, and not insignificantly, they would have
to imply each other (like the proletariat implies the capitalist class,
so we have been led to
believe), which they clearly don't.
Once
again: whatever else this, it isn't a 'dialectical contradiction'.
[The reader
is also referred to the
discussion
below concerning the distinction between "contradictory" and "contradiction".]
DM-enthusiasts regard their 'contradictions' as
real material forces ('dialectical contradictions' are supposedly a consequence, or they are the effects, of
such forces -- even though Dialectical Marxists are
'a little unclear' about the fine details, as we have seen), and these forces can only
"contradict" (in
the DM-sense
of that word) whatever they can -- or, rather, whatever they actually
-- interact with, which (clearly) means that they have to co-exist -- as, indeed, Mao
himself pointed out:
"The fact is that no contradictory aspect can
exist in isolation. Without its opposite aspect, each loses the condition for
its existence. Just think, can any one contradictory aspect of a thing or of a
concept in the human mind exist independently? Without life, there would be no
death; without death, there would be no life. Without 'above', there would be no
'below'.... Without landlords, there would be no tenant-peasants; without
tenant-peasants, there would be no landlords. Without the bourgeoisie, there
would be no proletariat; without the proletariat, there would be no bourgeoisie.
Without imperialist oppression of nations, there would be no colonies or
semi-colonies; without colonies or semicolonies, there would be no imperialist
oppression of nations. It is so with all opposites; in given conditions, on the
one hand they are opposed to each other, and on the other they are
interconnected, interpenetrating, interpermeating and interdependent, and this
character is described as identity. In given conditions, all contradictory
aspects possess the character of non-identity and hence are described as being
in contradiction. But they also possess the character of identity and hence are
interconnected. This is what Lenin means when he says that dialectics studies
'how opposites can be and how they become identical'. How then can they be
identical? Because each is the condition for the other's existence. This is the
first meaning of identity." [Mao (1937),
p.338.
Bold emphasis added; quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions
adopted at this site.]
Indeed, as
Ira Gollobin agreed (quoting Engels):
"Opposites in a thing are not only mutually
exclusive, polar, repelling, each other; they also attract and interpenetrate
each other. They begin and cease to exist together.... These dual aspects of
opposites -- conflict and unity -- are like scissor blades in cutting, jaws in
mastication, and two legs in walking. Where there is only one, the process as
such is impossible: 'all polar opposites are in general determined by the mutual
action of two opposite poles on one another, the separation and opposition of
these poles exists only within their unity and interconnection, and, conversely,
their interconnection exists only in their separation and their unity only in
their opposition.' in fact, 'where one no sooner tries to hold on to one side
alone then it is transformed unnoticed into the other....'" [Gollobin
(1986), p.113; the first quote is from Engels (1954),
p.72; second is from Engels (1891),
p.286.
Bold emphases added; quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions
adopted at this site.]
The
proletariat could hardly 'contradict' the capitalist class if one of them
didn't
exist! [Not that only one of them could exist, according to
Dialectical Marxists!] The same must be the case with the forces and relations of production,
and, indeed, with forces of attraction and repulsion.
Hence, while propositions about unrealised potentialities (or 'tendencies' -- or
even sentences about future contingencies) might
be contradictory (in the sense that they can't both become true or both
become false, at once and the same respect), in DM-terms, an unrealised potential (or
a non-actualised 'tendency') can't
'contradict' (in the sense that it could actively oppose) something that
didn't
itself
exist.
While it is possible to speak about
'contradictory
tendencies' in an object or process, the point of referring to these as
"contradictory" is that they can't both be actualised at once (and in
the same respect). So, for example,
while it is possible for one end of a rather long iron bar to cool down while the other end
is being heated (at the same time), it makes no sense to suppose that the same section of that
bar (which could be specified in terms of precise volume intervals) could be in both states at once
(and in the same respect).
[If anyone
thinks differently, they should contact me with their best shot. On the alleged 'contradictory tendencies' in capitalism, see
here,
here,
here,
here, and
here.]
Perhaps then F49 should be
modified along the following lines:
F57: Capitalism develops productive forces
capable of delivering wealth to all, but it actually delivers wealth to
a minority and poverty to most of the rest, where wealth and poverty are opposites.
[F49: Capitalism offers A, but delivers
A and B, where A and B
are opposites.]
[Of course,
"poverty" can also be interpreted as "relative poverty", etc.]
However, in F57 we are confronted with a subtle change in the
way that the "A" of F49 has been interpreted in the opening clause; it now
stands for "develops the productive forces
capable of delivering wealth to all", but, in the last clause it simply stands for
"wealth", as before. Hence, F57 is actually an interpretation
of the following schematic sentence:
F49a: Capitalism develops D, but actually delivers
B and C instead,
where B and C are opposites.
Or perhaps
even:
F49b: Capitalism develops D (which has the
potential to generate B or C), but in the end it produces BandC,
where B and C are opposites.
Here, the 'contradiction' would
either seem to be between:
(a) The capacity Capitalism has for delivering/producing wealth and its actual delivery/production of
poverty; or,
(b) The wealth it delivers to,
or produces for, some and the poverty it
delivers to, or imposes on,
the rest.
In the first case, clearly we don't have a contradiction. That is because, as we have just seen, a capacity is an unrealised potentiality,
and, as such, it can't contradict something which does exist -- no
more than, say, a woman's un-actualised capacity to play the flute contradicts
her actualised mastery of the piano, or even her actualised state of not having a flute -- or, indeed,
her not being able to play the flute while she has to make do with
a piano.
Alternative (b)
isn't a contradiction either, however much it offends our sensibilities. It is no more a contradiction than, say, Ł10,000
($13,000) in one pocket contradicts Ł0.15 ($0.20) in another. Or no more than a Ł5 (or a $10) note in a
millionaire's wallet (assuming that is all she has on her at the time)
contradicts the Ł1000 ($1300) in a worker's pocket (who has just won an injury compensation
claim) -- even if these two are sat next to each other at a UK Labour
Party rally. To call these "contradictions" would be bizarre -- even
in DM-terms! Do they 'struggle' with one another? Do they
turn into each other? Does each imply the existence of the other?
But they would do all of those if they were 'dialectical'.70
As we saw earlier, anyone who thought
otherwise would simply be advertising their own logico-linguistic naivety, if not perversity.
In any case, as we have also seen, there can be no literal
contradiction between something that doesn't exist (i.e., the prospect of wealth under
Capitalism, where that is meant to be 'wealth for all') and something that does exist (i.e., the mixed fortunes of those who have to endure conditions as they are).
Despite this, it might still be felt that the situation isn't as
bad as the above remarks make out. The emphasis in F49 is on what
Capitalism actually delivers, not on what it genuinely (or otherwise)
offers. If "wealth" and "poverty" are real opposites,
F49 would still
be a viable option in the way DM-theorists intend -- or, so it might seem.
F49: Capitalism offers A, but delivers
A and B, where A and B
are opposites.
Unfortunately, that rather desperate alternative reading diverts attention away from
supposedly
'contradictory forces' andonto their effects, once more. In that case, the
nature of the direct relation between whatever forces there are in the system that produce
such effects is still obscure.
Nor are they the least bit contradictory.
Nevertheless, even when consideration
is given to effects
like these (or the relation between them), a nagging question
still remains: Just what is so
contradictory about wealth and poverty existing side by side? Admittedly,
for
any half-decent socialist such a state of affairs is as intolerable as it is indefensible,
but there still doesn't seem to be a literal contradiction involved here.
Admittedly, it may be paradoxical (but not to a Marxist), but, the truth
of an assertion that of one of these alleged opposites exists doesn't entail that an
assertion that the other opposite also exists is false, as would have
to be the case if a literal contradiction were intended. Again: they don't appear to
imply one another, like the proletariat and the capitalist class supposedly do,
either.71
If, on the other hand, we
wish to re-define the word "contradiction" so that it becomes the equivalent of
"paradoxical", "unjust", "contrary to expectations", "deplorable" (etc.,
etc.), all well and good. But that would merely concede a
point that has been made several times in these Essays: that social reality
only turns out to be 'contradictory' because of
repeated examples of linguistictinkering, which once again means the claim that DM-'contradictions'
haven't been imposed on the facts
will have to be withdrawn. Viewed this way, DM-'contradictions' would, at best,
either be figurative
or they would depend on the use of a word ("contradiction") that has been
'redefined' in order to produce the 'right result'.72
[RL = The Present Author; FL = Formal Logic;
DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context.]
Of
course, on a similar basis, someone might (foolishly) try to 're-define' their financial status by
declaring that their bank balance of Ł5 ($7) was really one of Ł1,000,000
($1,300,000). While a recklessly audacious ploy like that might make an ideal millionaire
out of a fake one, it will have no real impact on their finances -- except, perhaps, negatively, when they
are found out.
Since
the ordinary word "contradiction" already has a meaning -- or, even a range of
meanings -- in everyday life, redefining it in ways that are unconnected with
the latter (as DM-theorists try to do) similarly has no real effect on the world, no matter how ideal a
temporary 'fix' it might provide for an ailing theory -- or even for
desperate theorists.
In response,
it could be argued that
Dialectical Marxists are at liberty to use
(and/or re-define) words as they see fit; it isn't up to the 'thought-police'
(represented here by RL) to try to stop them.
As we have seen,
DM-theorists can certainly use words as they please (not that they require anyone's
permission), but they can't then appropriate
meanings for these newly re-configured words that apply toother
words that already have an established use, which they then try to emulate,
import, borrow, co-opt, purloin, or replace. So, Dialectical Marxists aren't at liberty
to claim their use of "contradiction" is in any way connected with its ordinary
use, or even with the
role it occupies in FL --, not without
causing confusion, but, mercifully (so far) only to themselves.
In that
case, the novel and idiosyncratic use of "contradiction" by Dialectical
Marxists (and, indeed, Hegelians, when they too finally make up their minds what
they mean by this word!) requires an explanation, since the connections this word once enjoyed with its supposed vernacular-, or FL-'twin' have
long since been severed, leaving it adrift and hence meaningless. The
semantic role it supposedly occupies, concerning which DM-theorists have so far
failed to specify -- not that they have
been trying too hard to provide one for well over a hundred and fifty years
-- seems to be permanently locked in obscurity.
[In fact,
rather too many DM-fans become abusive when asked to explain themselves. On that, see
here and
here.]
And, that is
why I have repeatedly asked for such clarification in this Essay.
However,
as a matter of fact, it turns out that Dialectical Marxists
aren't
using "contradiction" in 'any way they please'. Their (rather distinctive) jargon has a
chequered history and an even more suspect origin, which means much of it already
has a specific (if vague and confused) meaning, which DM-theorists had no part in
establishing. Just like
those who use terminology associated with, say,
The Christian Trinity
-- which, unsurprisingly, slithered out of the same Neo-Platonic
cesspit that also helped give birth to Hegel's dialectical daydreams --, DM-theorists have
imported this particular word (i.e., "contradiction") from the
Hermetic/Hegelian Tradition -- fortified by the confused
ramblings of other Mystics--, which means DM is
a direct descendant of Mystical Christianity and obscure
Neo-Platonism --, their poor relation,
in fact.
Dialectical
Marxists should feign no surprise, therefore, when they are accused of
being covert mystics; they certainly can't explain what their words mean in
comprehensible terms -- using the vernacular (as Marx enjoined, quoted below) --
which means their jargon is as big a
mystery to them as it is to the rest off us!
Those who
think that ordinary language is far too vague, ambiguous, and limited to be of any use (in such
rarefied philosophical/theoretical contexts) should read
this and
this, and then
perhaps think again.
Failing
that, then they should
perhaps take issue with Marx himself:
"The philosophers have only to dissolve their language into the ordinary
language, from which it is abstracted, in order to recognise it, as the
distorted language of the actual world...." [Marx
and Engels (1970), p.118. Bold emphases
alone added.]
~~~~~~oOo~~~~~~
[UO = Unity of Opposites;
LIE =
Linguistic Idealism; RRT =
Reverse
Reflection Theory; HM = Historical
Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context; DM = Dialectical
Materialism/Materialist, also depending on the context;
FL = Formal Logic; DL = Dialectical Logic.]
Returning to
the main feature, once again: on the
other hand, if the word
"contradiction" possessed atechnical, unique or special,
'dialectical meaning' -- which supposedly allows for its (legitimate) use in DM
and HM -- then
Dialectical Marxists need to come clean, and, for the first time in over two
centuries -- i.e., if we include Hegel and his Groupies in on this -- explain in ordinary terms
exactly what this key term does mean.
Sceptical anti-DM-ers (like the present author) won't
be holding their breath waiting for an answer...
However, in response it could be argued that
the dialectical use of "contradiction" implies opposition or tension,
which is what the accumulation of wealth (alongside increasing poverty) actually induces.
But, even though "wealth" and "poverty" are opposites
(in an ordinary
sense), they don't seem to
oppose each other in an active way, as one would expect should be the case if they
genuinely illustrated the equation of 'dialectical contradictions' with 'opposing forces'.
Admittedly, poverty acts as brake on the productive forces at
certain points in history (warping both the development of, and the
opportunities for, those
who have to endure it, etc.), which stokes up resentment, class hatred and (as a
result) foments 'labour unrest'. But, over and above the influence such
circumstances have on human agents, these lifeless concepts appear to
have no active connection with each other. Without doubt, the material
conditions such concepts might be used to express or 'reflect' could very well create tension in those who have to
endure them, but none of the latter would describe what they feel by using the
word "contradiction" -- unless, of course, a fast-talking DM-Evangelist had
already sold them on the idea. In ordinary
language, the word can't be given any such meaning without altering the sense it
already has.73
Furthermore, if the above considerations
are meant to be read as
a new gloss on F49 (by way of illustrating the alleged 'contradiction' between
E1-, and E2-type
events discussed earlier) then this, too,
reduces to a consideration of the effects of effects
as 'contradictory', not the original effects themselves. Down that
road lies, I fear, yet another "bad infinity" --, which
ends "who knows where?"
F49: Capitalism offers A, but delivers
A and
B, where A and B
are opposites.
The second
difficulty with this 'alternative reading' is that although wealth and poverty are genuine
opposites (again, in an ordinary sense), they don't appear to form a 'dialectical-UO' (even
if we knew what one of those actually is!). Under
Capitalism, the wealth of one class is connected with the poverty of others
(which is a structural and dynamic outcome of that economic and social system), but
this is a causal connection. They aren't internally-, or
logically-related, despite claims to the contrary. That this is so can be seen
from that fact that were it not the case, we would find we
couldn't agree (with Engels) that under Capitalism poverty exists "where it
need not be".
If there
were a 'dialectical' (or "internal") "unity in difference" connecting poverty
and wealth (like that which Dialectical Marxists imagine exists between capitalist and worker (as classes)),
then we couldn't argue that socialism will eliminate one at the same time as
generalising the
other. But, the whole point of a socialist society is that all should
become as wealthy as the productive forces will allow. If there were a
logical link between these two states (poverty and wealth), they would
be inseparable in all modes of production and we would have to temper our
slogans somewhat. [It's not as if female foxes weren't also vixens in Ancient
Greece! That logical connection is history-proof, as it were. The same isn't the
case with wealth and poverty.] Otherwise we might have to argue that by eradicating poverty,
workers would be eradicating wealth, too! That we do not so argue -- we
actually claim the opposite, that socialism can eradicate poverty while producing wealth
(for all) --
shows that the relation between wealth and poverty isn't a logical (or
internal) connection, it is causal.
Of course, it could be argued that there is an internal/logical
link between "wealth and poverty
under capitalism". The above treats these two terms abstractly. This isn't at all like the link between female foxes and vixens!
A genuine example of an "internal relation" might help here: if the
Prime Meridian at
Greenwich were to be abolished, the whole system of longitudes would
automatically go with it. Moreover, anyone employing the current system correctly is
able to determine precisely where they are on the planet in relation to the
Prime Meridian. Where they are located in terms of longitude is therefore 'internally related' to that
Meridian, by a series of inferences
based on a set of measurements and
a series of conventions established by international agreement. Of course,
these days this is all done automatically, augmented by
GPS guidance systems. But the point is still valid. This isn't at all like the elimination of poverty. Poverty will be
eradicated not by destroying wealth, but by extending wealth production, establishing
workers' power and equitable forms of distribution -- and, of
course, by
abolishing class division (etc., etc.).
Again,
it could be
argued that this completely misconstrues the nature of the link between poverty and
wealth under Capitalism, turning it into something abstract that supposedly exists
(abstractly) between
two unchanging concepts. Contrary to this, Dialectical Marxists hold that wealth and
poverty are dialectically inter-linked, and not just to each other. They are related
to, and are constituted by, the Mode of Production in which they both exist.
This affects the meaning of both terms. Hence,
under Capitalism, wealth can't exist without the creation of poverty. To
eradicate the latter, Capitalism itself must be abolished. In a fully socialist society, the
present (internal) connection between wealth and poverty will disappear.
But, that
still fails to derive one of these factors (e.g., wealth) from the other (e.g.,
poverty), or the other way round. At least with the proletariat and the
capitalist class Dialectical Marxists make some attempt to show that these two
classes imply one another, such that neither can exist in splendid isolation and
that the existence of one implies the existence of the other (often that
conclusion is based on the 'Master-Slave Dialectic' in Hegel's work -- although
that will be subjected to considerable doubt
later on). But, no
one even gestures in the direction of trying to show that this is the case with
wealth and poverty under capitalism. Of course, it is (always) assumed to be the case
that wealth for some implies poverty for others, but even for die-hard DM-fans,
the link is stillcausal
-- wealth creates poverty under capitalism, and it does so for well-known
historical, economic and social reasons. Dressing these terms in pseudo-logical/'dialectical' finery can't change that fact -- even if it does succeed in
mystifying something that has clear social and material roots.
But,
even if that weren't so, none of it makes sense in DM-terms, since wealth and
poverty don't "struggle" with one another, nor do
they change into each other, which they should do if the
DM-classics
are to be
believed. So, and once again: whatever else the link between wealth and poverty
(under capitalism) actually is, it can't be 'dialectical'. Dialectical
Marxists' own classic texts confirm it!
The basic problem here, of course, revolves around the
anthropomorphism implicit in the idea that concepts can enter into
struggle with one another (which they will have to do if they form a
'dialectical contradiction' or are 'dialectical opposites' -- again if the
DM-Classicists are to be believed). This form of mystification (i.e., this
anthropomorphism) surfaces as part of the belief that
because wealth and poverty are opposites they are actively oppositional
and cause or initiate struggle, in andof themselves. On this account, it is the opposite/oppositional
nature of concepts that creates or induces struggle; they become
agents in their own right, as if they were human beings themselves. But, in reality material conditions
are what motivate the individuals/class-fractions/unions
affected by them to enter into struggle. Only by confusing a causal with a conceptual
connection can DM even seem to gain some purchase -- that is, if this is what
Dialectical Marxists mean by any of this. But, as we have seen, this entire thesis is
a consequence of
the RRT and LIE (which was also a conclusion
reached in Part One
of this Essay).75
It could be objected that DM-theorists don't disagree with this, even though
they would add that these material forces are "dialectically
inter-linked". Hence, no Dialectical Marxist of any sophistication thinks that concepts can,
ofthemselves, cause change or initiate struggle, only that the
material roots of struggle are mediated by the ideas people form of their
circumstances and the contradictory interests these generate, or even from which
they emerge.
Worded
differently (with reference to 'dialectics' excised), this wouldn't be inconsistent with anything written in these
Essays or at this site, since it involves concepts drawn from HM.
Nevertheless, if the above is meant to illustrate the real meaning of F50, we would once more
have an example of the effects of the effects being used to illustrate the action of a
force or set of forces. That impasse was criticised at length earlier.
F50: Capitalism offers A, but delivers
C instead, where C is
a paradoxical outcome.
However,
Dialectical Marxists
might further object to the accusation that they also believe that concepts enter into
conflict with one another. They would surely point out that that might vaguely
represent how Hegel
saw things (if worded more carefully -- or, to be honest, more obscurely!). By way of contrast, they emphasise the fact that it is real people, and real
forces in the material world that enter into conflict.
But,
when the language Dialectical Marxists use is examined, the allegation that
they anthropomorphise nature and society by projecting human qualities
onto both forces itself upon us (no pun intended).
[On this, seeInterlude Thirteen.]
An
animated contrast of some sort that is imagined to exist
between such deadconcepts seems plausible only because they are
viewed as the idealised equivalents of the real relations between human
beings, reified in an inappropriate metaphysical or linguistic form. Human
beings give life to the concepts they use, but under circumstances not always of
their own choosing, and they do so as a result of their practical activity modified
and shaped by contemporaneous class and social relations. The reverse process doesn't take place
(at least not for those who aren't born again Hegelians!).
'Concepts' don't give life to human relations, although their use by human agents can
affect the roles they play or assume in everyday life. They can certainly modify the
ideas that individuals from antagonistic classes form of their own material
interests, etc. Unless we suppose concepts are agents in their own right (in an inverted Hegelian form
of some sort or description -- whereby they perhaps walk the earth in place of human
beings, or they take over human minds like a virus!), they can't 'reflect' anything that human beings haven't already sanctioned for them
as a result of their own social relations
(and by
means of the above constraining factors). History is, after all, the result of the class war;
it isn't a result of the struggle between concepts.
[Dialectical Marxists might be tempted to object that the above is a travesty of their theory;
once again: no
Dialectical Marxist of any intelligence believes that concepts enter into
struggle with each other. That objection
has already been tackled.]
As should seem clear,
these remarks are based on theoretical considerations drawn from HM, which
is precisely where that scientific theory can provide the interpretative
sophistication that DM obscures and inverts in an idealised, fetishised form.76
This shows, once again, that the inversion DM-theorists say
they inflicted on Hegel's system was, at best, merely formal --, at worst,
completely illusory.
Nevertheless,
it could be objected once more that the above accusations are totally unfair because it was
in fact Hegelian and Marxist dialecticians who first pointed out that FL
is itself based on fixed and lifeless concepts, which means it can't explain change
or account for the fluid nature of reality. Quite the opposite in fact.
Unfortunately, the
truth is
that it is DM-theorists who employ concepts that come to life only
when they are
anthropomorphised and then viewed as the abstract expression of conflict
(i.e., in effect they become the fetishised analogues of social forms, as we have
seen -- for
example, in Interlude Thirteen). This
unwelcome fact is
revealed,
for example, by the activity of Dialectical Marxist themselves -- i.e., by their the profligate use of words like "contradiction" and
"negation" in connection with natural
processes, and now in relation to social change
(on
that, see Interlude Ten).
By way of contrast, a
rejection of this fetishistic approach to language (promoted at this
site) re-humanises concepts by revealing them for what they are:
the conditioned products of social relations among human beings. So, in HM, in place of the fetishised
theories/concepts we find in DM, we have concepts enlivened by human practice,
expressed in the material language of ordinary life (indeed,
as Marx enjoined). In this way, it is possible
for our description and analysis of the social world itself to become fully humanised -- a small but
important step in the fight to make it fully human.
Once again, if this is regarded as unfair or inaccurate,
the reader is referred back to:
(i) Essay Three Part One (for example, here
and here), where
the linguistic moves in Ancient Greece that underlie this pernicious form of Idealism were
exposed;
(ii) Essay Three
Part Two, where the roots of the
abstract DM-approach to theory were traced back to traditional ruling-class, Idealist
forms-of-thought;
(iii) Essay Two, where
the dogmatic and Idealist nature of DM was laid bare;
(iv)
Essay Four, where the anthropomorphic
nature of DL was revealed;
(v)
Essay Five, where
the confused nature of the
language Engels used (to depict motion) was
debunked;
(vii) Essay Eight Part One,
where further aspects of this
anthropomorphic doctrine were unmasked;
(viii)
Earlier sections of
this Essay, where the
imposition of Hegelian concepts on nature was shown to be
openly
animistic; and,
(ix) Essay
Seven Part Three, where is was
shown that DM itself can't cope with change, and that, if per impossibile,
it were true, change would be impossible.
(x) Essays Twelve and
Fourteen (summaries here
and here), where
these sordid ideas are traced back to ancient, ruling-class forms-of-thought that
no self-respecting socialist (or historical materialist) should want to touch, even with someoneelse'sbargepole.
Indeed, it
has been a theme underlying every Essay posted at
this site that the application to nature of concepts drawn from
Hermetic
Philosophy (via Hegel) has branded DM as an irredeemably Mystical and
Idealist Theory; and,
further, that this has only succeeded in compromising the scientific status of HM. Anyone who still
takes exception to the claim that Dialectical Marxists use animistic concepts drawn from
Hermetic Philosophy (where conflict was openly re-configured
in linguistic terms,
subsequently projected back onto nature and society) should feign no
surprise when that is where this sorry
tale has in
fact been heading all along.
[This will
be one of the main issues tackled by Essay Twelve Part Four.]
The
solution is, therefore, for recalcitrant comrades to stop complaining and
then begin pointing
their fingers in the right direction: at the DM-classicists who imported these
"ruling ideas" (upside down or 'the right way up') into Marxism.
[HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, also
depending on the context; HCD =
High Church
Dialectician -- follow the link for an explanation; LOI = Law of Identity;
LOC = Law of Non-Contradiction.]
[This
used to form part of
Note 70.]
Scott Meikle makes a valiant attempt to argue that some sort of sense can be made of the idea
that there are 'dialectical contradictions' operating in capitalism.
His case
revolves around a short and relatively clear account of the alleged
'contradiction' between
use-value and exchange-value -- or, more specifically, between the "relative
form" and the "equivalent
form" of value -- found in
Volume One,
Chapter One, of
Das Kapital.
Now, I don't want to enter into whether or not Meikle's interpretation of Marx
is accurate; my only concern here is whether he can explain how and why the
relation between the relative and the equivalent form of value is a
'dialectical contradiction'. Moreover, since Meikle's comments are typical of
the way that many Dialectical Marxists both argue and use language in this area -- and, indeed,
how they conceptualise 'contradictions' supposedly at work in HM (this is especially
true of characters drawn from the HCD-tendency)
--, an detailed examination of his
argument will help illustrate where many
of them descend into a irredeemable confusion.
[Of course, in
what follows
I am well aware that many will take issue over Meikle's specific interpretation of Marx,
or with some of the more detailed points he makes -- or even with his
entire approach. I will, however, be looking at the work of others who have tried
to make sense of a 'dialectical' interpretation of Das Kapital (with the
word
"dialectical" understood,
not in its classical,
but in its post-Hegelian sense) in
a later re-write of this Essay. Until then, readers are directed to the
discussions here
and here.]
Here is how Meikle
initially approaches the topic:
"All the contradictions of capitalist
commodity-production have at their heart the contradiction between use-value and
exchange-value. Marx reveals this contradiction to lie at the heart of the
commodity-form as such, even in its simplest and most primitive form.... The simple form of value itself contains
the polar opposition between, and the union of, use-value and exchange-value....
[Marx writes that] 'the relative form of value and the equivalent form are two
inseparable moments, which belong to and mutually condition each other...but at
the same time they are mutually exclusive and opposed extremes.' Concerning the
first he observes that the value of linen can't be expressed in linen; 20 yards
of linen = 20 yards of linen is not an expression of value. 'The value of linen
can therefore only be expressed relatively, that is in another commodity. The
relative form of the value of the linen therefore presupposes that some other
commodity confronts it in the equivalent form.' Concerning the second: 'on the
other hand, this other commodity which figures as the equivalent, can't
simultaneously be in the relative form of value.... The same commodity can't,
therefore, simultaneously appear in both forms in the same expression of value.
These forms rather exclude each other as polar opposites.' This polar opposition within the simple form is
an 'internal opposition' which as yet remains hidden within the
individual commodity in its simple form: 'The internal opposition between
use-value and exchange-value, hidden within the commodity, is therefore
represented on the surface by an external opposition,' that is the relation
between two commodities such that one (the equivalent form) counts only
as a use-value, while the other (the relative form) counts only as an
exchange-value. 'Hence, the simple form of value of the commodity is the simple
form of the opposition between use-value and value which is contained in the
commodity.'" [Meikle (1979), pp.16-17. Italic emphases in the original;
paragraphs merged.]76a
But, what evidence
(or argument) is there to show that these are
"polar opposites", let alone that they are 'dialectically-united'? Or,
indeed, that there is a distinction here with a difference? And, why call this a
"contradiction" to begin with? But, like so many others, Meikle neglected to
say; he was nevertheless happy to help himself to the use of that word.
[There is, however, a
relatively clear attempt to justify its use in Heilbroner (1980),
pp.29-58, but more specifically, pp.41-42). I have examined Heilbroner's
interpretation,
below. Readers should note that I am
not questioning Marx's use of non-dialectical terms, such as "relative form" and
"equivalent form" [RF and EF, henceforth]. I
have also discussed his use of the word "contradiction"
here.]
Nevertheless, as we will see in
Essay Eight Part Three, this way of talking is based solely on Hegel's egregious
misconstrual of the 'negative form' of the LOI
as equivalent to the LOC. [The bogus nature of Hegel's 'derivation' was exposed
in that Essay,
here.] So, what has Meikle
got to offer the bemused reader that stands some chance -- any chance
-- of
filling the gaping hole Hegel himself left in his misbegotten 'theory'?
Apparently, only this:
"Marx's absolutely fundamental (Hegelian) idea
[is] that the two poles united in an opposition necessitate one another ('belong
to and mutually condition each other')...." [Ibid., p.19. Bold emphasis
added.]
Apart from
the fact that Meikle signally fails to explain how the LOI and a 'negative form
of the LOC' are in any way connected (according to Hegel), the question arises: what precisely is the source of this necessitation? Well,
after a brief discussion of
Quine's
ill-considered theory of 'logical necessity' -- which, it is worth
pointing out, confuses 'logical necessity' with extremely well-confirmed
empirical veracity, thereby running-together epistemology with logical (a
startling error for a leading logician to commit!). But,the inference between these two 'concepts'
-- RF and EF-- is surely immune from the reduction of logical necessity to
empirical confirmation in the above manner, since that inference itself
can hardly be a well confirmed empirical truth,Quine having dreamt it up only a few generations ago,
and upon
which few, if any, scientists have done any work. Certainly Meikle
offers none. In that case, we are still owed an explanation of the necessity
involved here that does not depend on mere assertion.
By way of
response, Meikle rejects the idea that the source of necessity
can be found in
logic as such:
"So, 'logical necessity' does not promise to
account for the necessity that unites opposites within a contradiction. The
unity of use-value and exchange-value within the commodity is certainly not
something which, despite all necessitation between the two poles, may be
abrogated (on Quine's conventionalist account). Not, that is, without
'abrogating' the commodity itself; for the commodity is precisely the unity of
use-value and exchange-value. Use-value can exist alone. But exchange-value
can't; it presupposes use-value because only what has use-value can have
exchange-value. What has exchange-value, a commodity, is, thus, necessarily
use-value and exchange-value brought into a unity. The commodity-form of
the product of labour has as its essence the unity of the two. That is
what it is. Their conjunction or unity constitutes its essence." [Ibid.,
p.22.Bold emphases alone added.]
However,
Meikle has just admitted that "Use-value can exist alone". But that means
it can't be a 'dialectical concept'. Unlike the paradigmatic 'dialectical
relation' between the proletariat and the capitalist class -- neither of which can't exist alone and both of which imply
each other (so we are told)
--
here we have use-value which can exist in splendid isolation. In what way is the relation between use-value and exchange-value 'dialectical' if one of these (use-value) can exist
without the other, and hence one of which (use-value) doesn't imply the
other? But Meikle also claimed that these two, use-value and exchange-value,
necessitate each other, "the
two poles united in an opposition necessitate one another". But, if
use-value can exist alone it clearly doesn't necessitate exchange-value.
Meikle might not have noticed this, but
he has just torpedoed Marx's theory!
More to the
point: Can exchange-value exist where there is no use-value? What about antiques?
They seem to have an exchange-value but many don't
have a use-value. Same with most works of art and other collectables (such as
stamps and old coins). And can't criminals exchange useless items in order to
launder money?
[I have raised these and similar objections in more detail,
here. Readers are invited to see how the Dialectical Marxists (with whom I
was discussing this) disagree with each other (like
Christians disagreeing
over 'Holy Communion'), and
flounder in their attempt to respond to me on this topic. Added on Edit:
I have now posted the relevant sections of that 'debate' to Appendix C, where I also manage to
substantiate my claim that use-value and exchange-value canboth
exist in splendid isolation from each other. That doesn't mean Marx's theory
crashes and burns; it does mean that in the hands of DM-fans it very well
could!]
Ignoring
those fatal defects, too, even if Meikle were
100% correct, why isn't
this just a de
dicto (that is, why isn't this merely a verbal) necessity? Like
the connection between the meaning of "week" and the meaning of "seven days".
"Use-value and exchange-value are, therefore, not
'merely' abstractions arrived at in thought about reality; they are constituents
of reality in partaking in the essence of the commodity. And the opposition or
contradiction between the two poles is a constituent of reality also, (although
in the simple commodity or value-form it appears only primitively in the
fact that the same commodity can't act simultaneously as relative and as
equivalent form of value)." [Ibid., p.22. Bold emphasis alone added.]
But,
whateverelse is true of these value-forms, how can they
'contradict' one another if they can't co-exist -- i.e., if they
can't "act simultaneouslyas relative and as equivalent form of value"?
As we saw earlier:
"'The value of linen
can therefore only be expressed relatively, that is in another commodity. The
relative form of the value of the linen therefore presupposes that some other
commodity confronts it in the equivalent form.' Concerning the second: 'on the
other hand, this other commodity which figures as the equivalent, can't
simultaneously be in the relative form of value.... The same commodity can't,
therefore, simultaneously appear in both forms in the same expression of value.
These forms rather exclude each other as polar opposites.' This polar opposition within the simple form is
an 'internal opposition' which as yet remains hidden within the
individual commodity in its simple form: 'The internal opposition between
use-value and exchange-value, hidden within the commodity, is therefore
represented on the surface by an external opposition,' that is the relation
between two commodities such that one (the equivalent form) counts only
as a use-value, while the other (the relative form) counts only as an
exchange-value. 'Hence, the simple form of value of the commodity is the simple
form of the opposition between use-value and value which is contained in the
commodity.'" [Ibid., pp.16-17.
Bold emphasis alone added; paragraphs merged.]
"The relative
form and the equivalent form are two intimately connected, mutually dependent
and inseparable elements of the expression of value; but, at the same time, are
mutually exclusive, antagonistic extremes -- i.e., poles of the same expression.
They are allotted respectively to the two different commodities brought into
relation by that expression. It is not possible to express the value of linen in
linen. 20 yards of linen = 20 yards of linen is no expression of value. On the
contrary, such an equation merely says that 20 yards of linen are nothing else
than 20 yards of linen, a definite quantity of the use value linen. The value of
the linen can therefore be expressed only relatively -- i.e., in some other
commodity. The relative form of the value of the linen presupposes, therefore,
the presence of some other commodity -- here the coat -- under the form of an
equivalent. On the other hand, the commodity that figures as the equivalent
cannot at the same time assume the relative form. That second commodity is not
the one whose value is expressed. Its function is merely to serve as the
material in which the value of the first commodity is expressed. No doubt, the expression 20 yards of linen = 1 coat, or 20 yards of linen are
worth 1 coat, implies the opposite relation. 1 coat = 20 yards of linen, or 1
coat is worth 20 yards of linen. But, in that case, I must reverse the equation,
in order to express the value of the coat relatively; and, so soon as I do that
the linen becomes the equivalent instead of the coat. A single commodity
cannot, therefore, simultaneously assume, in the same expression of value, both
forms. The very polarity of these forms makes them mutually exclusive." [Marx and Engels
(1996), pp.58-59. Bold emphases added; paragraphs merged.]
"We saw in a former chapter that the exchange of
commodities implies contradictory and mutually exclusive conditions. The
differentiation of commodities into commodities and money does not sweep away
these inconsistencies, but develops a modus vivendi, a form in which they can
exist side by side. This is generally the way in which real contradictions are
reconciled. For instance, it is a contradiction to depict one body as constantly
falling towards another, and as, at the same time, constantly flying away from
it. The ellipse is a form of motion which, while allowing this contradiction to
go on, at the same time reconciles it." [Ibid.,
p.113. Bold emphasis added.]
[I have
dealt with what Marx had to say about elliptical motion earlier in this Essay, taking into account a recent article by Tom
Weston -- on that, see here,
here,
here,
here,
here, and
here. I have also criticised the
"mutually exclusive" criterion below.
I will be tackling Weston's claim that this passage can be recruited in support
of the belief that
Marx accepted the idea that there is a 'dialectic in nature', in a future
re-write of Essay Seven Part One.]
If
EF and RF "mutually exclude" one another,
how can they both exist at
the same time? And this mutual exclusion isn't just logical, it is
ontological; here is Marx again:
"[T]he
commodity that figures as the equivalent cannot at the same time assume the
relative form. That second commodity is not the one whose value is expressed"
[Ibid. Bold emphasis added.]
So, EF and RF can't co-exist. If so
how can they 'contradict' (in the sense that they actively oppose)
each other?
On the other hand, if both
somehowmanage to co-exist, so that they can 'contradict' one another, how can one of them "exclude" the other?
[We have already seen this insurmountable barrier
block earlier
attempts to explain what 'dialectical contradictions' are, how they are supposed to
inter-relate and interact.]
Of
course, it could be argued that the concept of one of these forms both implies
and excludes that
of the other, perhaps by definition. But to do that we would have to ignore
the ontological point Marx made!
If we ignore
this latest 'difficulty', and it is argued that mutual exclusion here
follows from some sort of logical or definitional principle, this would still
only be a de dicto,
not a de re,
necessity. That is, this would simply be a verbal necessity. But, in that
case, it might well be wondered how a merely verbal necessity can have an
effect on the economy. That would be like imagining that the linguistic fact
that there are fifty-two weeks in a year can have a physical effect on
the speed the Earth orbits the Sun! If that were so, and we now stipulated there
were only fifty-one weeks in a year, it would mean the Earth would have to speed
up as a result! As should seem obvious, it is the orbital speed of the Earth
around the Sun that affects the number of weeks we say there are in a year, not
the other way round. Undeniably, these two factors are connected (i.e., how many
weeks we say are in a year is connected with how fast the Earth travels around
the Sun), but that connection isn't two-way. Indeed, had human history
unfolded differently, a week (or whatever might have replaced it) could have
been defined as lasting fourteen days, and a year twenty-six weeks. These are
verbal conventions humans adopted, and they were based on a range of
contingent factors (religious, agricultural, mathematical, and scientific,
to name just four); none were determined by nature even if they are constrained
by it. Hence, they are de dicto, at best. [Some might wonder how
mathematical and scientific factors could (correctly) be described as
contingent. The contingency here follows from the other factors involved. For
instance, had the religious input been different, ten might have been preferred
to seven when the length of a week was determined. While mathematics isn't
itself contingent, the choice of numbers is -- as we have just seen, it
is contingent on the development of human history. Something similar (but far
more complex) also affects scientific input -- as we will see in Essay Thirteen
Part Two. See also the comments about
Saul Kripke,
below.]
[A de re
necessity is one that is supposed to 'exist in reality', not merely in thought
or simply in language.
Ruben (1979), wrestles manfully, but unsuccessfully, with recent attempts to
argue there is a 'third type of necessity', which is weaker than de re
necessity but stronger than mere regularity/constant-conjunction (and/or Humean
attempts to explain causal necessity along what can only be called psychological
lines, on 'habits of mind' and 'expectations'); i.e., so-called "physical necessity"
-- and
which isn't de dicto necessity. An analogous theory is also aired in Madden and
Harré (1975). I will cover this topic (and these authors) in detail in Essays Three Part Five and
Thirteen Part Two. See also
here.]
Otherwise, this would be a real
exclusion and not merely verbal, in which case the two halves couldn't
co-exist -- indeed, as Marx
clearly
indicated, earlier. Consider a different example: the class of proletarians and
capitalists mutually condition and exclude one another, but one of these can't exist
without other, so we are told. However,
this sense of "exclude" isn't one of
opposition (even though it can and does leadto opposition), which is what
was required. This use of "exclude" here means that no member of one class can
belong to the other class; that is, there is no one who is a member of both classes at the
same time. [This alleged
'contradiction' will be examined in a future re-write of Essay Eleven
Part Two.] Once more, this sort of
exclusion doesn't imply opposition. In order to derive that conclusion
-- i.e., opposition from exclusion -- more is required than mere exclusion. After all, if an organism is a tulip, that excludes it from being an
elephant. But does that imply opposition? Or conflict? Hardly.
Of course, this introduces issues connected with
Kant's concept of "real negation",
a theory subsequently adopted but then rendered completely obscure
by Hegel's introduction of 'determinate negation' (covered in Essay Three
Part One). However, as we have
already seen, Hegel dropped
the ball on this one (to put it mildly!), so his contribution no help at all. Quite the reverse in
fact. [I
have dealt with Kant's rather confused ideas on this topic in Appendix A.
I will return to consider "real exclusion" when I focus on Heilbroner's arguments
later in
this Essay.]
Even so,
none of this is the case
with commodities (so we are told), where the same factor can and must be
present in
each instance: as relative form of
value and as equivalent form
of value --
but apparently not at the same time. That is, this simply means these two are both forms of value
-- i.e., they belong to the same category, whether or not they co-exist:
"'[T]he relative form of value and the equivalent form are
two inseparable moments, which belong to and mutually condition each other...but
at the same time they are mutually exclusive and opposed extremes.'... [T]he opposition or
contradiction between the two poles is a constituent of reality also, (although
in the simple commodity or value-form it appears only primitively in the
fact that the same commodity can't act simultaneously as relative and as
equivalent form of value)." [Meikle (1979), pp.17, 22, quoting Marx,
loc cit. Bold emphasis alone added; paragraphs merged.]
So,
the implication of the phrase "mutually exclude", applied in the present case,
is that these two factors are not just mutually exclusive, they can't
co-exist -- otherwise the phrase itself does no work or fails to mean
anything in such a context. Hence, "mutually exclude" used this
way refers to what does or does not
exist at the same time (or even what can or can't co-exist simultaneously), not
just "must belong to different categories or sets". But that is totally unlike the
relation between capitalist and worker, who have to
co-exist, so we are told.
[Marx
is quite clear:
"A single commodity cannot, therefore,
simultaneously assume, in the same expression of value, both forms." [Loc
cit.] So, for Marx, these two forms of value
can't co-exist.]
Once again, if
the EF and the RFcan't co-exist, how can they
possibly 'contradict' one another in a 'dialectical' sort of sense? How can they
struggle with and then turn into each other? Meikle neglected to say.
[I have yet
to encounter a single DM-fan who is prepared to address this gaping hole in
their theory -- not that any of them have even spotted it! And, as far as can be determined, no one else has
addressed it, either. In fact, I have raised this incongruity with several comrades,
including one prominent Marxist
Professor of Economics (as
noted earlier), who, in an email response told me to "Eat sh*t and
die!" Or, failing that, "Drink some
Hemlock" -- for
the heinous crime of even thinking to ask such 'blasphemous' questions!
Questions he clearly couldn't answer, and which had never so much as occurred
to him! Who says 'dialectics' paralyses the brains of those whom it colonises? At
this point, Max Eastman's words come to mind, again:
"Hegelism is like a
mental disease -- you cannot know what it is until you get it, and then you can't
know because you've got it." (Eastman
(1926), p.22.)]
Meikle has either
failed to notice this serious flaw in his theory -- or he thinks the answer is
so obvious he needn't bother covering it.
It isn't.
Putting this 'difficulty' (also!) to one side for now, why is
this 'necessity' not merely the result of a determination to use the
relevant words in certain ways? Why is this
not simply a de dicto necessity?
[In fact, it is a bit rich of Meikle to employ
the ideas he drew from Quine's
theory to
criticise logical necessity -- all the while still promoting de re
(real world) necessity -- when Quine himself would have taken an even dimmer
view of such necessities himself. (On Quine's ideas in this area, see the references listed
here).]
Of course, this has become a hot topic ever since
Saul Kripkeupset the de dicto apple cart a generation or so ago. [Kripke (1977,
1980).] Hence, it is no surprise to see Meikle appeal to Kripke's work to
buttress his claim that these aren't merely de dicto, but are also de re,
necessities.
Unfortunately, Kripke's arguments aren't quite as sound as Meikle seems to
think. [On this see, Dupré (1993), Ebersole (1982), Hallett (1991), and Hanna
and Harrison (2004), pp.278-88. See also this entertaining article by Jerry
Fodor --
Fodor (2004).
There will be much more on this in Essay Thirteen Part Two, when it is
published sometime in 2027.]
Nevertheless, in support,
Meikle draws attention to a (by now) hackneyed series of examples:
"The commodity is the unity of use-value and
exchange-value, in precisely the same way that water is H2O,
that light is a stream of photons, and that Gold is the element with
atomic
number
79. All these statements are necessarily true. They state truths that are
true of necessity, not in virtue of any logical or 'conceptual' connexions, but
in virtue of the essences or real natures of the entities in question. Water is
necessarily H2O.
Anything that is not H2O can't be water..., and the 'can't' is ontological not epistemic.... We did not
always know this, of course; it was a discovery people made about the
essence of water (and one which may need to be recast if future theoretical
development requires it)." [Meikle
(1979), pp.22-23. Italic emphasis in the
original.]
The Gold example isn't too clever,
either, since its
Atomic Number
depends on our counting system (and on the number of
protons/electrons
the element possesses -- and
Gold
has many different
isotopes
which have variable numbers of
neutrons). So why isn't this
'necessity' simply de
dicto? It could be argued that the
Atomic
Number of an element defines it as a "natural
kind".
Hence, in this case,
only Gold has Atomic
Number 79. Once again, Gold has at least 19 isotopes -- 18 of which are
radioisotopes (i.e., they are radioactive and varyingly unstable -- one is stable), so, unless we are prepared to classify all 19
of these isotopes (all of which have different properties) as part of the same
natural kind, an appeal to the Atomic Number is of little use in this respect.
It could be
argued in response that all and only Gold atoms have an Atomic Number 79.
In that case, we might just as well include, say, all vertebrates in the same
natural kind on the grounds that all and only vertebrates have vertebra.
Moreover, as with all the other elements, Gold doesn't exist anywhere in an absolutely
pure state (since, in all known cases it appears in its ionic form (on
that, see below), and with various
'impurities'), but that doesn't stop us calling it "Gold". Hence,
there are substances that even scientists call gold, all of whose ions
don't have an Atomic Number 79, since any such sample will contain other ions
with different Atomic Numbers.
Of course,
this won't stop determined necessitarians from insisting that Atomic
Numbers still define natural kinds -- the only 'problem' here
is that this 'natural kind' appears nowhere in nature, so far as we know.
A 'natural kind' that isn't natural. That makes sense! If Pure
Gold doesn't exist in nature (so far as we know), how can it be a natural kind?
It is only in the
abstract world of Traditional Philosophy that Gold is Absolutely Pure Gold.
Not too
natural then, is it?
The 'light' example isn't too
convincing, either, since there
are scientists who question the existence of
photons.
They could hardly do that if light was necessarily a de re, or
even a de dicto, stream of photons. And, of course, light is also a wave
(so we are told), hence it isn't true that light is a stream of photons.
And now we are told that
there are no
such particles; they are all just "disturbances in the field"!
[However, there are other, far more
serious problems than this when defining 'theoretical objects', like photons, electrons and
protons. They will be explored in Essay Thirteen Part Two, when it
is published.]
The water example is even worse, since water isn't even contingently
H2O!Hydrogen bonding means its structure is far more complex. Indeed, because both
Hydrogen and Oxygen, like Gold, also have several isotopes (Hydrogen, for example, exists as
Deuterium
and Tritium,
and there are
three
stable isotopes of Oxygen), not even these elements are 'natural
kinds'. Furthermore, just like Gold, no elemental atom
of Hydrogen
actually exists in its atomic form in nature (as far as we know). Hydrogen atoms invariably exist in
ionic form -- again, so
far as we know.
The theory (that Kripke and
Putnam advanced) is
that the word "water", for example, "rigidly
designates"
H2O,
even though the overwhelming majority of those who have ever lived on this planet
were totally unaware of this
supposed fact. However, as a result of the above considerations (and those
outlined below)
not even chemistsare actually referring to
H2O when they use
the word "water"! Because of the aforementioned isotopes and
hydrogen bonding
they
tell us water is H2nOn
-- or it is also D20, D4O2,
D6O3,...,
D2nOn,
etc., etc. ["D" is the abbreviation for "Deuterium".]
Moreover,
(i) Because of impurities and ionisation (etc.),
pure water (as
H2O)
is nowhere to be found on earth, or anywhere else for that matter (as far as we
know!);
(ii) Much
that isn't water is also H2nOn,
etc. -- for instance, ice, steam, and the liquid usually comes out of your tap
or the contents of the bottle of water you just bought at the store -- both contain
'impurities', as well as other atoms/molecules that aren't hydrogen-, or oxygen-based, or which are compounds of
still other elements). Moreover, the liquid in most ponds, lakes, seas and oceans is also
water, but it definitely isn't just
H2O; and,
(iii) A molecule of
H2O
possesses none of the physical properties of
water: (a) it isn't a liquid, (b) it doesn't boil at 100oC,
(c) it doesn't have a
density of 0.99707, (d) it has no surface tension, (e) it can't extinguish a fire,
wash your clothes, hose your car, water your lawn, quench your thirst or entertain your kids in a
water-pistol fight or in a paddling pond. So, a lone molecule of
H2O isn't water in any sense of the term.
Hence, not only does the word "water" not refer to
H2O,
it can't refer to it!
It could be argued that Kripke merely claimed that the following
is the case:
K1: If water is H2O,
then water is necessarily H2O.
However, K1 would be true even if its antecedent
were false -- and we already know it is false. [Just as the hypothetical, "If 2 is odd,
then 2+2 is necessarily odd" is true even though the antecedent is false.]
But, despite Kripke, even if the
above weren't the
case, why this isn't just a de dicto necessity is still far from clear.
[On this and other serious difficulties
confronting
Essentialism --
versions of which theory Kripke and Putnam were trying to sell -- see VandeWall (2006). See also van Brakel (2000), and Hacker (2007), pp.29-56.]
It could be argued that Meikle actually had this base
covered, too, when he added the following remarks:
"[I]t was a discovery people made about
the essence of water (and one which may need to be recast if future theoretical
development requires it)." [Meikle (1979), loc cit. Italics
in the original.]
But,
if such things can be revised, that just makes them epistemic truths and not the
least bit essential or de re, 'ontological' (unless we also allow trivial
revisions to count -- on that,
see here). [And, as we have
just seen, there is in fact no 'essence' of water!]
However, let us assume for the moment that these 'difficulties'
can be 'ironed out' in some way, somehow -- although, in Essay Thirteen
Part Two we will see even that isn't a viable option. There it will be
shown that contemporary Essentialism
is a confused dead end, at best.
[In addition, Essentialism also faces
the serious objections I have raised against all forms of 'Ontology' in Essay Twelve
Part One.]
So,
and once again, even if we assume the above 'problems' can be defused in some way, Meikle's
theory faces further difficulties, not the least of which is the fact that in
order to work, the sort of
Essentialism he
lionised depends on at least one from of
Possible
World Semantics [PWS] itself being true. Admittedly, Meikle hade some
attempt to down-play this
untoward implication (pp.23-25), but in so doing he only succeeded in
undermining the case he had
just constructed in support of his strain of Essentialism.
[In other
words, this turns de re necessities into empirical, contingent,
non-necessary,
truths! In that case, they would simply be true in all possible worlds, not that
they have to be true in those worlds -- the latter of which conditions would
apply if they were de re necessities. They just happen to be true across
all possible words, which means there would be no contradiction if in some
possible world they just so happened not to be true. A de re necessity,
if this were one such,
would rule that out conclusively. But that would be to assume what
was to be proved!]
This latest
fatal defect will also be put to one side (for the present).
[However,
interested readers might like to consult
this paper, which outlines several serious objections to modern-day
Essentialism -- but, it comes with a health warning attached: the article defends an
Aristotelian version of the same doctrine!]
In addition, I
won't be asking (here) other awkward
questions about the precise origin of 'natural necessities' like this -- or how they can
possibly cause change -- but the following passage (taken
from Part One)
will provide the reader with some idea of how it is to be tackled, later:
A passage from Baker and Hacker (1992)
underlines the futility of this aristocratic approach to knowledge
(although they don't use that particular word, and are not making
any
political points) -- which, incidentally, also
reveals why dialecticians (like Rees and the others quoted
here) have become fixated on a futile search for a metaphysical (and thus ultimately rational) "why" of things:
"Empirical,
contingent
truths have always struck
philosophers as being, in some sense, ultimately unintelligible. It is not that
none can be known with certainty…; nor is it that some cannot be explained….
Rather is it that all explanation of empirical truths rests ultimately on brute
contingency -- that is how the world is! Where science comes to rest in
explaining empirical facts varies from epoch to epoch, but it is in the nature
of empirical explanation that it will hit the bedrock of contingency somewhere,
e.g., in atomic theory in the nineteenth century or in
quantum mechanics
today. One feature that
explains philosophers' fascination with
truths of Reason
is that they seem, in a
deep sense, to be fully intelligible. To understand a necessary proposition is
to see why things must be so, it is to gain an insight into the nature of
things and to apprehend not only how things are, but also why they cannot be
otherwise. It is striking how pervasive visual metaphors are in philosophical
discussions of these issues. We see the universal in the particular (by
Aristotelian intuitive induction); by the Light of Reason we see the essential
relations of
Simple Natures; mathematical truths are
apprehended by Intellectual Intuition, or by
a priori insight. Yet instead of examining the use of these arresting
pictures or metaphors to determine their aptness as pictures, we build
upon them mythological structures.
"We think of necessary
propositions as being
true or false, as objective and independent of our minds or will. We
conceive of them as being about various entities, about numbers even
about extraordinary numbers that the mind seems barely able to grasp…, or about
universals, such as colours, shapes, tones; or about logical entities, such as
the
truth-functions or (in Frege's
case) the
truth-values. We naturally think of necessary propositions as
describing the features of these entities, their essential characteristics.
So we take mathematical propositions to describe mathematical objects…. Hence
investigation into the domain of necessary propositions is conceived as a
process of discovery. Empirical scientists make discoveries about the
empirical domain, uncovering contingent truths; metaphysicians, logicians and
mathematicians appear to make discoveries of necessary truths about a
supra-empirical domain (a 'third
realm'). Mathematics seems to be the 'natural history of
mathematical objects' [Wittgenstein
(1978), p.137], 'the physics of numbers' [Wittgenstein (1976), p.138; however
these authors record this erroneously as p.139 -- RL] or the 'mineralogy of
numbers' [Wittgenstein (1978), p.229]. The mathematician, e.g.,
Pascal,
admires the beauty of a theorem as though it were a kind of crystal.
Numbers seem to him to have wonderful properties; it is as if he were
confronting a beautiful natural phenomenon [Wittgenstein (1998), p.47; again,
these authors have recorded this erroneously as p.41 -- RL]. Logic seems to
investigate the laws governing logical objects…. Metaphysics looks as if it is a
description of the essential structure of the world. Hence we think that a
reality corresponds to our (true) necessary propositions. Our logic is
correct because it corresponds to the laws of logic….
"In our eagerness to ensure
the objectivity of truths of reason, their sempiternality
and mind-independence, we slowly but surely transform them into truths that are
no less 'brutish' than empirical, contingent truths. Why must red exclude
being green? To be told that this is the essential nature of red and green
merely reiterates the brutish necessity. A proof in arithmetic or geometry seems
to provide an explanation, but ultimately the structure of proofs rests on
axioms. Their truth is held to be self-evident, something we apprehend by
means of our faculty of intuition; we must simply see that they are
necessarily true…. We may analyse such ultimate truths into their constituent
'indefinables'. Yet if 'the discussion of indefinables…is the endeavour to see
clearly, and to make others see clearly, the entities concerned, in order that
the mind may have that kind of acquaintance with them which it has with redness
or the taste of a pineapple' [Russell
(1937), p.xv (this links to a PDF); again these authors record this erroneously as p.v;
although in the edition to which I have linked, it is p.xliii -- RL], then the
mere intellectual vision does not penetrate the logical or metaphysical
that to the why or wherefore…. For if we construe necessary
propositions as truths about logical, mathematical or metaphysical entities
which describe their essential properties, then, of course, the final products
of our analyses will be as impenetrable to reason as the final products of
physical theorising, such as
Planck's constant."
[Baker and Hacker (1992), pp.273-75. Referencing conventions in the original
have been altered to conform with those adopted at this site. Italic
emphases in the original; links added.
This passage doesn't appear in the 2nd
edition of this book -- i.e., Baker and Hacker (2014), pp.241-370 -- even
though similar ideas are expressed there.]
As
should be clear from all that has gone
before, DM-theorists have bought into this view of 'necessary truths' (even if
few of them use that particular phrase -- although Lenin and
Dietzgen
seem to have been rather fond of it; more on that in a later Essay).
For example,
Dialectical Marxists in general locate
the cause of
change in
the relation they believe holds between 'internally-linked' (logically?) opposite properties of objects and
processes. But, why this should cause change is left entirely unexamined.
Indeed, it is
left as a
brute fact, and, as the above passage suggests, it must remain brute.
In which
case, it is
just a fathomless fact about the world that 'contradictions' cause change. No further
explanation is necessary. Move on...
This
account of change is plainly a consequence of a certain way of
describing the world (and in a fetishised form, too), as we
will discover in Essay
Twelve Part One.
Nevertheless, as we have alreadyseen, there is no reason why contradictory states of affairs should cause
change any more than there is a reason to suppose that non-contradictory states
should, either. Both options rely on certain descriptions of the
presumed, or even the imposed,
relations that are imagined to exist between objects and processes -- but not on evidence
since: (i) No further explanation is possible, and (ii) It is impossible to
verify or confirm their
existence. Such descriptions supposedly capture or picture processes in nature
and society that are
thought
capable of making other objects or processes change or 'develop'. Again,
how
or why they are able to do that is permanently left as a brute fact.
Even an appeal to 'contradictory forces' --
in order
to explain why things change -- simply involves yet more objects
and processes, more brute facts, none of which adds anything to the
'necessitation' that such an account promised, and now requires. In the end,
these forces depend on
certain descriptions of them being translated into the vocabulary of
QM (or some other branch of
Physics), and hence into
another set propositions expressing even more brute facts! When asked why forces
must do what they do (or even why a
Field, for instance, is capable of making anything
happen) the only
response possible is: "They just do.... It's just a fact about
forces/fields/...". Indeed, as should seem plain,
Differential Equations,
Hamiltonians,
Matrices and the
Kronecker Delta can't actually move anything about the
place, or even deflect a single particle from its path.
[QM = Quantum Mechanics.]
Moreover, the infinite regress (or
even the "bad
infinity") DM-theorists hoped to
avoid by appealing to 'internal contradictions' now reappears elsewhere in
their theory. When the details are filled-out, DM just connects 'objects
and processes' to yet more 'objects and processes'
-- or, to be more honest, this is achieved via yet more obscure words about 'objects and processes'
--
as well as 'negations', 'opposites', and 'interpenetrations', and the like (i.e., yet more "brute facts",
either about the world or about how human beings are supposed (by
dialecticians) to think and talk), 'internal' to still other 'objects and processes'.
In all this, the necessitation that
had originally been sought simply vanishes in an impenetrable fog of jargon (which leads "who
knows where?"). In this regard, the logical or 'rational' foundation for knowledge
(supposedly offered by Dialectical Marxists) turns out to be no different in form from any
other concocted by
Traditional Metaphysicians. In place
of the reasons we were promised (i.e., the "why and the how" of things), all we find are
yet more
DM-'objects and processes'(or, again, yet more
obscure words about what they think are 'objects and processes') -- except, these have now been shunted off into a
mysterious, 'abstract realm', fluffed-up with a handful of vague terms-of-art (such
as "mediation", "unity in difference",
"internally related", "thing-in-itself"), of convenient and
permanent unintelligibility,all of which possess impressive Idealist credentials.
While DM-theorists promised the world a brand
new set of explanations, all they end up delivering is a batch of
shop-soiled goods
imported from
Traditional Philosophy, comprised
almost entirely of jargonised expressions, masking the 'brute facts' hidden beneath
--
indeed, as Lenin himself acknowledged:
"The history of philosophy and the history of
social science show with perfect clarity that there is nothing resembling
'sectarianism' in Marxism, in the sense of its being a hidebound, petrified
doctrine, a doctrine which arose away from the high road of the
development of world civilisation. On the contrary, the genius of Marx consists
precisely in his having furnished answers to questions already raised by the
foremost minds of mankind. His doctrine emerged as the direct and immediate
continuation of the teachings of the greatest representatives of
philosophy, political economy and socialism. The Marxist doctrine is omnipotent because it is true. It is comprehensive
and harmonious, and provides men with an integral world outlook irreconcilable
with any form of superstition, reaction, or defence of bourgeois oppression. It
is the legitimate successor to the best that man produced in the nineteenth
century, as represented by German philosophy, English political economy and
French socialism." [Lenin,
Three Sources and Component Parts of Marxism. Bold emphases alone
added; paragraphs merged.]
Despite this, how does Meikle address the problem of
change? Indeed, how does he introduce (active, not passive) opposition?
"The poles of an opposition are not just united.
They also repel one another. They are brought together in a unity, but within
that unity they are in tension. The real historical existence of the product of
labour in the commodity-form provides an analogue of the centripetal force that
contains the centrifugal forces of the mutual repulsion of use-value and
exchange-value within it." [Meikle (1979), p.26.]
Well, the first point is that opposition here is simply asserted,
it isn't derived logically or conceptually. In which case, at best, this appears to be just another
brute fact and hence not the least bit necessary, as we had been led to believe.
Unfortunately, there are so many metaphors in the above passage it isn't easy to
make much sense of it (are we really supposed to conclude this is all so
'scientific' because of the use of terms like "centripetal force", even if they
are metaphors?). Anyway, it is clear that Meikle has
reified the products of social relations (e.g., use-, and exchange-value, etc.),
and, in this reified state, they have become the actual agents, with
human beings (or, perhaps, even commodities themselves) the patients. How else
are we to understand the word "repel", here? Do these factors actually repel each other (like
two North Poles of a magnet, or two positive electric charges)? Or, do we do all this 'repelling' because of the way we
manufacture use-values and then exchange them?
[Incidentally, I am using the word "patient" here in its older sense;
that is, it relates to that which is acted upon, not that which acts.]
More to the point, do these "opposites" show any sign of turning into
each other? Does use-value
struggle with, and then change into, exchange-value -- as the
DM-classics assure us
they must?
Independently of this,
it is also worth asking: How can the forms that underpin use-, and
exchange-value (i.e., EF and RF,
from earlier) provide any sort of analogue of
the forces Meikle requires? If forces are to act on other forces, or on other
bodies, they need to fulfil a handful of crucial pre-conditions, the most important of which is
that they should at least
have the decency to exist (or even co-exist). But, as we have seen, EF
and RFcan't
co-exist. So, other than conceptually, how can they possibly repel, or provide the wherewithal for other
objects and processes to repel, anything?
That is, of course, the
non-dialectical rock upon which we have
seen all such Idealist flights-of-fancy repeatedly flounder.
It could be argued that these 'repulsions' occur in our thought
about the simple commodity form. But, even then, they still can't co-exist,
for if they could, they wouldn't "mutually exclude" one another! On
the other hand, if they genuinely do "exclude" one another, we can't even think
of them acting on one another, for if we were to think of both at once,
we
would of necessity be misconceiving them -- i.e.,
according to Marx. We saw
earlier that mutual exclusivity here isn't like that which supposedly
exists between two classes -- for instance the proletariat and the
capitalist class -- which have to co-exist. According to Marx,
mutual exclusivity means they can't co-exist.
Or, are we
supposed to imagine there is some sort of wrestling match taking place in our
heads such that, when we think of one of these factors it elbows the other out of the way?
[Or is that out of
existence?] Perhaps then, depending on circumstances, we could declare EF
the winner over RF by two falls to a submission (UK
rules)?
Furthermore, even if,
in thought, EF and RF could co-exist, that would be of little help since it
would make a
mockery of Meikle's appeal to de re
necessity. This retreat into the Ideal leaves him with two 'seriously
undernourished de dicto skeletons' shadow boxing each other instead of
the 'robust
de re pugilists' we had originally been promised.
Of course,
it could be objected that the fact that something is an RF excludes it
from being an EF. That is where the opposition
arises; the one is the opposite of the other. [That
objection was fielded earlier.]
But, "opposite" isn't the same as "oppositional", as we have
also
already seen.
Despite this, it could be
maintained that these are opposite poles of the
same kind -- that is they both qualify the commodity form. But,
"commodity" isn't a specific term (unlike "domestic cat", which is
species-specific), it is generic (that is, it is a general term applying to many
different kinds of use-values, just as "mammal" relates to many different
families, genera and species).
And we have
also seen: if an organism is a tulip,
that excludes it from being an elephant, but it does so without implying (active
or passive) opposition
-- and
"organism" is a generic term, too.
So, we still
lack a derivation of opposition
from exclusion; the mere assertion that the former implies the
latter clearly doesn't constitute proof. Furthermore, even if, contrary to Marx,
they do co-exist, EF and RF don't
confront and then fight it out inside
each and every commodity. They would have to co-exist to
"repel" one another, too; RF can't "repel" EF
if EF fails to show up. And RF isn't capable of preventing EF
from existing, either.
[Any of my
readers who think something that does exist is capable of preventing
something that doesn't yet exist from beginning to existis invited to explain to me (in detail)
how that is possible.]
Of course,
it could be argued that RF might block a series of events that would, if
left alone, lead to EF coming into existence. However, that supposition takes us
back to an earlier line-of-thought
(here repeated):
Ω7:
Let there be an event set, E, consisting of sub-events, E1-En,
which would all take place, or would all have taken place, had force, P, not
stopped things at the Ei-th stage.
Ω8:
In the normal course of events, let each event, Ei,
cause the next event,
Ei+1.
Ω9: However, Ei+1
failed to occur because P prevented
Ei
causing it.
Ω10: Hence, P contradicted
Ei.
However, if
the above were now revised to accommodate that pro-DM rejoinder, we would now
seem to have the following:
Δ1:
Let there be an event set, E, consisting of sub-events, E1-En,
which would all take place, or would all have taken place, had RF not
stopped things at the Ei-th
stage.
Δ2:
In the normal course of events, let each event, Ei,
cause the next event,
Ei+1.
Let these events also be stages in the development of the very last
event/stage.
Δ3: Let the Ei+1
event/stage be
where EF would have emerged (i.e., when and
where it might begin to exist).
Δ4: However, Ei+1
and hence EF,
failed to occur because RF prevented
Ei
causing it.
Δ5: Hence,
RF contradicted
Ei, thereby "repelling" EF.
But,
as we saw earlier, there is no way
this could be a 'dialectical development' -- whatever else it turns out to be --,
otherwise RF would have to change into Ei
-- i.e., into that with which is has 'struggled' and thereby 'contradicted'
(according to the DM-classics, link below) --,
and Ei
would similarly have to change into RF --
if the DM-classics are to be believed. Furthermore, do any of these
'struggling' and "repelling" factors imply each other, like the proletariat and
the capitalist class are supposed to do, and which has to be the case with a
'dialectical relation'? If so, Dialectical Marxists have been unwisely secretive
about such details for well over a century.
Is there a
way out of these
Dialectical
Quicksands? Meikle thinks
there is:
"But in its simple form, the commodity is an
unstable equilibrium. It is pregnant with possibilities, which history may
present either with the conditions for the realisation of these possibilities,
or with the indefinite variety of conditions that will frustrate their
realisation. Given the right conditions, the embryo will develop its
potentiality; and the simple form of value will undergo the metamorphoses that
will take the commodity from its embryo through infancy to early adolescence
with the attainment of the universal form of value, money." [Meikle
(1979), p.26.
Bold emphases added.]
It now turns
out that
metaphor is all Meikle has to offer
his bemused readers in support of his attempt
to make this mysterious process comprehensible. Apparently, commodities are like embryos
that 'self develop' (what else can the above 'pregnancy' metaphor mean?), in the right circumstances,
and outside the womb. But,
surprisingly, in this case commodities give birth to money, not human beings! Or, is it
that the commodity form succeeded in mesmerising human beings into inventing money? Once again,
if that were the case,
we would be the patients while those
metaphorical beings (i.e., these disembodied 'commodities'/'embryos') would be the agents
of social change!
In which case,
given this approach to the economy, 'self-developing concepts' do finally constitute the Real
and power is development, just as Idealists have
been trying to tell us for centuries...
How else is it possible to understand the above passage?
[There is a
faint echo of Leibniz's "monads" in what Meikle has to
say (which he (Leibniz) regarded as a logical extension to Aristotle's concept
of substance (ousia) -- on
that see here,
here,
here, and
here). Given Leibniz's
theory, while we might think we
control various objects and the events they cause (or the processes in which they find themselves
embroiled --, or
even the bodies with which
they interact), the truth is they control themselves. That is because,
deep down, all bodies are composed of countless self-motivated,
self-propelled
(logical) beings, miniature intelligences whose 'necessities' follow from the fact that
they 'contain' every predicate that is, has been, or ever will be true of them.
(This is a call-back to the
containment metaphor Leibniz also utilised.)
So, in relation to the issues at hand in this Essay, while we might think that commodities
posses or imply exchange-, and/or use-values
because of their relationship to human activity, in reality (according to
Meikle's metaphor) commodities
possess an intrinsic value that forces us to employ them in the way we
end up utilising and conceptualising them. But, in order to do that, it
looks like these 'self-motivated commodities' must have coerced or bamboozled our ancestors into inventing money,
and now control how we use commodities and theorise them! As we will
soon see, that
interpretation of Meikle's theory isn't as crazy as might first seem.]
Is there any way of re-configuring this theory so it can be
rescued from the jaws of the 'concept shredder' before
the switch is thrown? Well, Meikle turns to
Aristotle
for assistance; but before he does, he (in effect) concedes the truth
of the above observations, for it seems that these value forms do indeed
force humans to do their bidding; or, if we take note of the last
sentence, it looks like money actually managed to reach back in time (clearly
operating as some sort of final cause)
to
force, cajole, con or bamboozle humans into viewing and exchanging commodities the
way we now do. [More on that presently.]
"This line of development is not accidental or
fortuitous; it is not a process of aggregating contingent and extraneous
additions. It is, rather, a process of development of the potentialities within,
and the increasing differentiation of, an original whole. If history does not
block the growth of exchange activity, then that growth will find out the
inadequacy of the simple form of value. Then, looked at from the point of view
of
efficient causation, those engaged in that activity, being rational and
inventive in the face of the problems thrown up by their developing class
interests, will act so as to solve their practical difficulties by measures that
overcome that insufficiency to the requirements of their developing commerce.
The solution to their practical problems is the money-form.... Looked at from the point of view of
final causation, money is the final cause of this phase of social development." [Ibid., pp.26-27. Bold emphases added.]
Now, this either means that:
(i) Those involved in the
invention of money were hapless puppets of these (pre-existing) value forms; or,
(ii)
The above individuals
had a clear understanding of the nature of use-, and exchange-value, which
must at least have been the equal of Marx's -- but more than two-and-a-half
thousand years before he was born --, so that they
could make the 'correct' series of rational choices that sent the economy off in
the 'right direction'.
Otherwise, how could these value
forms exercise any sort of causal influence on those who invented money?
As we have already seen:
"But in its simple form, the commodity is an
unstable equilibrium. It is pregnant with possibilities, which history may
present either with the conditions for the realisation of these possibilities,
or with the indefinite variety of conditions that will frustrate their
realisation. Given the right conditions, the embryo will develop its
potentiality; and the simple form of value will undergo the metamorphoses that
will take the commodity from its embryo through infancy to early adolescence
with the attainment of the universal form of value, money." [Ibid., p.26.
Bold emphases added.]
At this
point, it might well be asked: doesn't this
'embryonic pantomime' make dangerous concessions to
teleology,
to
'final causation'?
No problem;
as we have just seen, Meikle tackled that unexpected difficulty head-on:
"Looked at from the point of view of final
causation, money is the final cause of this phase of social development. This is
not to say that final causation is a form of efficient causation in which the
future acts on the past, such that the developed form beckons from the future to
the past less developed form; rather, the embryonic entity has a structure that
develops, if it develops, along a certain line. Thus, final causation and
efficient causation, here, are not mutually exclusive but mutually supportive:
the one explaining the emergence of the other, and the other the success and
development of the one. What we have here is a development that, barring
accidents, will take its course -- an evolution that is necessary; its final
form immanent as a potentiality within its original one." [Ibid., p.27.Bold
emphases added.]
Fine words, but merely asserting that
final and efficient causes are "mutually supportive" won't
cut mustard. How is
it possible for
"the future [to act] on the past"?
Meikle resolves this conundrum by telling us that "the embryonic entity has a
structure that develops, if it develops, along a certain line".
And yet,
this solves nothing, for,
as we saw earlier, it seems to mean some sort of
plan must have been programmed into these commodities that 'determined'
how they should --, indeed, must -- develop, rather like a fertilised
seed or egg has a genetic code that does likewise (so we are told) -- suspicions concerning which have only been
strengthened by Meikle's frequent use of
embryonic language and rather peculiar references to pregnancy.
[When were
these commodities fertilised? That, of course, implicates this view of social development with other,
well known ancient
and mystical ideas connected with belief in the Cosmic or
Orphic Egg (a topic briefly mentioned in
Part One of this Essay, and again
in Essay Eleven Parts One
and Two, but more
fully in Essay Fourteen Part One (summary
here)). And,
as we will see in a later re-write of Essay Eight Part Three, this represents a
core anthropomorphic (Leibnizian/Hegelian) principle of development, which is, of course,
part of the reason why Dialectical Marxism itself is inherently teleological.
Flipping Hegel through 180ş (even supposing that is what happened, and is ven
possible) in no way neutralises the
teleology that suffuses
his entire system --
Hegel (1999), pp.735-54. (The first of these links to a PDF.)]
But,
perhaps we are once again being a little too hasty, since Meikle now introduces the
aforementioned Aristotelian concepts in order to neutralise these 'untoward difficulties':
"The necessity that Marx sees in the line
of development of the value-form is that which Aristotle contrasts with events
that are 'accidental' and it is bound up with organic systems and Aristotle's
conception of ousia. Where there is
constant reproduction there is a whole system, an ousia." [Ibid., p.27.
Italic emphasis in the original.]
"[E]verything that happens phusei, 'by
nature', happens always or for the most part, but nothing that happens apo
tuches, by 'chance', or apo tautomatou, 'just of itself', happens
thus frequently. Therefore, no natural events are thus purely accidental, and
therefore all natural events are non-accidental. But all non-accidental events
are heneka tou, 'serve some purpose', are given sense by their ends....
The fact that rain is always being produced makes it impossible to doubt that
there is an organic system here, and such systems are 'finalistically'
identified. To answer the question 'what is it?' we must reply in terms of its
natural line of development...genesis, the process of coming-to-be, is what it
is because ousia is what it is, and not vice versa." [Clark
(1975), pp.60-61, quoted in Meikle (1979), pp.27-28. Bold emphasis alone added.]
In
this we see several indirect but unmistakable references to 'divine providence',
accompanied by a quite distinct, but nonetheless nauseating, stench of
Christian Mysticism, which once again helps explain why so many DM-fans
(especially those who hale from the
HCD-wing
of Dialectal Mayhem)
revert to open and honest mysticism so often and so readily. Indeed,
this tendency (to drift into some form of disreputable 'god-seeking' among
erstwhile revolutionaries) is no big surprise given Marx's
opinion of Philosophy in general:
"[P]hilosophy is nothing else but
religion rendered into thought and expounded by thought, i.e., another form
and manner of existence of the estrangement of the essence of man; hence equally
to be condemned...." [Marx
(1975b), p.381. I have used the on-line version, here. Bold emphasis
added.]
Unfortunately,
such linguistic chicanery -- of the sort we find in Meikle's article (and in DM-literature
in general) -- fails to solve the problem, for the necessities required by
Dialectical Marxists only work if we are prepared to
anthropomorphise nature. That is
because, as soon as it is asked why events can't proceed otherwise than they in
fact do, it becomes obvious (from the above) that certain objects and events exercise
some sort of control over other objects and events that do not yet exist
-- which is problematic in
itself, clearly since the latter don't exist to be acted upon or be controlled(!)
--, thereby directing them, ensuring they develop along the right "natural line" (which is why Meikle
found he had to use that phrase). Either that, or objects and events develop in "line" with
their 'entire concept', in accordance with the complete
list of predicates that has somehow been
programmed into them (ŕ la Leibniz).
The bottom
line to all this Mystical Musing is that "no natural events are...purely accidental, and
therefore all natural events are non-accidental" (Meikle, loc cit). And
this, too, is quite clearly the point of all that talk about "ends" and
"purposes" in both Aristotle and Leibniz's theories; they
formed part of an
overtlymystical doctrine -- the nature of which
Meikle totally ignores -- that only works if nature is controlled by some
sort of 'Mind', as Aristotle certainly believed.
[Or, it is populated with 'tiny minds',
'programmed' by 'God' to behave the way they do -- as Leibniz himself imagined.]
So, for both theorists (and hence also for Hegel), there are no accidents in
nature (or society); everything is 'totally determined' -- even your thoughts
and actions, dear reader.
[But this is
just Hegel's 'Cosmic Calvinism', again!
Philosophy and religion neatly paralleling one another -- again, just as Marx
tried to tell us. (I have covered this in more detail in Essay Three Part Two,
here.)]
So, it is worth emphasising, once again:
Dialectical Marxists can only make their
'theory' even seem to work if they adopt the a priori
thought-forms concocted by earlier
ruling-class hacks and card-carrying Mystics.
[Aristotle and Plato are in fact the two most important figures in this respect,
with Leibniz and Hegel on the substitutes' bench.] Meikle has plainly nailed his colours to this
'mystical mast';
hence, if nature has a purpose (set by some 'Deity'/'Mind', or other) -- as it has for
Hegel, Aristotle and
Leibniz -- then that implies the status
quo must be in harmony with that purpose, or, it is perhaps developing toward it. And, if that is so, the status
quo can't legitimately be challenged. Indeed, if that were the case, the future
would be as
completely determined as any self-respecting Second International
devotee could ever have dreamt.
In which case,
the rule
of
the
elite isn't 'accidental', either, but serves some rational,
'God-ordained end' (and we all know
what that is), which, again, implies human beings are merely puppets of 'history',
there being no such thing as 'human agency' in such a universe. History, money, or the
commodity itself, is the agent here; we are simply helpless marionettes:
Figure Thirteen: Are We Controlled By
'Embryonic Commodities'?
Are We Just 'The Playthings Of
History'?
Or,
so Meikle's ill-conceived metaphors would seem to suggest.
The reader
will no doubt
now appreciate more fully why I asserted
this back in Essay Two:
As
will soon become apparent, for all their claims to be radical, when it
comes to Philosophy
DM-theorists are
surprisingly conservative -- and universally incapableof
seeing this even after it has been pointed out to them!
At a
rhetorical level, this conservatism is camouflaged behind what at first sight
appears to be a series of disarmingly modest denials --,
which are then promptly flouted.
The
quotations listed...in
Note 1 show that DM-theorists are anxious to
deny that their system is wholly or even partly
a priori, or that it has been imposed on
the world, not merely read from it. However, the way that dialecticians actually
phrase their theories contradicts these superficially modest-looking claims,
revealing that the opposite
is in fact the case.
This
inadvertent dialectical inversion -- whereby what DM-theorists say
about what they do is the reverse of what they actually do
with what they say -- neatly mirrors the distortion to which Traditional
Philosophy has subjected ordinary language over the last two millennia (outlined in Essays
Three Parts
One and
Two, and Twelve Part
One), a point underlined by Marx himself:
"The
philosophers have only to dissolve their
language into the ordinary language, from which it is abstracted, in order to
recognise it, as the distorted language of the actual world, and to
realise that neither thoughts nor language in themselves form a realm of their
own, that they are only manifestations of actual life." [Marx
and Engels (1970), p.118. Bold emphasis alone added.]
However, unlike
dialecticians, Traditional Metaphysicians were quite open and honest about what
they were doing; indeed, they brazenly imposed their a priori theories on
reality, and hung the consequences.
But,
because dialecticians have a novel (but nonetheless defective) view of both
Metaphysics and FL (on that, see
here and
here), they are oblivious of the
fact that they are just as eager as Traditional Theorists have always been to
impose their ideas on the world, and equally blind to the fact that in so-doing
they are aping the
alienated thought-forms of those whose society they seek to abolish.
Naturally, this means that their 'radical' guns were spiked before
they were even loaded; with such weapons, it is no wonder that DM-theorists
fire nothing but philosophical blanks.
[FL = Formal Logic; DM = Dialectical
Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context.]
DM is
a conservative theory precisely because its adherents have imported, and
then adopted, the
distorted methods,
a priori
thought-forms, theories and obscure jargon of Traditional Philosophy.
[This topic was
discussed at length in Essay Three
Part Two; the reader is referred
there for further details. It will be covered again in Essay Three Part
Five, but from a different angle. (No pun intended!) The theoretical background to all this will be analysed more fully in Essay Twelve
Parts Two and Three (summary
here).]
Of course,
Meikle (along with Dialectical Marxists in general) should have paid closer
attention to Marx's word, when he warned us not to take philosophical jargon
too seriously (which is also why he told us
he merely "coquetted"
with Hegelianisms in Das Kapital):
"[A]nd even, here and there,
in the chapter on the theory of value, [I] coquetted with the mode of
expression peculiar to him [Hegel]." [Marx (1976),
p.103. Bold emphasis added.
I have used the punctuation that appears in
Marx and Engels (1996),
p.19.]
"The philosophers have only
to dissolve their language into the ordinary language, from which it is
abstracted, in order to recognise it, as the distorted language of the actual
world, and to realise that neither thoughts nor language in themselves form a
realm of their own, that they are only manifestations of actual life."
[Marx
and Engels (1970), p.118. Bold emphasis alone added.]
Now, there are far better ways than this
to make
sense of Das Kapital; there is no need to appeal to Leibnizian, or
even mystical Hegelian, concepts to make it work. [I will, however, leave that to another time.
One attempt has already been made in that direction: Rosenthal (1998).]
It might
seem to some that an effective response to the above could be constructed along
lines suggested, for example, by
Roslyn
Bologh:
"A contradiction occurs when a term refers to two mutually
exclusive things, A and not-A. This is the case with the category, exchange
value. It is both a use value and not a use value. A commodity has a calculable
exchange value regardless of the demand or the need for it, i.e., regardless of
any use value. Hence, in determining exchange value, all consideration of use
value is excluded. On the other hand, in order to realize its exchange value,
the commodity must have a use value." [Bologh (1979). Bold emphasis alone
added.]
However, Bologh's 'definition' of "contradiction" leaves much to be desired;
in fact, it
looks suspiciously like it was tailored to fit the examples chosen. In other
words, this is a Persuasive Definition. Independently of
that, the
definition itself is defective in its own right, not the least because, and once again, we aren't told
what these As are. Furthermore, Bologh seems rather confused, since this
'contradiction' occurs when a "term" refers to letters "A" and "not-A",
as opposed to 'dialectical opposites' in 'reality':
"A contradiction occurs when a term
refers to two mutually exclusive things, A and not-A." [Ibid.]
Nevertheless, Bologh's chosen example might help resolve that
'minor difficulty':
"This is the case with the category, exchange value. It is
both a use value and not a use value." [Ibid.]
So, the contradiction
here appears to be the following:
B1: Exchange-value is both a use-value and not a
use-value.
From
this it looks like these As are noun phrases (in this instance -- but we
have seen the denotation of 'dialectical' letters change faster than a set of traffic
lights on speed, so this particular denotation might need riveting in place) -- or they are what
such phrases supposedly
designate/'reflect'. Earlier we had
occasion to point out that when these As are interpreted as phrases (or,
again, when they are what is supposedly
designated by them), no contradiction is implied. But, Bologh might have
avoided this
difficulty by situating them in a propositional context.
However, the other things
Bologh says only succeed in undermining
the status of B1 as a genuine contradiction:
"A
commodity has a calculable exchange
value regardless of the demand or the need for it, i.e., regardless of any use
value. Hence, in determining exchange value, all consideration of use value is
excluded. On the other hand, in order to realize its exchange value, the
commodity must have a use value." [Ibid.]
This means that B1 actually becomes this:
B2: An exchange-value isn't a use-value when it
is being determined as an exchange-value, but it is a use-value when that
exchange-value has to be realised.
In other words, B1 becomes:
B3: Exchange-value is
A at
t1
and not A at t2
(t2
> t1).
[Here ">" here again means "later than".]
But, that is no more a contradiction than this
would be:
B4: Tony Blair was the UK Prime Minister but he
no longer is.
For B1 to be
a contradiction it would have to be something like this:
B5: Exchange-value is both a use-value and not a
use-value, at the same time and in the same respect.
It could be
objected that this completely misrepresents Bologh's
argument, since she explicitly says this (here the "it" refers to an
exchange-value):
"...A and not-A. It is both a use value and not a use value."
[Ibid., bold emphasis added.]
So, Bologh's
interpretation is the equivalent of B5 above. Hence, she is right to call this a
contradiction.
Or so it might be claimed...
However,
this latest pro-DM rejoinder failed to take account of the phrase at the end of
B5, namely:
"at the same time and in the same respect". This isn't a contradiction for two
important reasons
[1]
Bologh herself admits that an exchange-value can't be regarded as a use-value
and not a use-value at the same time, when she says this:
"Hence, in determining exchange
value, all consideration of use value is excluded. On the other hand, in
order to realize its exchange value, the commodity must have a use value."
[Ibid; bold emphasis added.]
If "all
consideration of use-value is excluded", that in no way implies use-value has
vanished or ceased to exist. It is just ignored or no account is taken of it. It
isn't to be imagined that a hammer, for instance, becomes totally useless when
its exchange-value is being ascertained. If that were so, it would have no
exchange-value! A useless hammer will have no exchange-value (as a
hammer). Indeed, Bologh admits this herself: "[I]n
order to realize its exchange-value, the commodity must have a use value."
Exchange-value is determined by other considerations, but not by use-value.
But use-value still exists! In that case, Option One shows this this
can't be a contradiction.
[2] For
something to count as a contradiction the letter "A" Bologh uses has to
have the same meaning when it is on its own and when it is prefixed by a "not".
That is the point of the "in the same respect" codicil.
The following
remarks might assist the reader more fully appreciate this point (re-quoted from
here, slightly edited):
Added by a supporter of this site ('Nemesis'):
At Marxism 1990, in separate meetings on dialectics I was given two,
three minute impromptu slots in the discussion period at the end. It is only possible to make highly superficial
points in such short intervals, which, because they challenge fundamental
ideas, are quite easy to dismiss. However, the level of argument advanced in response to
what I had said
was quite lamentable.... In the refectory [later], I engaged in
debate with Andy Wilson...who attempted unsuccessfully
to explain what a 'dialectical contradiction' is.
His example (that the revolutionary party both is and is not a part of the
working class) was easy to dispose of as an undischarged ambiguity. That is, the
revolutionary party is part of the working class in so far as..., while it isn't part of the working class
in so far as.... (Readers can fill in the blanks according to their own theory
of the party.) But this is no more a contradiction, let alone a 'dialectical
contradiction', than this would be: Das Kapital is part of my personal
library and not part of my personal library. It is part of my library in so far
as I have a copy of the book on my shelves. But, it isn't part of my library
in
so far as this particular book (i.e., the original) isn't
identical with any of its copies. So, the actual book Marx wrote (in
his own hand-writing) isn't on my shelves.... [Paragraphs merged. Compare this with the
examples Rosa gives of ambiguous pseudo-contradictions in Essay
Five,
or those given later on in this
Essay.] [Bold emphasis alone added.]
Filling in the missing "in so far as..." that Bologh omits, her
example is really of this form:
B6: Exchange-value is an A that is
F, but not an A
that is G.
Where the
phrase "in so far as..."
expands as follows:
B6a: Exchange-value is an A in so far as it is
F, but
not an A in so far as it is G.
Here, while
the letter "A" stands for "use-value", the letter "F" would go
proxy for something like "a necessary condition for a commodity to have an
exchange-value", and the letter "G" would stand for something like
"non-determinate of exchange-value" (or even "irrelevant when calculating
exchange-value"). In that case, B6a would become B6b (or something like it):
B6b:
Exchange-value is a use-value in so far as it is
a necessary condition for a commodity to have an
exchange-value,
but not a use-value in so far as the latter is irrelevant
when calculating exchange-value.
Consequently,
as soon as the ambiguity (and the confusion!) in Bologh's original Persuasive Definition has
been
discharged (via B6/B6a/B6b), we can see no
contradiction is implied.
Later in
the book, Bologh repeated the above 'definition' in a
slightly modified form:
"A contradiction occurs when a term means two mutually
exclusive things, A and not-A. A contradictory form of life is a
totality of opposing moments, moments that negate each other. This is the case
with the commodity in the form of capital." [Ibid., p.64.]
As we saw
earlier, it isn't too clear how these "moments" succeed
in "negating" each other. Does exchange-value "negate" use-value? Do objects
actually become useless at any point in this process? Do objects that have a
use cease to be exchangeable? Do they 'oppose' one another like the two
wrestlers we met a while back? But, they would have to do
one or more of these if
what Bologh has to say were the
case. We can go further: do use-values imply exchange-values, like the
proletariat implies the capitalist class (so we are told)? Do they change into
each other? I have yet to
encounter a Dialectical Marxist who thinks they do any of these. But, they would
have to so
if the relation between them is 'dialectical' (and if the
DM-classicists were to be believed). So, for the nth time, whatever else this is, it can't be a
'dialectical relation', which means it can't be a 'dialectical contradiction',
either.
In the next
few paragraphs following on from the above passage, Bologh did make an attempt to explain what she meant, but
those passages merely repeat what we have already seen, only with more obscure jargon
thrown in for good measure. [Readers are invited to check this for themselves,
if they can access her book!]
In fact,
this work is a classic example of the way that Marxist intellectuals and
academics think and reason: they all haphazardly
throw Hegelian jargon, unintelligible phrases and dogmatic
assertions at the page.
Convoluted prose
like this is de rigeur in
HCD
circles. HCDs dote on it and, as a result, they adamantly refuse to regard anything that isn't
drenched in such verbiage, that hasn't been drowned in
prolix
jargon, as 'genuine theory'. [A recent classic example of this (aristocratic) intellectual malaise can be found in
this
exchange. (I have used the word "aristocratic" here for reasons that will
become clear in Essay Twelve Parts Two and Three.)]
[I return to this theme in Essay Thirteen
Part Three. On
Quine, see Arrington and Glock (1996), Glock (2003), Hacker
(1996), pp.189-227. See also this
PDF (which is an article about Quine's method, written by
Peter Hacker).]
[FL = Formal Logic; DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, depending on the
context.]
Having said that, a genuine attempt was made a few years ago [Heilbroner (1980)] to try to render the term "dialectical contradiction"
at least comprehensible. Heilbroner's account, although not always
sympathetic to Marxism, has the distinct advantage of being much clearer
and than
the vast majority of Dialectical Marxists (who write on such issues) care to be -- or
even seem capable of being(!) --, especially when it comes to explaining what a 'dialectical contradiction' is.
To his credit, Heilbroner also does so in
a much less jargon-cloaked way, too.
However, after making a rather poor stab at defining a logical contradiction, Heilbroner
added the following thoughts:
"This kind of logical contradiction
is not, however, the meaning of contradiction that applies to dialectics. In
dialectics, the word does not refer to the simultaneous assertion and denial of
the existence of static things; instead it refers to the nature of those
conflicting elemental processes that are believed to constitute the essence of
reality itself. As a first rough description of what such a 'contradiction'
implies, we can resort to another famous Hegelian phrase -- 'the unity of
opposites'. Contradictions therefore refer to the idea that all of reality is
changeful because it consists, in its very innermost being, of the unstable
coexistence and successive resolution of incompatible forces.... Hegel gives us a famous example of
this...in his discussion of the terms Master and Servant. The very concept of
Master, he shows, implies the opposite of such a concept in the Servant, one who
is mastered. Without the idea of one, we cannot form the idea of the other,
although each idea 'by itself' is the contradiction (the 'negation,' in Hegel's
terminology) of the other. Note that this use of contradiction does not assert
that a Master 'is' and 'is not,' which would involve us in the same absurdity as
making that assertion about a stone. [This is a call-back to an earlier remark: "Thus, we cannot say that a
stone exists and that it does not exist, referring to the same stone at the same
instant." (p.34) -- RL] Rather, the point is that a Master is a being who can
only be defined or described by using a concept that is its meaningful opposite or
negation. Without Servants there are no Masters, and vice versa." [Heilbroner
(1980), pp.35-36. Italic emphasis in the original. Quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions
adopted at this site; paragraphs merged.]
What
we are still owed, however, is some sort of explanation why any of this constitutes a
contradiction. It isn't as if the following is true (as Heilbroner himself
acknowledges), "MM is a master and not a
master"; or even, "SP is a servant and not a servant".
[Where, as usual at this site, pairs of capital letters in bold, such as "MM"
and "SP", for proxy for Proper Names.]
Admittedly, as part
of our understanding of the word "master" (used in this way) we associate the
word "servant", just as we understand that a servant isn't a master
(although, as we will see, that isn't as clear cut as DM-theorists seem to
think). In that
sense then it would be true to say: "SP isn't a master" -- or more
generally "A servant isn't a master". But, not even thatis a contradiction,
so why such things have been called 'dialectical contradictions' is still far
from clear. [This is clearly connected with Kant's concept of 'real negation',
covered in
Appendix A. See also below.]
Figure Fourteen: Is DM Un-Roadworthy?
Are You Serious! It's 'Dialectically' Held Together
By Baling Wire And Duct Tape, And
Hence Perfectly Safe On The Road To Truth...
Of
course, DM-theorists are perfectly at liberty to call anything they like a 'dialectical
contradiction' (not that they need my permission or acquiescence -- but, on that, see
here); however, what they aren't entitled to do is claim this
ramshackle theory of theirs -- held together as it is by baling wire and duct
tape -- represents a 'superior form of logic' (compared with FL). That is
because this term ("dialectical contradiction") has been introduced by means of
a stipulation --
i.e.,
it amounts to
an imposition on the facts (by any other name). As such, it bears no connection with the criticism of
Aristotle's concept of a contradiction (which was at least supposedto be
a point of departure for
'Hegelian dialectics').
Of course, this means that Hegel and DM-theorists might just as well have
chosen "coffee grinder", and then have called their 'dialectical
contradictions', "dialectical coffee grinders" for all the good that would have done.
There seems to be just as much justification for
calling these 'manufactured contradictions', "coffee grinders", as there is for calling them
"dialectical contradictions".
[If
we throw in Kant's comments about 'real opposition', it might seem we could
construct
an acceptable rationale for linking these terms together, and hence for calling
such things "dialectical contradictions". That seemingly promising
'dialectical life-line' has been permanently cut, the rope incinerated, the
noose-tying manual trashed, in
Appendix A (link above),]
But,
Heilbroner adds the following thoughts which might appear to clarify things
somewhat:
"...[T]he presence of conflicts
within social processes does not in itself suffice to establish these conflicts
as contradictions. The social world, like the natural world, is full of
opposing forces, most of which have no more 'contradictory' significance than
the chance encounter of two particles.... Contradictions refer to those
oppositions that are both necessary for, and destructive of, particular
entities." [Ibid., p.39. Quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions
adopted at this site. Italic emphasis in the original.]
Quite
apart from still failing to explain exactly why the word "contradiction" is
appropriate
here, we have already seen in this Essay that no sense can be made of attempts to equate
'opposing forces'
with 'contradictions', at any level. So, the above words turn out to be no help at all.
Heilbroner now gets to the heart of the problem (which might seem to be
an effective response to many of the points made in the last few paragraphs):
"The difficulty arises, I believe,
because many critics continue to interpret 'contradiction' in its logical,
Aristotelian sense in which the contradiction (sic) of A is not-A. This easily reduces
dialectical usage to violations of sense and meaning.... But that is not the
meaning that contradiction holds as a relational view of the world. The logical
contradiction (or 'opposite' or 'negation') of a Master is not a Slave but
'not-Master', which may or may not be a slave. But the relational opposite of a
Master is indeed a Slave, for it is only by reference to this second 'excluded'
term that the first is defined." [Ibid., p.41.]
Once again, the above is a caricature even
of Aristotle's understanding of "contradiction", as we saw in
Essay Four,
but we can let that annoying 'niggle' slide for now. Independently of that, A can
only be part of an alleged contradiction (A and not-A) if it stood
for a proposition or a clause; but we can see that, according to
Heilbroner, "A" stands for "Master" and "not-A" for "not-Master",
two phrases! So, we don't even have a contradiction here, let alone
an example of the mutant
'dialectical' strain.
However,
Heilbroner's use of "excluded" calls to mind the words Marx used to characterise
the connection between RF and EF, we met earlier:
"The relative
form and the equivalent form are two intimately connected, mutually dependent
and inseparable elements of the expression of value; but, at the same time, are
mutually exclusive, antagonistic extremes -- i.e., poles of the same expression.
They are allotted respectively to the two different commodities brought into
relation by that expression. It is not possible to express the value of linen in
linen. 20 yards of linen = 20 yards of linen is no expression of value. On the
contrary, such an equation merely says that 20 yards of linen are nothing else
than 20 yards of linen, a definite quantity of the use value linen. The value of
the linen can therefore be expressed only relatively -- i.e., in some other
commodity. The relative form of the value of the linen presupposes, therefore,
the presence of some other commodity -- here the coat -- under the form of an
equivalent. On the other hand, the commodity that figures as the equivalent
cannot at the same time assume the relative form. That second commodity is not
the one whose value is expressed. Its function is merely to serve as the
material in which the value of the first commodity is expressed. No doubt, the expression 20 yards of linen = 1 coat, or 20 yards of linen are
worth 1 coat, implies the opposite relation. 1 coat = 20 yards of linen, or 1
coat is worth 20 yards of linen. But, in that case, I must reverse the equation,
in order to express the value of the coat relatively; and, so soon as I do that
the linen becomes the equivalent instead of the coat. A single commodity
cannot, therefore, simultaneously assume, in the same expression of value, both
forms. The very polarity of these forms makes them mutually exclusive." [Marx and Engels
(1996), pp.58-59. Bold emphases added; paragraphs merged.]
"We saw in a former chapter that the exchange of
commodities implies contradictory and mutually exclusive conditions. The
differentiation of commodities into commodities and money does not sweep away
these inconsistencies, but develops a modus vivendi, a form in which they can
exist side by side. This is generally the way in which real contradictions are
reconciled. For instance, it is a contradiction to depict one body as constantly
falling towards another, and as, at the same time, constantly flying away from
it. The ellipse is a form of motion which, while allowing this contradiction to
go on, at the same time reconciles it." [Ibid.,
p.113. Bold emphasis added.]
But, this
'exclusivity' falls foul of what Hegel and Engels argued elsewhere:
"Instead of speaking by the
maxim of Excluded Middle (which is the maxim of abstract understanding) we
should rather say: Everything is opposite.Neither in heaven nor in
Earth, neither in the world of mind nor of nature, is there anywhere such an
abstract 'either-or' as the understanding maintains. Whatever exists is
concrete, with difference and opposition in itself. The finitude of things will
then lie in the want of correspondence between their immediate being, and what
they essentially are. Thus, in inorganic nature, the acid is implicitly at the
same time the base: in other words, its only being consists in its relation to
its other. Hence also the acid is not something that persists quietly in the
contrast: it is always in effort to realise what it potentially is." [Hegel
(1975), p.174;
Essence as Ground of Existence,
§119.
Bold emphasis added. The serious problems this dogmatic and a priori
diktat creates for Hegel, which he nowhere tries to justify, are detailed
here.]
"To the
metaphysician, things and their mental reflexes, ideas, are isolated, are to be
considered one after the other and apart from each other, are objects of
investigation fixed, rigid, given once for all. He thinks in absolutely
irreconcilable antitheses. 'His communication is "yea, yea; nay, nay"; for
whatsoever is more than these cometh of evil.' For him a thing either exists or
does not exist; a thing cannot at the same time be itself and something else.
Positive and negative absolutely exclude one another, cause and effect stand in
a rigid antithesis one to the other.
"At first sight this mode of thinking seems to us very luminous, because it is
that of so-called sound common sense. Only sound common sense, respectable
fellow that he is, in the homely realm of his own four walls, has very wonderful
adventures directly he ventures out into the wide world of research. And the
metaphysical mode of thought, justifiable and even necessary as it is in a
number of domains whose extent varies according to the nature of the particular
object of investigation, sooner or later reaches a limit, beyond which it
becomes one-sided, restricted, abstract, lost in insoluble contradictions. In
the contemplation of individual things it forgets the connection between them;
in the contemplation of their existence, it forgets the beginning and end of
that existence; of their repose, it forgets their motion. It cannot see the wood
for the trees." [Engels
(1976), p.26. Bold emphasis added.
Quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions adopted at this site.]
"For a stage in the outlook
on nature where all differences become merged in intermediate steps, and all
opposites pass into one another through intermediate links, the old metaphysical
method of thought no longer suffices. Dialectics, which likewise knows no
hard and fast lines, no unconditional, universally valid 'either-or' and which
bridges the fixed metaphysical differences, and besides 'either-or' recognises
also in the right place 'both this-and that' and reconciles the opposites, is
the sole method of thought appropriate in the highest degree to this stage.
Of course, for everyday use, for the small change of science, the metaphysical
categories retain their validity." [Engels
(1954), pp.212-13.
Bold emphasis added.
Quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions adopted at this site.]
Plainly,
this would make Marx's economic
and social theory metaphysical, since his distinction between these two
forms of value isa hard and fast
dichotomy!
If RF and
EF
are mutually exclusive --
"A single commodity
cannot, therefore, simultaneously assume, in the same expression of value, both
forms. The very polarity of these forms makes them mutually exclusive...." --
we would have here a reasonably clear 'either/or'! On the other hand, if there is no exclusivity
in this case, the sort of 'dialectical relationalism' that Heilbroner
described falls apart. If no slave can exist without a master -- which would mean that MM,
say, was
either a slave or a master, not both -- then a core principle of
'Hegel's dialectic' disintegrates. On the other hand, if a worker can be
a boss as well as a worker, and a boss can be a worker as well
as a boss, too -- if the two main classes under capitalism aren't mutually
exclusive -- then Marx's social theory bites the very dust left behind by
Hegel's decomposed
corpse.
The
distinct advantage of attempts to clarify Hegel (like Heilbroner's) is that it is easy to
see where they go wrong -- which, ironically, explains why Hegel and his progeny
(and that includes Dialectical Marxists) prefer obscurity over clarity -- it
is so much easier to 'hide the bodies' that way!
[RF = Relative Form of Value; EF = Equivalent
Form of Value;
DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context..]
This
brings us to a consideration of a
'problem' that has been touched on several times throughout this Essay, but left
unresolved: if
the capitalist class and the proletariat imply
each other, such that one can't exist without the other, and both are mutually exclusive classes, then:
(a) Engels
should have labelled Marx's economic work "metaphysical" since, as we saw (at
the end of the last sub-section) it is based on an overt use of an 'either'/'or',
a hard-and-fast dichotomy -- for example, between RF and EF;
And,
(b)
There is a very clear distinction between the two classes such that,
concerning
any given wage-, or salary-earner, it should be clear to which class
they
belonged -- the proletariat or the bourgeoisie.
If this were
a logical question the answer to (b) would be crystal clear, but
it isn't. That is why -- for decades -- Marxists have spilt gallons of ink
attempting to define the proletariat and the capitalist class,
trying to specify exactly who falls into which category, often markedly disagreeing with each other.
So, is every white collar
worker a proletarian? What about the unemployed or the families of
proletarians? Their children, their partners, their retired grandparents? What
about strike-breakers, security guards, community police, those on zero-hour
contracts, unpaid interns or carers, 'self-employed'
gig-economy workers (Über
and Lyft
drivers, etc., etc.), or those who are perennially between jobs? What about individuals on
long-term stay in hospital or the terminally ill? What are we to say about those
who have taken a year off to do charity work in, for example, Borneo? To which
class do
public servants belong if their job tasks them with pressuring the unemployed or
the disabled to 'find work'? What about
members of the military (squaddies and those below officer rank)? What are we to
say about, cops, prison guards, immigration workers, or junior managers who
perhaps have a second job as bar-tenders or salespersons? What about
professional footballers, entertainers, rock-, media-, and film-stars? What
about pensioners? What do we say about those who work in public relations,
marketing, or advertising? What about workers who own shares? How do we classify
debt-collectors? What about bloggers and those who now
earn part, most or all
their income from social media (YouTube, TikTok, etc.)? And how do we classify
part-, or full-time sex workers? How does the unpaid
housework of "homemakers" (male, female or trans) fit into this paradigm? Or students who have part-time jobs?
What do we even say about 'professional revolutionaries' and party full-timers?
If
the class to which any -- or, indeed, all -- of the above belong were simply a
logical
question, and the connection between them and the capitalist class were even a 'dialectical-logical relation', the answer
should be
perfectly clear, just as it is clear
to which set of numbers,
π, for instance, belongs, or which grammatical category "to
run" is to be assigned. But, it isn't. Deciding which class a group or an individual belongs
is one of the thorniest areas of Marxist Theory and Practice. Any who doubt this should check
out
Callinicos (1983), and Callinicos and Harman (1987). I happen to agree with
much of what Callinicos and Harman have to say, but there will be many who
don't. Indeed, Callinicos even admitted that readers of Socialist Worker,
many of whom were
his own party comrades(!),
objected to his analysis! [Callinicos (1983),
p.87.] Clearly, it wouldn't be necessary to write such articles -- or even
publish books like
Wright (1985/1998, 1989/1998) -- if this were a plain-and-simple, logical
distinction. How many books and/or articles are there that tackle the knotty
problem whether vixens are, or aren't, female foxes -- or whether an hour lasts
for sixty or seventy minutes?
[Update October 2023: See also
this excellent video
(and my response to it in the comment section).]
"Class is not a fixed and positivistic position that can be defined by exact
boundaries. Rather, it is a social relationship, and individuals are always
bound within a mesh of different such connections. The result is a complex of
social tendencies, not static categories." [Quoted from
here; accessed 20/02/2021.]
But, not even Alexander attempted to derive one
class 'logically' from any other, or, indeed, from anything else. His reference to
"positivism" was slightly misleading since even he will have to refer to
empirical evidence at
some point in order to identify the relevant classes -- indeed, as Callinicos
and Harman did (in the studies mentioned earlier) -- and even if the classes or
the individuals concerned change while
he is doing so.
Unfortunately, Marx left us with no clear or comprehensive guidance on
this issue. Notoriously,
Volume Three of Das Kapital breaks off at this point, with the section
devoted to Classes
left
unfinished:
"The owners
merely of labour-power, owners of capital, and land-owners, whose respective
sources of income are wages, profit and ground-rent, in other words,
wage-labourers, capitalists and land-owners, constitute then three big classes
of modern society based upon the capitalist mode of production. In
England, modern society is indisputably most highly and classically developed in
economic structure. Nevertheless, even here the stratification of classes does
not appear in its pure form. Middle and intermediate strata even here obliterate
lines of demarcation everywhere (although incomparably less in rural districts
than in the cities). However, this is immaterial for our analysis. We have seen
that the continual tendency and law of development of the capitalist mode of
production is more and more to divorce the means of production from labour, and
more and more to concentrate the scattered means of production into large
groups, thereby transforming labour into wage-labour and the means of production
into capital. And to this tendency, on the other hand, corresponds the
independent separation of landed property from capital and labour, or the
transformation of all landed property into the form of landed property
corresponding to the capitalist mode of production. The first
question to he answered is this: What constitutes a class? -- and the reply to
this follows naturally from the reply to another question, namely: What makes
wage-labourers, capitalists and landlords constitute the three great social
classes? At first
glance -- the identity of revenues and sources of revenue. There are three great
social groups whose members, the individuals forming them, live on wages, profit
and ground-rent respectively, on the realisation of their labour-power, their
capital, and their landed property. However,
from this standpoint, physicians and officials, e.g., would also constitute two
classes, for they belong to two distinct social groups, the members of each of
these groups receiving their revenue from one and the same source. The same
would also be true of the infinite fragmentation of interest and rank into which
the division of social labour splits labourers as well as capitalists and
landlords -- the latter, e.g., into owners of vineyards, farm owners, owners of
forests, mine owners and owners of fisheries. [Here the
manuscript breaks off.]" [Marx
and Engels (1998), pp.870-71. Paragraphs merged.]
Engels edited this volume for publication after Marx
had passed away, but not even he was confident enough to add a few thoughts on
this issue.
In which case, the question now becomes: To whom does this comment apply: "Unpaid
surplus-labour is pumped out of the direct producers"? [Marx, quoted in Callinicos
(1983), p.82.] But, not every worker produces "surplus value" -- or do they?
That, too, is controversial! It is connected with what Marx called "productive
labour". Here is Callinicos, again:
"Marx defines productive labour as follows:
'Productive labour, in its meaning for capitalist production, is wage-labour
which, exchanged against the variable part of capital...reproduces not only this
part of capital (or the value of its own labour-power), but in addition produces
surplus-value for the capitalist.' Productive labour is thus labour productive
of surplus-value. Unproductive labour, on the other hand, 'is labour which is
not exchanged with capital, but directly with revenue, that is, with wages or
profit.' The distinction between
productive and unproductive labour is, therefore, one
between labour which contributes to the self-expansion of
capital and labour which does not. Marx's main example of
the latter is that of domestic servants, the largest single
category of workers in Victorian Britain, employed out of
the revenue of the middle and upper classes. The precise implications of
Marx's theory of productive and unproductive labour are not
wholly clear. However, the interpretation most consistent
with the version of the theory expounded in Capital volumes
2 and 3 suggests that only those wage-labourers involved in
the production of commodities (including their
transportation to the point of final consumption) are seen
by Marx as productive labourers.
"Marx argues, for example, that
time devoted to the circulation of commodities -- buying and
selling, book-keeping and so on -- is a pure cost to
capital, creating no surplus-value. A commercial capitalist
who invests in these activities merely creates a claim to
the surplus value created elsewhere, and thus reduces the
general rate of profit. If the capitalist employs
wage-labourers 'this advance of capital creates neither
product nor value. It reduces pro tanto [to such an
extent -- RL] the dimensions in which the advanced capital
functions productively.' However, wage-labour employed to
transport goods does create surplus-value, since 'the
use-value of things is only materialised in their
consumption, and their consumption may necessitate a change
of location of these things, hence may require an additional
process of production in the transport industry.' If we accept productive labour
thus conceived as defining the working class, then only
wage-labourers in extractive, manufacturing, and freight
industries would form the proletariat. On such a view, the
working class would apparently be narrowed down to its
nineteenth-century stereotype of male manual workers.... This approach contradicts that
pursued by Marx in Capital. Marx himself insisted
that many white-collar workers were themselves productive
labourers. This was a result of the increasing socialisation
of production, which meant that:
'the real lever of the
overall labour-process is increasingly not the individual
worker. Instead, labour-power socially combined and
the various competing labour-powers which together form the
entire production machine participate in very different ways
in the immediate process of making commodities.... Some work
better with their hands, others with their heads, one as a
manager, engineer, technologist, etc, the other as overseer,
the third as manual labourer or even drudge. An
ever-increasing number of types of labour are included in
the immediate concept of productive labour, and those
who perform it are classed as productive workers,
workers directly exploited by capital and subordinated
to its process of production and expansion.' [Callinicos is
here quoting from the Results of the Immediate Process of
Production --
Productive and Unproductive Labour, published in the
Appendix to the Penguin edition of Capital Volume One,
i.e., Marx (1976), pp.1039-1040, although the version
on-line is clearly a different translation. Italic
emphasis in the original published version, although
Callinicos has emphasised sections of this passage
differently.]
"Thus, all those who form part of
what Marx called 'the collective worker', the complex
division of labour involved in producing commodities, are
productive workers, even if they do not work with their
hands. Moreover, there is no evidence to suggest that Marx
regarded only productive workers as forming the proletariat.
On the contrary, his analysis of commercial employees, whom
we have already seen he did not believe produced
surplus-value, suggests the opposite. Marx writes:
'In one respect a commercial
employee is a wage-worker. In the first place, his
labour-power is bought with the variable capital of the
merchant, not with money expended as revenue, and
consequently it is not bought for private service, but for
the purpose of expanding the capital advanced for it. In the
second place, the value of the labour-power, and thus his
wages, are determined as those of other wage-workers, i.e.,
by the cost of production and reproduction of his specific
labour-power, not by the product of his labour-power.'
[Callinicos is here quoting Capital Volume Three;
i.e., Marx (1998),
p.291 -- RL.]...
"As Erik Olin
Wright puts it:
'both
productive and unproductive workers are
exploited; both have unpaid labour
extorted from them. The only difference
is that in the case of productive
labour, unpaid labour-time is
appropriated as surplus-value; whereas
in the case of unproductive labour,
unpaid labour merely reduces the costs
to the capitalist of appropriating part
of the surplus-value produced elsewhere.
In both cases, the capitalist will try
to keep the wage-bill as low as
possible; in both cases the capitalist
will try to increase productivity by
getting workers to work harder; in both
cases, workers will be dispossessed of
control over their labour-process. In
both cases, socialism is a prerequisite
for ending exploitation. It is hard to
see where a fundamental divergence of
economic interests emerges from the
position of unproductive and productive
labour in capitalist relations of
production.' [Callinicos is here quoting
Wright (1985), pp.49-50 -- RL.]
"If we accept this reasoning, then
we must reject the 'narrow' definition of the proletariat as
comprised only of productive workers. Ernest Mandel offers
the following broad definition: 'The defining structural
characteristic of the proletariat in Marx’s analysis of
capitalism is the socio-economic compulsion to sell one's
labour-power. Included in the proletariat, then, are not
only manual industrial workers, but all unproductive
wage-labourers who are subject to the same fundamental
constraints: non-ownership of means of production; lack of
direct access to the means of livelihood (the land is by no
means freely accessible!); insufficient money to purchase
the means of livelihood without more or less continuous sale
of labour-power'. [Callinicos is here quoting Ernest
Mandel's 'Introduction' to the Penguin Edition of Capital
Volume Two -- RL.]... The implication of the previous
section is that the proletariat should broadly be identified
with the mass of wage-labourers. It follows that the present
century has seen a considerable expansion, rather than a
decline in the size of the working class...." [Callinicos (1983),
pp.87-94. Several paragraphs merged.]
Of course, if we don't accept this definition
--,
or, indeed, the reasoning behind it -- then everything is up for grabs, again. The point is that if
this were a 'dialectical-logical relation', it would be much clearer cut
and wouldn't depend on a contestable definition, a long and tortuous argument,
or the collection of data. Who needs to collect data to establish the
truth of the claim that that all regicides are king-killers? Who needs to engage in
detailed empirical research to decide if "to run" is a verb,
adjective, adverb, noun or conjunction?
So,
because the decision about which class an individual or group belongs requires
in-depth analysis, complex argument, evidence and debate, the distinction
between the proletariat and the capitalist class can't be 'dialectical-logical'.
Like much else in science, this distinction is convention-based, dependent on decisions theorists
make, in tandem with the discussions, arguments and negotiations that take place
between the relevant parties as they collectively arrive at some sort of consensus (that is,
if they do --, which, in the entire history of Marxism, is, alas, all too rare!). So the
relation between workers and capitalists isn't in the end
de
re it is, if anything, de dicto -- and the de dicto bit
isn't even settled or agreed upon!
[Hillel
Ruben (1979) has a few things to say about this; they will be examined Essay
Three Part Five.]
This means that
thebest
example of a 'dialectical relation' in a DM-theorist's box of tricks --
the link between the proletariat and the bourgeoisie -- isn't 'dialectical'
after all! Workers and capitalists don't imply one another
existentially -- at best, they do so conceptually, and even then they do
that only after much argument, re-definition, stage-setting, debate, data
collection and analysis!
But,
the question remains: Can one of these classes exist without the other? Plainly not, but
that is only because the two main classes in Capitalism have been inter-defined,
and that definition turns out to be about as clear as mud. Which explains all
the accompanying theory, compounded by decade after decade of debate in an attempt to come to
some sort of consensus -- which, it is worth reminding ourselves, has yet
to be achieved! Now, as I noted above, I largely accept Callinicos's
conclusions, but I had to be persuaded to that end. My agreement wasn't to be
had by asking me to think really, really hard about 'the definition of each
class' or to reflect solely about 'the meaning' of the relevant words.
Contrast that
with deciding to which set of numbers the fraction, 2/5, uniquely belongs, or whether
$1 = 100 cents.
[As a side
note, if readers want to provoke a 'lively' (and interminable) debate online, in
a meeting, in a journal or even down the pub, just try asking a Dialectical
Marxist for a definition
of productive labour or even surplus value. Even better, ask exactly who
belongs to the proletariat and/or the capitalist class. You will be hard pressed
to find two such comrades who concur, or even agree about how to decide the answer.
But if this were a dialectico-logical or a dialectico-conceptual
question (on a par with deciding whether or not a stag is a male deer, or even
if 2 + 3 = 5) there would be almost 100% consensus, not the interminable
confusion or perennial disagreement we still see concerning such issues across the one-hundred-and-fifty or so years since Das Kapital was
published! A small clue as to how such a discussion might go can be gleaned by
checking out the comment section below the
video to which I
linked earlier. Or even better: the 'discussion' I have reproduced in Appendix C, concerning use-value
and exchange-value. Readers will no doubt notice how easy it was for me is to
sow confusion in the minds of the Dialectical Dogmatists who tried to take me
on. In both cases, conceptual chaos doesn't quite capture the nature,
tone or
mood of that 'debate'. It was rather like asking a group of Christians (drawn
from different denominations) what the meaning of
The Eucharist is --
or even, whether or not
Christians should obey 'Jesus' and give all they have to the poor!]
All this is quite apart from the fact that we
have yet to be told why it is appropriate to call such things, or such relations, "contradictions",
to begin with. After well over a century-and-a-half (or two centuries
if we include Hegel), we are still owed a
clear, non-question-begging, explanation. Just as it also quite apart from
the fact that none of this is of any help explaining how Hegel's
'relationalism' could conceivably apply to objects and processes in the natural
world. As we have seen in Essay Eleven Part Two, it isn't at all easy to
identify a
'Master-Slave sort-of-dialectic' at work anywhere in the universe outwith human society. How, for example, could the Sun 'imply' the planet Mercury as part of its
'concept'/'definition', or vice versa? While employees (as
employees) might not be able
exist without employers (as employers), the Sun can surely exist without Mercury or Neptune.
[While those two planets would, of course, change dramatically if they were
somehow forced out of the Solar System -- perhaps by the gravity of a passing
star -- they would/could still exist.] Hegel tried to justify the application of
the 'dialectic' beyond the social sphere by appealing to a link that supposedly exists between acids and bases, but we
have already seen that not
eventhat can be made to work. In which case, whatever one thinks of Hegel's
'logic' applied to social development, its application to nature looks about as
convincing as a UK Tory or a US Republican Party election video.
And this, too, is quite apart from the
extra fact that, if the
DM-classicists are to be believed, and such things were actually related
to one another as
'dialectical opposites', they should struggle with and then turn into each other!
Has anyone noticed Mercury locked in a life-or-death struggle with the Sun and
then turn into it? Or: the Sun turn into Mercury? Or, indeed, every master turn into a slave, and vice versa?
Heilbroner's
'life-line' thus turns into a much less helpful anvil:
Figure Fifteen: Hey! Comrades! Catch
This! It Will 'Dialectically'
In view of the above, and much that has been
discussed elsewhere at this site, there is a more fundamental question that
needs to be addressed connected with what Hegel had to say about the supposed
relation between masters and slaves. As we will see in Essay Twelve Part Six, in
the end it is difficult to see how the sort of Absolute Idealism promoted by
Hegel is significantly different from materialist or pragmatist versions of
Scientific Realism/Naturalism. [On this, see Stove (1991), pp.83-133.] The struggle to
sanitise Hegel continues apace (and on a par with 19th
century attempts to sanitise the Bible -- in relation to which, the
reader is referred to Magee's
remarks, quoted below), even if the result of this latest attempt to
'decontaminate' Hegel -- along with the reaction of
critics -- looks rather more like an 'ivory tower
dog-pile'.
[On this, see Brandon
(2002), pp.45-57, 178-234, Engelhardt and Pinker (1994), Hartmann (1976),
Pinkard (2012), Pippin (1989, 2018) and Redding (2007). In fact, in the
Introduction to his book, Redding has published a brief and relatively clear
account of the 'return to Hegel' among Analytic Philosophers, why they are busy
sanitising this Mystic (not Redding's words, mine!). This is not the
place to enter into this unforgivable sell-out by fellow Analytic Philosophers,
but I will say much more in Essay Twelve Parts Six and Seven. In advance of that
Stove's work (part of which is referenced above) is the best explanation why
philosophers (and others) find some sort of solace in Idealism -- or in
sanitised versions of it, that now appear to attracting the attention of several
prominent Analytic Philosophers.]
The above attempts to 'launder' Hegel have been
collectively, if somewhat misleadingly, labelled the "Non-Metaphysical Reading"
about which Hegel scholar, Glenn Magee had this to say:
"The phrase 'non-metaphysical
reading' seems to have originated with Klaus Hartmann who, in his influential
1972 article 'Hegel: A Non-Metaphysical View,' [Magee is here referring to
Hartmann (1976) -- RL] identified Hegel's system as a
'hermeneutic of categories.' Other well-known proponents of Hartmann's approach
include Kenley Royce Dove, William Maker, Terry Pinkard, and Richard Dien
Winfield. The
non-metaphysical/anti-theological reading relies on ignoring or explaining away
the many frankly metaphysical, cosmological, theological, and theosophical
passages in Hegel's writings and lectures. Thus the non-metaphysical reading is
less an interpretation of Hegel than a revision. Its advocates sometimes admit
this -- Hartmann, for instance -- but more often than not they offer their
'reading' in opposition to other interpretations of what Hegel meant. It is,
furthermore, no accident that the same authors finish out their 'interpretation'
by tacking a left-wing politics onto Hegel, for they are, in fact, the
intellectual heirs of the nineteenth-century 'Young Hegelians' who also gave
non-metaphysical, anti-theological 'interpretations' of Hegel. The
non-metaphysical reading is simply Hegel shorn of everything offensive to the
modern, secular, liberal mind. This does not, however, imply that I am offering
an alternative 'right Hegelian' reading of Hegel. I am simply reading Hegel. In
so doing, I hope to contribute to the 'nonpartisan, historical and textual
analysis' of Hegel's thought called for by Louis Dupré." [Magee (2008), pp.14-15,
reproduced from here. Quotation
marks altered to conform with the conventions adopted at this site. Link added;
paragraphs merged.]
As noted earlier, topics like this will be examined
in greater detail in later Essays. In fact, a others have pointed out, it is far
from clear whether Hegel meant to construct a purely logical system or one that
was sensitive to scientific fact. John Burbidge summarises this dilemma in the
following terms:
"These positions [i.e., the approaches to Hegel's work
Burbidge had briefly covered in the previous page -- RL] agree in that the clue
to any systematic philosophy lies in its logic: the patterns of reasoning that
lead disciplined thought from one stage to the next. Yet Hegel included the
philosophy of nature within the total purview of his vision. This, too, was to
be organised in a coherent and integrated way. Nature is the realm of human
experience and scientific investigation. For all that humans might exploit it
for their own purposes, it presents a given that is not completely malleable to
the preconceptions of thought. To comprehend nature philosophically is to take
this realm of contingent experience and organise it according to logical
principles. So what Hegel said about nature could be simply be the product of
second-order reflection on natural science and natural phenomena. Once nature
became the object of philosophy, what was said about it had to be systematic.
This demand poses the primary puzzle for interpreters of Hegel's philosophy of
nature. How much is driven by logical concerns, and how much responds to
empirical fact? If it is primarily logical, then it is claiming the ability to
derive natural phenomena from strictly a priori principles; there is no need to
appeal to experience. But then new scientific evidence may well falsify the
theory. If, however, it is empirical, then it is in danger of losing its
systematic status. For, as time passes and scientific investigation uncovers new
information about the natural order, any logical structure will be broken into
pieces. In either case, philosophy will have to abandon its claim to systematic
knowledge. This dilemma underlies the examination of Hegel's philosophy of
chemical phenomena undertaken here. He appears to be conscious of both the
Scylla of a priori
deduction and the Charybdis of simple observation of facts." [Burbidge
(1996), p.4. Link added; paragraphs merged.]
Reader will have to decide if Burbidge manages to
show whether Hegel succeeded in crossing this minefield with all his limbs still
attached, but it is clear from Essay Two
that DM-theorists certainly haven't. The question is, how does this affect the
interpretation of the 'master-slave dialectic' covered, but left unresolved,
earlier? While Burbidge links the above dilemma with concerns connected with
Hegel's Philosophy of Nature, similar questions might well be asked about
his Theory of History and hence what he had to say about the 'mater-slave
dialectic': Are his ideas in this area 'purely logical' or are they, too,
sensitive to empirical investigation?
First of all, it is far from certain that Marx
himself referred to or used the master-slave dialectic. Here is what Chris
Arthur concluded about the following:
"There is a widely held view that
Marx was profoundly influenced by the Master-Servant...dialectic in Hegel's Phenomenology
of Spirit. [Arthur is here referring to Hegel (1977) -- RL.] This view
was first popularized by
Jean-Paul Sartre, who refers in his Being
and Nothingness (1943) to 'the famous Master-Slave relation which so
profoundly influenced Marx'. [Arthur is here referring to Sartre (2018) -- RL.]
Sartre does not explain how he knows this. Probably this remark reflects the
influence of Alexandre
Kojčve's lectures on Hegel in the nineteen-thirties. Kojčve presents a
reading of the Phenomenology which centralizes the place of the
Master-Servant dialectic in it, in a quasi-Marxist interpretation. (Kojčve may
have assumed that Marx himself read it in the same way. However, it is one thing
to read Marxism back into Hegel, it is another to generate it out of
Hegel.) Three years after Sartre we find
Jean Hyppolite again
saying that the dialectic of domination and servitude is the best-known section
of the Phenomenology because of 'the influence it has had on the
political and social philosophy of Hegel's successors, especially Marx'. As a
matter of fact, despite the assertions of numerous commentators to the contrary,
Sartre and Hyppolite did not attend Kojčve's lectures. The myth that they
sat at the feet of the 'unknown superior' is now well-established, but the
secondary literature concerned does not give any evidence for it. Let us turn
then to first-hand accounts. Kojčve's disciple
Raymond Queneau, who
was responsible for collecting and publishing Kojčve's lectures in 1947, has
given a list of participants which does not include Sartre or Hyppolite. As far
as Hyppolite is concerned we have the additional testimony of [Madame]
Hyppolite that he did not attend 'for fear of being influenced'.
"However that may be, by the time
Sartre and Hyppolite made their equations between Hegel and Marx a crucial
document of Kojčve's was already in the public domain. In the 14 January 1939
issue of Mesures Kojčve published a free translation, with interpolated
glosses, of the section of the Phenomenology entitled 'Autonomy and
Dependence of Self-consciousness: Mastery and Servitude'. Still more interesting
for our purposes is that Kojčve includes as an epigraph the following words of
Marx: 'Hegel...grasps labour as the essence, as the self-confirming essence of
man'.... No reference is given, but in fact this is quoted from Marx's 1844
Paris Manuscripts, which remained unpublished until the nineteen-thirties.
Kojčve is the first person, therefore, to make a direct connection between this
famous judgement of Marx's on Hegel and the Master-Servant dialectic in the Phenomenology.
Today it is dogmatically asserted in numerous books that Marx was inspired by
Hegel's analysis of the labour of servitude. This view is completely false. The
present note attempts to show that this is so and to explain the real
significance of Marx's critical appropriation of the Phenomenology.
"If we are to consider the influence
of Hegel's Phenomenology on Marx, the crucial text to examine has to be
Marx's manuscripts of 1844, in which he introduces his theory of alienation, and
then devotes considerable space to a penetrating critique of the Phenomenology.
In this latter section Marx praises Hegel for having grasped man as the result
of his own labour. Nearly all commentators, innocently assuming that material labour
is meant here, turn to the Phenomenology and find that there is indeed a
fascinating discussion in the 'Master-Servant' section of the significance of
material labour; in and through this the servant 'finds himself'. Furthermore,
the fact that this labour is seen by Hegel as actualized in the context of
servitude, leads some commentators to make the more extravagant claim that in
his theory of alienation Marx draws on this same section.
Herbert Marcuse was
probably the first to do so; he says in his Reason and Revolution (1941)
[Arthur is here referring to
Marcuse (1973) --
RL.]: 'In 1844, Marx sharpened the basic concepts of his own theory through a
critical analysis of Hegel's Phenomenology of Mind. [This is the same
book as the Phenomenology of Spirit -- RL.] He described the alienation
of labour in the terms of Hegel's discussion of master and servant.' The only
difficulty with these presuppositions of the secondary literature is that
Marx never refers to this section of the Phenomenology -- never mind
giving it any importance! -- when, in his 1844 manuscripts, he embarks on a
'critique of Hegel's dialectic'. He discusses the Phenomenology as a whole and
draws attention to its last chapter especially; he singles out three other
sections for praise; but not one of them is on the master-servant
dialectic. This should make us suspicious, therefore, of the claims made for the
'master-slave'..... Does Marx, as Marcuse claims..., follow in his theory of
alienation the terms of Hegel's Master-Servant relationship? We have already
said enough to cast doubt on this. Furthermore, not only does Marx himself not
refer us to this section, but Hegel's own discussion in it does not mention
alienation." [Chris Arthur, quoted from
here. Italic
emphases in the original; several paragraphs merged. Links added.]
In that case, the only options left open
to us in our endeavour to understand what John Rees had to say are F50 and F51. They
were:
F50: Capitalism offers A, but delivers
C instead, where C is
a paradoxical outcome.
F51: Capitalism offers A, but delivers
A and not A, as well
as B and C.
However, since these two are clearly variations on
F48 and F49, they don't appear to be viable alternatives. DM-apologists are
free to make
of them what they can.
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; FL = Formal
Logic; DL = Dialectical
Logic; MFL = Modern FL;
LOC = Law of Non-Contradiction; LEM =
Law of Excluded Middle; PB =
Principle of Bivalence.
I have linked to Wikipedia for the definition of "Bivalence" even though
I am steadily removing the vast majority of such links (as
I explained in the Preface). I have done so since the Wikipedia
definition is actually quite good, and certainly much better than many others I have seen
on the Internet, and that includes several logic textbooks (where it is regularly conflated
with the LEM!). For a brief explanation of the difference between the LEM and the
PB, see Purtill (1999);
LIE =
Linguistic Idealism.]
Nevertheless, Dialectical Marxists
maintain that there are indeed actual, honest-to-goodness, 'true
contradictions' in nature and society. By far and away the most sophisticated
attempt to establish this (as a 'sort-of fact') is currently to be found in the work of Graham
Priest. However, it is far from clear whether the 'contradictions' upon
which he focuses
are actually 'dialectical' -- that is, should we ever be told with any clarity what a 'dialectical
contradiction' actually is!
[Priest's work will be considered in more detail in an
Additional Essay to be posted at this site at a later date. In the meantime, readers should consult
this and
this.]
Veteran communist theoretician,
the late
Maurice
Cornforth, also attempted to argue that there
are 'true contradictions' in the natural and social world, contrary to the view endorsed
at this site, which is that a
contradiction (in its simplest form, in logic and ordinary life) is merely the conjunction of a proposition with its negation, which has nothing to do with 'what exists':
"The contradiction in things is a very
familiar state of affairs. There is nothing in the least abstruse about it, and
it is often referred to in everyday conversations. For example, we speak of a
man as having a 'contradictory' character, or as being 'a mass of
contradictions'…." [Cornforth
(1976), pp.92-93.]
In which case,
based on the above reasoning, when we describe someone as a "bit of
a puzzle" what we really mean is that he or she can be purchased in a magic
store or toy shop!
Or that when we read this:
what
Shakespeare meant was that we
should all try to remember our lines and stage cues, pay attention to the
director, make sure the audience can hear us, and ignore the reviews...
Clearly, Cornforth has never heard of
metaphor.
[Why the
above isn't
a literal use of "contradiction" will be considered in more detail
below, where we will
also see
that "contradictory" isn't the same as "contradict"/"contradiction".]
It is worth recalling that Hegel attempted to show that
logical contradictions, and not so much ordinary contradictions, were far too
one-sided, abstract and philosophically limited. His 'reconfiguration' of this
'troublesome word' was intended to
transcend the supposedly 'Aristotelian' view of contradiction. (As far as I am aware, he was silent about the everyday use of "contradict", and its cognates.)
Of course, DM-theorists might aim to use "contradiction" in
a way that is different to Hegel
-- and that might still be the case whether or not his theory, along with its 'contradictions',
has been turned "the right way up" or
left
upside down --, but, if that is so, their 'contradictions', the
'DM-strain', might not (obviously) 'transcend' FL-contradictions, as had been
intended. On the other hand,
if Dialectical Marxists use of this word is meant to be the same as Hegel's, that would
render their criticisms of FL entirely vacuous -- since they would be addressing
neither the same term nor the same concept that logicians had been using for
centuries. Nevertheless, Dialectical Marxists certainly intend their
use of this word should transcend the use of "contradiction" in FL, which is
attention has largely been restricted to the latter area of contention in
this Essay.
However, it is
also clear from the examples they themselves give that DM-theorists -- like Cornforth and the
others mentioned below -- focus on what certainly look likeordinary contradictions
(as opposed to FL-contradictions, or even 'dialectical contradictions')
when they try to argue that there are 'true contradictions' in nature and society. It is
also clear why they do this: FL-contradictions are totally uninteresting
(even when translated into the vernacular), and, what is worse, they are
politically useless, too.
Who, for example, is going to get too excited about the following (these have been
taken from a letter sent
to
Socialist Review a few years ago by a supporter of this site):
A1: In capitalism, there is a drive to accumulate
and there isn't (at the same time and in the same respect).
A2: Capitalism is governed by a blindly competitive
market and it isn't (at the same time and in the same respect).
Even these
two are merely discursive equivalents
of FL-contradictions. As should seem rather obvious, they are totally useless and exceedingly boring.
As we saw in
Essay Four Part One, DM-theorists
concentrate their attention on the simplest form of FL-contradiction, namely: p & ¬p
(which they often
get wrong!). Seldom (in
fact never) do they consider more complex FL-contradictions. Here are
just two of the latter:
V1:
¬[(p
→
q) v (p
→
r)
↔
(p
→ (q v
r))].
V2: ¬[¬(Ǝx)(Fx & ¬Gx)
↔ (x)(Fx
→ Gx)].
[In the above, "(Ǝ...)" is the existential
quantifier
(and often stands for "There is at least one...", or even just "There is...");
"↔"
is a biconditional sign (and stands for "if and only if", often
abbreviated to "iff"); "(x)" is the
universal quantifier (and often goes proxy for "All..." or "Every..."); "&" stands for "and"; "v" is the inclusive "or"
(i.e., "and/or"); "¬"
stands for the negation operator ("It is not the case that...");
"→" is
the conditional sign (i.e., "If...then"); "p", "q", and "r" are propositional
variables; "F" and "G" are one-place,
first-level predicate letters; and "x" is a
second-level predicate-binding variable.]
Here is what
V1 and V2 translate out as:
V1; "It isn't the case that [(if
p then q
or if p then r) if and only if (if p then q or r)]."
V2: "It isn't the case that [(there isn't
something which is F and not G) if and only if (everything which, if it is
F,
is also G)]."
V2a:
"It isn't the case that [(there isn't
anything which is F and not G) if and only if (everything which, if it is
F,
is also G)]."
[V2a is perhaps a more colloquial, semi-translation
of V2. DM-fans will be hard pressed to find place for contradictions like these
in their quirky, 'right-way up', quasi-Hegelian universe -- i.e., once they have
been
interpreted.]
Moreover,
dialecticians often conflate the LEM, PB and the LOC
with one another
--
and, indeed, all of them regularly and ignorantly with
opposites,
inconsistencies, absurdities, contraries, paradoxes, puzzles, quandaries, oddities, irrationalities,
oppositional processes, antagonisms, interacting forces, events that go contrary to expectations
--
alongside a whole host of other idiosyncrasies and irrelevances. In fact, they are so eager
to see "contradictions" everywhere that they find they have to tinker with the
meaning of the word so that (for them) it becomes synonymous with
"struggle", "conflict", "opposition", or even "antagonism", as we will see.
[I have used the word "ignorantly" here since it is perfectly clear that
Dialectical Marxist really don't care about precision or
consistency, and are totally unaware of the extent to which that attitude
torpedoes their own theory and their credibility as promoters of 'cutting-edge
philosophy, logic and science'. (See here
for evidence
supporting the above accusations --
here is
a particularly egregious example of this nescient
frame-of-mind (published in 2025), and from two academic Marxists!)]
Indeed, in debate DM-acolytes are often
genuinely surprised to be confronted with actual examples of
discursive FL-contradictions -- like those repeated below (i.e., A1 and A2) --, or even the more formal examples posted
above (i.e., V1 and V2).
From this it is clear they are totally oblivious of genuine contradictions
(like these), and when they see them they hastily reject them as irrelevant, and
not the sort of examples of what
they mean when they use "contradiction". [As we didn't know
already!]
A1: In capitalism, there is a drive to accumulate
and there isn't (at the same time and in the same respect).
A2: Capitalism is governed by a blindly competitive
market and it isn't (at the same time and in the same respect).
[Here
is a recent example of this sort of 'dialectical-consternation' (in the comments section at the bottom
-- unfortunately, these comments are no
longer available!). When
confronted with a discursive FL-contradiction (rather like A1), the comrade with whom I was debating --
Mike Rosen,
no less(!) -- denied that it was what he meant by the use of this
contentious word. He had wanted to show that there is a perfectly ordinary use
of "contradiction" that picked out what Marx and other Marxists meant by it. And
yet none of his examples were 'dialectical contradictions', either, which
rendered the whole exercise rather futile -- as, indeed, I pointed out to him.
There are many more examples like this that appear in the debates listed
here. See also,
here.]
On the one hand, whatever else DM-'contradictions' are supposed
to be,
they appear to be totally unrelated to FL-contradictions, which means they can hardly
surpass them
-- at least no more than
The Dogger Bank is capable of 'surpassing'
Barclays Bank. On
the other hand, they have to be related to FL-contradictions, otherwise
Dialectical Marxists
will have to abandon any pretence that DL is superior to FL.
In that
case, and in what follows, I will continue to refer to FL-contradictions in my
criticism of 'dialectical contradictions'. If DM-fans mean
something different by their quirky use of "contradiction", they should tell the
rest of us exactly what they do mean by it.
Returning to
what Cornforth had to say,
he concedes
the point that describing someone as "contradictory" involves a reference to their dispositions
(or "tendencies"):
"This means that [they evince] opposed tendencies
in [their] behaviour, such as gentleness and brutality, recklessness and
cowardice, selfishness and self-sacrifice." [Cornforth
(1976), p.93.]
Unfortunately, that prevents Cornforth's own choice of examples from counting as
literal contradictions. In which case, he seems not to have noticed he had just torpedoed his own
argument.
Be
this as it may, if the above passage is meant to commit Cornforth to a
dispositional account of contradiction (in that they are now supposed to be
tendencies to behave in specific ways), then much of classic DM would become
obsolete by default. The fact that someone might have, for instance, a disposition/tendency to be
brave in certain circumstances, but cowardly in others, in no way suggests
he/she can be both of these at once -- that both could be activated at the
same time and in the same way. What indeed could that possibly amount to?
Standing one's ground while running away?Putting oneself in harms way to
rescue someone while refusing to do it?
What is open to
question, however, is whether the simultaneous
actualisation of these dispositions (as certain states or performances) may
be expressed by means of true propositions (without ambiguity), and which
both are,or could be, true at the same time and in the same respect.
Consider a different example: the fact that an iron bar can be red hot at one end and
icy cold at the other (at the same time) isn't a contradiction -- even though, plainly, an iron bar is at
any time disposed to be either of these, and much else besides, at all
times. But, no one supposes
(it is to be hoped!) that such a bar could
actually be red
hot and freezing cold all over, and in the same respect, at the same time.
[Admittedly, the
supposition that an entire iron bar
could be both of these at the same time might be thought by some to be a contradictory
assumption; and yet even
that would merely be an inconsistency,not a contradiction, since both
could be false: if the said bar was justwarm.]
The same is the case with respect to an individual who might be brave under
certain circumstances but act cowardly under others (both at different times, of
course!). Cornforth never once attempted to provide an example where two
supposedly 'contradictory' dispositions had, or could even be,
activated/instantiated at the same time.
Anyway, as noted above, the emotions Cornforth imagines capable of being
expressed by
contrary suppositions turn
out to be
inconsistent, not contradictory. For example, if NN was said to be both angry and calm at the same
time, that would only be a contradiction
if it couldn't be
false to assert NN was both. But, it would be false to assert both if
NN
were only slightly agitated (in which state, clearly, NN would be neither angry nor calm),
for instance.
[Recall, two propositions are contraries, or are inconsistent, if they can't both
be true, but they can both be false, at once. By way of contrast, two propositions
are contradictory only if they can't both be true and they can't
both be false, at once. As noted several ties, DM-fans ignore or a blithely
unaware of this.]
So, even if both of the
said states were actualisable at the same
time (which is, of course, a rather difficult scenario to imagine, to put it
mildly!), it still wouldn't be a contradiction!
On the other hand,
ifNN could be described (without ambiguity) in the following way:
N1: NN is both angry and not angry at the same time, and with respect to the same object of that anger,
we might have a genuine contradiction
in such circumstances (even if it has yet to be established that this is
a 'dialectical contradiction' --
more on that presently). But, it is unlikely
that Cornforth meant his words to be understood this way; and it is even more
doubtful whether he would have been able to say under what conditions he, or
anyone else for that matter, would or could hold N1 true -- or, indeed, under what
conditions he/they could or would attribute to NN such (simultaneous) odd dispositional actualisations.
Consider the
following (more precise) example of the above (imaginary) scenario (which turns
out to be a little more complex than at first sight might seem):
N2: At time, t, NN is angry with
MM for lying
to her at t, and not angry with MM for lying to her at t.
[Where "t" is a temporal variable.]
Or, perhaps even more precisely:
N2a: At times,
t1
and t2,
NN is angry with MM at t2
for lying to her at t1,
and not angry with MM at t2
for lying to her at t1.
[t2
> t1
(Recall, ">" here means "later than".)]
The
following is N2a
in more ordinary terms:
N2a1: NN is angry with MM today for lying to her
yesterday and not angry with MM today for lying to her yesterday.
Naturally, there are several other possibilities allowed for in logic and
ordinary language, such as the following:
N2b: At time,
t1,
NN is angry with MM at t1
for lying to her at t1,
and not angry with MM at t1
for lying to her at t1.
Or, in ordinary (if somewhat stilted)
terms:
N2b1: NN is currently angry with
MM for lying to
her just now and currently not angry with MM for lying to her just now.
N2b1
certainly looks contradictory and, as a result,
someone could argue that it is possible to have
mixed emotions at one and the same time (in this case, anger and a lack of anger
at the same time). But there are no emotions as such, there are only
emotions that have an object. One can't just be angry (except in circumstances
covered below).
Anger has to be directed at someone or something; i.e., it has to have an
object. The same is the case with all the emotions.
In that
case, this might mean the
following
(confining our attention to variations on N2, not N2a or N2b, for simplicity's sake):
N3: At time, t, NN is both angry with
MM for lying
to her at t (because it was a violation of trust), and not angry with MM for
lying to her at t (because she fully understands the pressures on MM when he lied).
In that case, N3 is really this:
N4: At time, t, NN is both φ-ing
at t, and not ψ-ing at t.
Here, we have two different
'actions', or emotional states, involving different objects of a particular emotion
(this is an example of the sort of ambiguitymentioned earlier): i.e., anger at MM because it was a violation of trust (i.e.,
"φ-ing"), and lack of anger at
MM because
of extenuating circumstances (i.e.,
"ψ-ing"). Which is, of course, why caveat N1
was mentioned:
N1: NN is both angry and not angry at the same time,
and with respect to the same object of that
anger.
Here, the object of the said anger also explains its motivation. That isn't
always the case.
[Greek letters like "φ" and
"ψ" are used in MFL and
Analytic Philosophy
to help distinguish action-, or state-predicates (like "...walks", "...sits", or
"...has refuted DM") from others (such as, "...is a man" or "...is a confused
dialectician"). Naturally, several of these might overlap
somewhat.]
As soon as we fill in the details concerning the nature of the emotion
involved we can see that we have here two different objects of the said anger,
or two different states/actions, and hence no contradiction.
DM-fans might still object, but (like
Cornforth) they will find it hard to say what the actual content of that objection
amounts to
without ignoring or editing out of the picture some object or other of the said emotion,
thus misrepresenting the intended situation.
[Which is, perhaps, why DM-fans dislikeprecision
(i.e., they call it 'pedantry'
or 'semantics').
Indeed, attempts to state preciselywhat Dialectical Marxists might mean always
wind up undermining the (confused) doctrines they unwisely borrowed from Hegel -- as we can
now see happening with these 'contradictions'.]
In fact, by his use of the word "tendencies", Cornforth himself seems
half ready to concede this point. But, not even he will want to describe
the same action (performed by the same person) as, say,
literally both gentle and brutal at the same time (without
equivocation). While it is possible to ascribe contrary properties to the same
object (e.g., one part of the aforementioned iron bar could be hot while another
part is cold, as we have seen), a 'contradiction' may only be extracted from
such familiar facts by someone who has never heard of ambiguity, or, of
course, who is
terminally confused -- or, as is the case with far too many DM-fans, who has no idea
(or cares even less!) about the difference between contraries
and contradictories. No one would think they had been contradicted by someone
who asserted that the far end of an iron bar was red hot just after they
themselves had asserted the near end was ice cold. Nor would they think they had been contradicted if someone had said they were
angry today, but calm the next day -- or, indeed, that they were angry and calm
about different things, at the same time.
Anyway, as noted above, any description of the same action as literally
and simultaneously both gentle and brutal -- in
the same respect and
without equivocation -- would merely be an inconsistency; since both
alternatives would be false if the said act was in fact neutral (i.e., if it was neither
gentle nor brutal, but performed, or displayed, with equanimity or indifference).
In addition
to this, and once more, are any of these alleged 'contradictions' actually
'dialectical'? In answer to that it is worth asking: Do these emotions imply each other
such that they must co-exist (like the
proletariat and the capitalist class,
so we are told)?
Unfortunately for Cornforth, and anyone who agrees with him, such emotions,
activities and states don't imply
one another, and they can all exist independently of each other. Nor do they
struggle with and then turn into one another, which they would have to do if
they were 'dialectically related' --
if the DM-classics are themselves to be believed.
So,
whatever else they are, these aren't 'dialectical opposites', which once again
means they can't
be, nor can they form part of, a 'dialectical contradiction'.
However,
the slow disintegration of the Communist Block finally caught up with
Cornforth; in one of his last works [Cornforth (1980)], he systematically
began to retract many of the theories he had once declared were cornerstones of the "world
view of the proletariat".
Another rather benighted comrade
remained undeterred by such contradictory antics and vainly tried to defend the
use of this obscure term (i.e.,
"dialectical contradiction"). To that end, he appeal to (yes, you guessed it!) an everyday use of "contradiction"
(re-posted below), in connection with contradictory
behaviour, when it isn't at all clear that the examples he himself
gave
were
even 'dialectical contradictions', to begin with! One can only sympathise
with this individual, who, like other show take Hegel seriously, has such poor
material to work with.
Anyway,
what did this comrade
think he meant by "contradictory behaviour"? Perhaps this term applies to
those who stand and sit all at once? Or, maybe to those who
only have a 'tendency' to do
both? A 'tendency' to stand and sit all at once? Or, is it maybe to those who just threaten/promise to do both? But
what sort of threat/promise would that be if it is
impossible to carry out? Or even imagine how it could be carried out? Maybe it applies to someone who goes on strike and refuses to
go on strike
at the same time and in the same way?
We aren't
told. As usual, DM-fans offer their bemused readers what amount to less than
half-formed thoughts -- or which turn out to be what can only be described as 'brain burps'.
This benighted comrade
actually tried to argue along these lines in
a 'debate' he had with me concerning the 2006/07 UK
Prison Workers' Strike
(that link is now dead, but I have reproduced much of the discussion
here):
"I can contradict someone's statements.
Can I also have contrary interests to yours? Could it reasonably be said that
someone's behaviour was contradictory? Or that someone's interests were
contradictory (in relationship perhaps to some goal they had)? Or that my
interests contradicted yours? Certainly some data might appear contradictory in
relationship to some enquiry we have about it. Does this not suggest that the
notion of a contradiction is not exhausted by what might go on inside a
proposition? In ordinary usage?" [Paragraphs merged. Quoted from
here.]
Now, in relation to
the
aforementioned strike, it looks like this comrade meant his comments to
apply to workers who support the state (and/or its laws) one minute, but act
against it/them the next. [Or perhaps even those who hold what appear to be inconsistent beliefs
about one or both of the latter.] But, put that way, this isn't even a contradiction
(ordinary or otherwise)! On the
other hand, if these workers both supported and refused to support this strike
at the same
time (and without ambiguity), that would at least have been a
contender for consideration as a contradiction, but he
plainly didn't mean that. Of
course, as we have seen, contraries
aren't contradictions, and "contradictory" isn't the same as
"contradiction". As indicated earlier, and as reiterated below: two contrary
propositions can't both be true, but they can both be false
at the same time -- so, in the present case, at best these two propositions
(i.e., the said workers (i) support and (ii) refused to support the strike)
would merely be inconsistent with (or contrary to) one another. That is because
both propositions would be false if the said strikers offered no opinion about
the strike or expressed sublime indifference toward it.
For example,
concerning these two inconsistencies/contraries: (a) "All swans are white", and
(b) "No swan is
white", can't both be true (in a non-empty domain),
but they
can both
be false. That would happen for instance, if both (c) "Some swan is not
white", and (d)
"Some swan is white" were true. [As we now know (c) turned out to be
the case when black swans
were discovered in Australia, and (d) is (currently) always true).] But, two contradictory propositions
can'tboth
be trueand can't both be false, at the same time. For
example, concerning: (e) "All swans are white" and (f) "Some swan is not white",
both can't be true and both can't be false, at the same time. When (e) is true,
(f) is false, and if (f) were ever true (e) would then be false. They always
have opposite truth-values (in a non-empty domain). [Why
a domain has to be
non-empty is to prevent certain propositions becoming vacuously true. So, if
there are no swans at all (and there never had been any), (b) would be vacuously
true while (d) would be false. But, the inference from "No swan is white" to
"Some swan is not white" is valid (if the first is true the second has to be
true in a non-empty domain), but here in this empty domain where there are no
swans, the first is true and the second is false! So, in order to prevent this,
logicians soon learnt to restrict these propositions to non-empty domains. For
more on this, see Quine (1954) -- or this much more expansive
Rutgers University PDF.]
Again,
Dialectical Marxists invariably
ignore such "pedantic" details -- that is, where they are even
aware of them!
Moreover, if someone
were presented with these two propositions: "All swans are white" and "Some
swan is not white", they will have be asked to consider two contradictory propositions.
However, we would only have a contradiction if
these two sentences were conjoined to give: "All swans are white and some swan is not white".
"Contradictory" applies to propositions or clauses that could be conjoined
to form a contradiction (or, one of which could be used to contradict someone who
asserted the other), whether or not they are so conjoined,
or so used. "Contradictory" also applies to states and performances (among other
things), which, if expressed in propositional or clausal form, could also be conjoined
to yield a contradiction, whether or not they are so conjoined. [Compare this
with the word "breakable": a
vase, for example, can be described as breakable -- that is, it can be broken, whether or not it
is actually broken. There
are analogous distinctions and complications that also apply to "contradict" and "contradiction". See
also here. We will
see later how
Kant succeeded in confusing himself and his readers by failing to notice such
fine distinctions. Indeed, we have
already seen
how Hegel also fell headlong into this trap.]
[The term "contradictory" can also apply
to
imperatives. Hence, the actioning of one imperative would countermand the
actioning of another, such as: "Open the
door!" (i.e., "Bring it about that the door is open!") and "Do not open the door!"
(i.e., "Do not bring it about that the door is open!"), which are contradictory
imperatives. By way of contrast, "Open the door!" (i.e., "Bring it about that the
door is open!") and "Close the door!" (i.e., "Bring it about that the
door is closed!") are merely contraries. That is because these two
imperatives would both be countermanded by the following: "Leave the door
alone!" (i.e., "Bring it about that the door isn't even touched!").
Clearly, much more could and should be said about Imperative Logic [on
this, see Hamblin (1987)], but further consideration would take us too far from the main aim of this Essay and this site.]
But even if
the above response is misguided in some way, do any of the paired
items (that the benighted comrade came out with) imply the other in that pair, such that
they both couldn't exist without one another (like the proletariat and the
capitalist class,
so we are told)? But that would have to be the case if they
were
'dialectical contradictions'. Do any of them struggle with and then change into
the other? Once again, they would have to do so if the
DM-classics are to be believed. The aforementioned comrade was,
unsurprisingly, silent on such issues.
In that case,
and to repeat: whatever else these examples are, they aren't 'dialectical
contradictions'.
There
is another excellent example of 'dialectical confusion'
like this in Simon Basketter's article in Socialist Worker
(unfortunately that link is now dead!)
about the same strike:
"However, there are contradictions in the role of prison officers. It is summed up by Cardiff prisoners chanting 'you're breaking the law' to
the strikers.... Prison officers' work, upholding law and order, frequently pushes them to
accept the most right wing ideas and actions of the system. One of their main
jobs is to control prisoners –- and throughout the prison system, many officers
have a proven record of racism and violence.
Some of the contradictions can be seen in the strike. In Liverpool the
POA
shop steward Steve Baines responded to the high court injunction by telling
fellow strikers, 'Tell them to shove it up their arse, we're sitting it out.' Yet when prisoners in the jail protested against their treatment, the POA
members rushed back in to control the situation and end a roof top protest."
[Paragraphs merged; link added.]
[Update
July 2026: I have just located
the new address for
the above article.]
But, what exactly is the 'contradiction'
here meant to be?
Maybe, it has something to do
with the following (at least, according to Basketter)?
P1: Prison officers uphold the law.
P2: This either results from, or leads them into,
holding right-wing ideas.
P3: But, this strike has forced some to defy
or disrespect the law.
P4: However, later, when some prisoners
protested, the same officers rushed back to work in order to re-establish
control.
Now, I have already commented on the
loose, indeterminate, often
careless and indiscriminate
way that Dialectical Marxists like to use "contradiction", but even given such conceptual
sloppiness, what precisely is the contradiction here?
Let us try again -- using "NN" this time to stand for the name of a randomly-selected prison
guard who thinks and acts along the above lines, and "L1"
to stand for a law he rejects, opposes, or defies even if only temporarily, and
"L2" for
other laws, not including L1:
P7: One day, as a result of the strike,
NN says
"Screw law, L1!"
[No pun intended.]
P8: Later that day he acts in support of a
totally different law, or set of laws, L2.
Once more, where is the contradiction?
Now, if NN had said, "Screw all laws!" we might be able to cobble-together an
inconsistency of some sort in this case. The inconsistency that would
emerge here might be something like: "All laws ought to be screwed!" and "No laws ought to be
screwed!". They are inconsistent since both of the latter can't be true at
the same time but they can both be false. [They would be false if both of these
were true: "Some law shouldn't be screwed!" and "Some law should be screwed!" --
plainly both of those can be true together (taking "ought" and "should" to be
equivalent in such circumstances).] But not even that is implied by the above story.
Of course, a contradiction in this case
could emerge as a result of something like
the following two alternatives:
(a) "All laws should be screwed" and "There is at least one law that
shouldn't be screwed."
Or, maybe even:
(b) "No laws should be screwed" and "There is at least one law that
should be screwed."
Is that what the above comrade meant?
Admittedly, people
say all sorts of odd things and it is relatively easy to
utter contradictory sentences. Who has ever denied it! [I have just posted
several contradictory sets of propositions in the last few paragraphs!] The question is, can both be held true, or
held false (or, in this case, advocated
and repudiated, asserted and denied, as a
practical, moral or political code), at the same time and in same respect? Well, did anyone from Socialist
Worker try to ascertain from the aforementioned prison guards if any of them
would have assented to and rejected the following, at the same time:
"All laws should be screwed" and "There is at least one law that shouldn't be screwed";
or, "No laws
should be screwed" and "There is at least one law that should be screwed"?
Apparently not.
Indeed, if NN had assented to "No laws should be screwed", we could
safely infer from his later course of action that he no longer held it true. Plainly, as a result of the strike he
must have come to accept something like the following in its place: "I now think there is at least one law (namely,
law,
L1)
that should be screwed".
And that would still be the case even if tomorrow
NN went back to holding his former beliefs about every law. Dialectical
Marxists, least of all,
shouldn't need
reminding that people and things change!
Unless, that is, we think NN
holds this odd belief: "I don't believe
that there is at least one law that should be screwed and I also believe there
is at least one law that should be screwed!" (referring to the same law each
time). Or, perhaps more perspicuously, "Screw
L1
and do
not screw
L1!"
Even so, it is also reasonably clear that we could only attribute
schizoid beliefs like this to NN if he were about to go insane, had
quaffed a few too many at the local bar, or had suffered
a recent blow to the head. We certainly
couldn't rely on such a confused character to help win a strike -- nor should we
depend on him to report
his genuine beliefs with any accuracy or consistency, either!He is just as likely to
tell anyone who asks him: "Yes I believe this and I do not...". Would Socialist
Worker have even quoted such a confused individual? There is considerable
room for doubt.
[No wonder
'dialectical reasoning' has (rightly) been described as a form of "mental
confusion", with one recent variant of DL labelled "Logic for
equivocators". On the latter, see
Lewis (1982) -- this
links to a PDF.]
Elsewhere at this site, I argue that 'dialectics'
was itself originally based on little more than
a series of egregious
logical blunders committed by Hegel (whether such blunders are those that are
now 'on their feet', the 'right
way up', or remain steadfastly 'upside down', it matters not), but I
also pointed out that DM-fans repeatedly base their
assertions on half-formed thoughts, egregiously garbled caricatures of logic
(both formal and
informal), backed-up by laughably thin evidence
-- which is why I have called their theory Mickey Mouse Science
and Minnie
Mouse Philosophy.
Simon Basketter's obscure claims
amply confirm
such accusations. For example, do
these odd beliefs, held by prison officers, imply each other -- like the
proletariat implies the capitalist class, such that one can't exist without the
other? Clearly not. Do they struggle with and then turn into one another, which they
should do,
according to the DM-classics? Again, no, they don't. If not, and for the nth
time: they can't
be 'dialectical contradictions', whatever else they are.
Did, Basketter even ask himself these questions? Apparently not.
In that case, why on earth did he use the word "contradiction"?
In answer to that question, the Impertinent
Explanation (from
earlier) gains increased credibility. He did do since it is traditional
(among DM-fans) to use "contradiction" in this loose and indiscriminate manner.
But, let us re-examine the words of the benighted comrade
(quoted above) and try to
determine if anything useful can be extracted from them:
"I can contradict someone's statements. Can I also
have contrary interests to yours? Could it reasonably be said that someone's
behaviour was contradictory? Or that someone's interests were contradictory (in
relationship perhaps to some goal they had)? Or that my interests contradicted
yours? Certainly some data might appear contradictory in relationship to some
enquiry we have about it. Does this not suggest that the notion of a contradiction is not exhausted by
what might go on inside a proposition? In ordinary usage?" [Paragraphs
merged. Loc cit.]
Consider this,
first:
"Could it reasonably be said that...someone's interests
were contradictory (in relationship perhaps to some goal they had)? Or that my
interests contradicted yours? Certainly some data might appear contradictory in
relationship to some enquiry we have about it." [Ibid.]
Well, who can honestly blame theorists
for wanting to use certain words in novel ways? However, the
examples alluded to by this comrade already seem to be expressed in perfectly ordinary language.
If so, why then the
following
question?
"Does this not suggest that the notion of a contradiction is not exhausted by
what might go on inside a proposition? In ordinary usage?"
Of course, the examples themselves relate to what humans beings do, or can think, so they
aren't much use in showing how there are, or can be, 'true contradictions' innature.
This benighted comrade might not have noticed (but it was
staring him in the face in the
example I gave
him, as it was in those
he himself listed) that contradictions often relate to the inner workings of one proposition
(for example, when someone might say "The Nile is and isn't longer than the
Amazon") just as they can apply to the connection between several propositions (like
interpreted versions of those listed earlier) --
both in ordinary language and FL. In which case, neither the complexities
of logic nor the confused state of this comrade's thought processes can be used to defend
him from his self-inflicted errors -- since he provides his own
counterexamples!
Consider this remark of his, for instance:
"Certainly some data might appear contradictory in
relationship to some enquiry we have about it."
Unfortunately, that is far too vague to
do much with. Perhaps he meant something like the following (if we take
an example drawn from Astronomy)?
D1:
The measured distance to star, YY, is 4.8 million light years.
D2:
The measured distance to star, YY, is 4.3 million light years.
But, these don't contradict each other,
since the true distance to YY could be 4.5 million
light years, making both D1 and D2 false.
And, it is irrelevant whether the true
distance to YY is actually 4.8 million or even 4.3 million light years. The fact is that
it might not be, or might not have been, either of these. If they
could both be false, they can't be contradictories of each other.
It is worth recalling that if this were a genuine
contradiction, D1 and D2 couldn't both be true and couldn't both be
false at once (whether or not one of them was either of these). At best,
therefore, D1 and D2 are inconsistent; they are contraries not
contradictories. So, even if D1 were true, it is still
the case that both D1 and D2 couldn't both be true, but could both
be false, at once. That couldn't happen if they were contradictories -- unlike the
following two, which are:
D3:
The measured distance to star, YY, is 4.8 million light years.
D4:
It isn't the case that the measured distance to star, YY, is 4.8 million light
years.
D4a: The
measured distance to star, YY, isn't 4.8 million light years. [This is
just
a more colloquial version of D4.]
Now,
D3 and D4 have to have opposite truth values (assuming, of course, that there
is such a
star); they both can't be true and they both can't be false. Given what
we mean by "star", YY has to be some distance or other from the earth. One
or other of D3
and D4 has to be true, and they have to have opposite truth-values. Either YY is 4.8 million light years from earth or it
isn't (otherwise the meaning of the words just used must have changed -- or the star itself has ceased to
exist, etc., etc.).
Some
might object that the above is misleading; the star will have moved while its
distance is being measured so the above 'either-or' is misguided. FL can't cope
with such changes, whereas DL can.
Or so
it might be argued...
However, even though this star might have moved, all that that would mean is
that D3 used to be true, and now it is false; and that in turn will imply that D4
used to be false, now it is true. My point remains valid; even in
circumstances where the star in question has moved, D3 and D4 will still
have opposite truth-values.
[Again, always assuming the star still exists! Any who object to a use
of the LEM in the above should check
this out, and then perhaps think again.]
Undeniably, an inconsistency might
end up implying a contradiction, but it is far from clear
that the
benighted comrade meant this. But, even if he did, who has ever denied
two propositions can contradict each other (if conjoined or uttered at the same
time by two individuals engaged in an argument)? I have
posted two such contradictions above -- D3 and D4! The point is, they can't both be true and they can't both be false, at
once.
As seems clear, DM-fans appear to want such contradictory propositions to be true,
or at least for that to be a viable possibility.
But, if that were so, it would automatically prevent
any such propositions from being contradictory, or from forming a
contradiction.
It might imply they weren't even propositions, to begin with!
On the other hand, the aforementioned,
rather confused comrade might have meant that
raw data (not yet expressed in a propositional context or form)
might contradict some theory or other. In that case, perhaps he meant something
like the following examples of
raw data (i.e., they were reports of raw data):
D5:
4.8 million light years.
D6:
4.3 million light years.
But, neither of these
is capable of being true or capable of being false -- since they aren't even
indicative sentences.
And, if that is so, they can't contradict
anything (since in order to do that they would both have to be capable of
being true or false -- D5 and D6 are noun phrases). Anyone not convinced of this
claim (that D5 and D6 can't be true or false, might like to
contact me and tell me whether or not
"4.8 million light years" is true or not (without confusing it with, say, D1).
These
two noun phrases
(i.e., D5 and D6) require an indicative sentential context for them to be capable of being
true (or false) -- for instance, as we saw with D1 and D2. But,
even then, they would merely be inconsistent, once
more.
D1:
The measured distance to star, YY, is 4.8 million light years.
D2:
The measured distance to star, YY, is 4.3 million light years.
But, couldn't D3 and D4, or even D5 and
D6, contradict the predictions of some theory or other (expressed by D7 or D8)? Perhaps this is
what was meant?
D3:
The measured distance to star, YY, is 4.8 million light years.
D4:
It isn't the case that the measured distance to star, YY, is 4.8 million light
years.
D7: Theory, TT, predicts that star,
YY, is 5.7 million
light years away.
D8: Observation tells us that
YY is 4.8 million light years away.
And yet, the proposition "YY is 5.7 million light
years away" (embedded in D7) is merely inconsistent with D8. The star could really
be 4.4 million light years away, which would make both D7 and D8 false. So, with D7 and D8
we are
once again dealing with
contraries.
In
which case, we
still don't have a contradiction!
Hence, until
the benighted comrade comes up with
clearer or more precise details about what he means, little more can be done with his
rather vague remarks. [He was asked several times, but he just ignores material
he doesn't like or can't answer.]
[I will, however, be
looking in detail at how data can 'contradict' a scientific theory, alongside the
confused things DM-fans have to say about that, in Essay
Thirteen Part Two, when it is published.]
Be this as it may, the question remains:
is it possible for an individual to have, or to entertain, contradictory
interests and goals (in a relationship, or elsewhere, perhaps), as this comrade asserts?
Perhaps by that he meant the following (for simplicity's sake, I will
concentrate on potential or actual interests an individual might have; the
argument can easily be extended to cover actual or potential goals -- those details will be left
for
the reader to fill in):
B1: MN has interest, A, in relationship, R.
B2: It is not the case that MN has interest, A, in
relationship, R.
That appears to be a genuinely
contradictory pair. If
B1 and B2 were conjoined they would form a contradiction --
always
assuming they both applied simultaneously and with no equivocation -- and
MN were a genuine Proper Name, the individual so named actually existing,
and there also is someone with whom they were in such a relationship!
B2a: MN has interest, A, in relationship, R,
and it is not case that MN has interest, A, in relationship, R.
But, did the benighted comrade mean this?
According to his own wording, apparently
not:
"Could it reasonably be said that...someone's interests
were contradictory (in relationship perhaps to some goal they had)? Or that my
interests contradicted yours? Certainly some data might appear contradictory in
relationship to some enquiry we have about it." [Loc cit.]
B2a
simultaneously attributes a certain interest to an individual and then promptly denies
the same interest of them, which doesn't seem to be what this comrade is trying
to say. An
interest and a lack of the same interest doesn't appear to be a contradiction in
any straight-forward sense (certainly not in a dialectical sense, since,
concerning one of those,
the factors involved both have to co-exist, which isn't the case here!). But even
supposing it is a contradiction, do these factors struggle with
each other and then turn into one another? Does one of them imply the other's
existence? It looks like neither of those is the case. Does an interest struggle with a
lack of interest and then turn into it? It is hard to see how anything can
struggle with a lack of something. Nor does an interest imply the existence of a
lack of interest (or vice versa)! But, both would have to be the case if this were 'dialectical
contradiction', as we have repeatedly seen. [Follow the above link for proof.]
Maybe that
is being a little unfair; in which case, it might be worth examining this
specific option in
more detail.
What about the following alternatives
(and assuming all the background conditions mentioned
earlier)?
B3: MN has interest, A, in relationship, R.
B4: MN has interest, B, in relationship, R.
B5: Interest, A, in relationship, R, contradicts interest,
B, in relationship, R.
There is no
'lack of an interest' for us to worry about here, so this looks a little more promising.
But, our hopes are soon dashed. In B5, if we are talking about
a literal contradiction (and not the
loose and ill-defined, dialectical-sort-of-contradiction we have come to
know and loathe), then A and B in relationship
R can
only contradict one another if they are expressed in propositions (or in clauses
-- i.e., in something capable of being true), as
indicated in B5a-B7:
B5a: Interest, A, contradicts interest, B.
B6: "A" stands for "I,
MN, must love my partner".
B7: "B" stands for "It is not the case that I,
MN, must
love my partner".
It is hard to see how anything could be called an interest
(as opposed to it being a vague sort of non-linguistic 'feeling') unless it were
expressed in this way, or some sort of equivalent.
The question before us now is: Can anyone
simultaneously assent, or give expression, to such
conflicting interests? Well, as we saw with
NN earlier,
people can assent to, or express, all manner of
odd ideas and feelings, so there is nothing to prevent B6 and B7 from forming the content of someone's overall
psychological make-up.
However, before we hastily label this a
'contradiction' ('dialectical' or otherwise), it is plain that it can, and should be, disambiguated
along lines that were suggested, and attempted, above (in relation to N3 and
N4, reproduced again below), providing we supply plausible background details (ignoring,
however, the
complexities mentioned in N2a and N2b). That
is because people don't just have
interests simpliciter, at least no more than they have emotions or
beliefs
simpliciter.
[For something to be an emotion it has to
have a motivating factor and be
object directed; so, we are angry with someone or something, fearful of
something or someone, proud of someone or something, etc., etc., --
all for specific reasons or causes. Of
course, an individual could just be in a fearful state with no (apparent) object of that
fear, but that would be enough to diagnose them as (acutely or chronically)
mentally disturbed or mentally ill (in this case, they would be said to be in the grip of an
irrational fear or experiencing an anxiety attack). This wouldn't count as a genuine emotion,
otherwise a mental disturbance wouldn't have been diagnosed. We can tell the
difference between a genuine emotion and a mental disorder by the fact that the
latter don't have clear objects (that aren't also delusional) -- or have what
are deemed irrational cases. This can be seen from the fact that if someone
tells us they are afraid, the normal response would be to ask what they are
afraid of and why they are afraid. (On this, see
here, as well as
Kenny (2003) and Hacker (2018).) Of course, someone could just be depressed but
not about anything in particular, which would mean their depression had no
specific object or readily apparent cause. Further psychological investigation might find a particular
reason for that state of mind, and hence identify its object (and cause), in some cases.
But, since any such state might end up having no object or relevant cause -- and it could even last
for weeks, months or years --, it is better described as a mood, or even a
psychiatric condition, not an emotion.
On this, see Frijda (1994) and Stephan (2017). Anyway, it is highly doubtful
that the benighted comrade currently being discussed had such 'emotions'/'moods' in
mind.]
As with most things connected with intentional
behaviour, such episodes are goal-, or object-directed (which is why we use
transitive verbs in
order to give expression to them). We wouldn't be able to make sense of
someone who was just in love, but with no one or nothing in particular.
But, here
are N3 and N4 again:
N3: At time, t, NN is both angry with
MM for lying
to her at t (because it was a violation of trust), and not angry with MM for
lying to her at t (because she fully understands the pressures on MM when he lied).
N4: At time, t, NN is both φ-ing
at t, and not ψ-ing at t.
[The reader is directed
here for an
explanation of these symbols.]
Hence, in the present case,
we would have something like the following:
N3c: NN feels she must love MM because of his
caring for her, and NN feels she mustn't love MM for sleeping with her best
friend.
[I have left N3c in a slightly stilted
form so that it is much clearer
what is being said.]
In that case, N3c is in fact
a variant on N4, now labelled N5:
N5: NN feels she must love MM for
φ-ing, and not
love MM for ψ-ing.
As
before, we have in effect two different objects of NN's love:
MM's caring for her (i.e.,
"φ-ing")
and MM's violation of her trust (i.e.,
"ψ-ing"). Which is, of course, why caveat N1 was
added earlier (now re-written as N1a):
N1: NN is both angry and not angry at the same time,
and with respect to the same object of that
anger.
N1a: NN both loves and does not love
MM at the same time, and with respect to the same object of, or
motivations for, that
love.
Plainly, in
N5, we have two different objects of, or motivations for, the said love,
and therefore no contradiction -- or, at least, no more than there would be one here:
N6: NN saw MN in the distance with her
binoculars.
N7: NN saw MM in the distance with her
binoculars.
Here we have two different objects of
NN's sight, MN and MM. If
anyone thought these two propositions were contradictory (or were even
inconsistent), that would be enough
evidence to
suggest they were in the grip of some form of linguistic confusion, not that they were the
discoverer of
a significant breakthrough in the science of optics -- or even philosophy.
[In fact, N6 and N7 aren't even inconsistent with one another. NN might be
able to see bothMN and
MM,
after all!]
It could be argued that the above
examples in fact express the cause of
those emotions -- or they express whatever it was that occasioned them -- not their objects. In fact, it
isn't too clear that this is a distinction with a difference, any more than these
are:
N8: MN in the distance caused NN to see him with her
binoculars.
N9: MM in the distance caused NN to see him with
her binoculars.
So, whatever the cause happens to be, the aforementioned emotions had
different objects -- linked in with different motivating factors (in N3 and N4,
for instance) --, and so aren't contradictory.
N3: At time, t, NN is both angry with
MM for lying
to her at t (because it was a violation of trust), and not angry with MM for
lying to her at t (because she fully understands the pressures on MM when he lied).
N4: At time, t, NN is both φ-ing
at t, and not ψ-ing at t.
Of course, if this benighted comrade meant something
different, he should perhaps learn to be a little clearer. Ditching his
infatuation with The Caliph of Confusion, Hegel, might help.
However, it
could be objected that it is reasonably clear what the contradiction is here, this:
B7a: NN: "I must love my partner
and it isn't
the case that I must love my partner".
Once more, even if this turns out to be
a contradiction, it is far
from clear how it qualifies as a 'dialectical contradiction' -- that is, should we
ever be told with any clarity what one of these is! So, and once more: do these two contradictory states
turn into each other, as
the DM-classics insist they should?Do they imply one another, as
the proletariat and the bourgeoisie are supposed to?
Ignoring that 'minor
niggle' for now, it is undeniable that
human beings experience conflicting emotions like this all the time (and they
even say rather odd things, too!), but when faced with
B7a, for instance, the normal reaction would be to respond with: "Er..., what on earth do you mean by
that?". And, we wouldn't be surprised if NN found it impossible to say why she felt this
way or what she meant -- without, at the very least, some form of
disambiguation or clarification, perhaps along the following lines:
N3d: "I love MM because of his
caring for me and I don't love MM for sleeping with my best
friend."
Or some
such (even if the above example is still rather odd).
If so, and once more,
no contradiction is implied.
But, even if B7a turned out to be an unambiguous contradiction, that would simply
confirm the fact that contradictions in ordinary language and in
logic are built around the content of propositions and the logical links
we hold between clauses and indicative sentences -- undermining the benighted comrade's point:
"Does this not suggest that the notion of a contradiction is not exhausted by
what might go on inside a proposition? In ordinary usage?" [Loc cit.]
The question now is: Has anyone ever held the quoted propositions in B6 and B7 both true
or both false at the same time? Or anything like them? Perhaps they have (who
can say?), but how that shows that there are in fact 'true
contradictions' in nature and society still remains far from clear.
B6: "A" stands for "I must love my partner".
B7: "B" stands for "It is
not the case that I must
love my partner".
[B5: Interest, A, in relationship, R, contradicts interest,
B, in relationship, R.]
As should seem
obvious, the fact that
someone believes (or holds) something to be true, or even believes something to
be false, doesn't automatically make what they believe true or make what they
believe false!
[Once again, it is worth recalling here that two contradictory propositions
can't both be true and can't both be false, at once. So, if someone
does assent to two contradictory propositions, they must believe both can
be
true or both can be false, at the same time and in the same respect. That is they must (implicitly,
or possibly even, explicitly) deny the following:
"Two contradictory
propositions can't both be true and can't both be false, at once." But,
that would mean they had misunderstood the word "contradiction"
-- or they had perhaps been led astray by a
persuasive definition of some sort. We
certainly can't build a new science of human behaviour (or update any old
science we might have inherited) on the basis of such (linguistic) confusion. Still less can we base revolutionary theory and practice
on it, either.]
However, it could be argued that because
NN holds the quoted propositions in B6 and B7 both true -- and when that
is
coupled with the fact that NN is an individual who exists in the real
world --, that shows it is
at least possible to assert the existence of true contradictions. Once
that possibility is allowed, the objections set out in this Essay can be seen for
what they are: empty rhetoric.
B6: "A" stands for "I must love my partner".
B7: "B" stands for "It is
not the case that I must
love my partner".
Or, so it might be claimed...
Indeed, an argument somewhat like this was
aired by
Roy Edgley a few years
ago:
"Since thought and theory are also part of
reality and thus real objects that can be thought about, contradictions in
thought, though not true of reality, certainly exist in reality;
and it is only because they do exist in reality that they can be the object of
criticism -- criticism for failing to be true of reality. Moreover, it is
because two contradictory theories can't both be true that each bears a
critical relation to the other: instantiated in actual thought this relation of
logical opposition is in fact a critical relation of real opposition, Kant
notwithstanding. It is no less logical opposition and no more simply natural
'conflict of forces' for taking the form of real historical and social
struggle." [Edgley (1979), pp.24-25. Bold emphasis alone added.]
The following would presumably be one such contradiction
and existential claim (although Edgley himself was apparently
interested in more overtly scientific propositions):
B8: Let "p" be "I must love my partner and it
is not the case that I must
love my partner".
B9: In so far as p exists, contradictions exist
in reality.
Edgley's argument appears to be the
following:
While a proposition like p wouldn't actually be true, it would still exist,
and hence contradictions exist (at this minimal level, at least). Admittedly, it is an entirely different matter whether p is true or false.
[I
will return to consider that option later on.]
So, what about the claim that this argument shows
that contradictions actually exist?
Well, certainly those words exit, but that is no more illuminating than the following
would be:
B10: Let "G" = "God".
[I.e., "G" stands for the word, "God".]
B11: In so far as G exists, God exists in
reality.
The question would still remain as to whether there is a 'God' or not.
[As those who know their logic will also
appreciate, Edgley has confused a
propositional sign with a proposition (and perhaps
also
use with mention). B10 and B11 partially expose that muddle.]
Someone might object:
the above argument (expressed in and by B10 and B11) confirms that the word "God" exists just as Edgley's
argument shows that contradictions exist.
Well, all it shows is that
a
propositional sign -- or a simple sign -- exists in some form or other, but the details become
rather unclear when we look to Edgley to tell us where he thinks such signs
actually do exist. Anyway, who has ever denied this? Put another way, Edgley's argument is no more illuminating than would be
an argument that had originally been aimed at trying to show that 'God' exists but which instead showed that the word "God" exists!
Once more, no one has ever questioned the existence of inscriptions of
contradictions (indeed, these Essays contain scores of them!), but that sheds no
light at all on the claim that there are 'real contradictions', or 'true
contradictions' (let alone 'dialectical contradictions'!), in nature and
society. If the mere thought of a contradiction, or an actual inscription
on the page (or screen), were enough to show that DM-contradictions exist in the
real world, then we should have to admit that there were 'real tautologies', too.
But worse, we should have to accept
LIE -- that is, the doctrine that from
thought or from words alone
substantive ontological conclusions
(as opposed to trivial inscriptional conclusions) may be
deduced.
[There will be more on this in Essay Twelve.]
[The
word "inscription"
above applies to physical marks on a page/screen/wall/blackboard/whiteboard/placard/cavewall
that aren't considered random but are held to be the product of intentionality, part of a natural-, or even a formal-language -- or perhaps
even a work of
art, no matter how 'primitive' or 'advanced' it is.]
But, signs and inscriptions don't have
such existential implications. If they
did, we should all have to believe in
the actual existence of
The Tooth
Fairy and
Bigfoot. At
best, therefore, all that Edgley's argument shows is that inscriptions of
contradictory sentences exist. How that idea helps DM-fans is a mystery.
Edgley then argues:
"Though a system of thought that is contradictory
can't be true of its real object, this isomorphic relation between the
structure of a society's thought and the structure of its material life thus
gives sense to the idea that such thought is true to that material life:
in being contradictory it 'reflects', and so discloses, though its content does
not explicitly assert, the contradictory structure of the material life of that
society." [Ibid., p.25. Italic emphasis in the original.]
Unfortunately, some writers are a little
careless over their use of words like "isomorphic". How, it might be wondered, can
a set of words be isomorphic to objects or processes in the world that they don't in any way resemble.
Especially since some of those words are abstract common nouns,
and many aren't even referential terms? With what are "if" and "or", for example,
isomorphic?
Putting this 'niggle' to one side, too, we might further wonder how Edgley knows this is indeed an "isomorphism" if none of
his 'contradictions' are true of capitalism, as even he concedes. Moreover, his claim that this theory is
"true to" capitalism is far from clear; how something can be "true to", but not
"true of", a social system is something Edgley failed to explain.
Edgley also asserts that these linguistic contradictions (or at least the
more theoretical examples to which he refers) are a "reflection" of "real
oppositions" in society. That claim has been partly defused below, and will be further
laid to rest throughout this Essay. [See also
here.]
Independently of this, Edgley makes a serious mistake (one that all DM-fans
are prone to committing): the confusion of
contradictions in FL with what might or might not exist. As noted above,
and again in Essay Four Part One, FL makes
no existential claims. To be sure, logicians as individuals might make such
claims, but logic itself is neutral in this regard (since logic isn't an agent, and
as such isn't capable of making assertions, still less any about the world). While it is true that certain logical systems
might need an
ontology (or even a
model)
in order to work, even then, contradictions don't make existential claims.
The background 'ontology' -- if there is one -- does 'all the heavy lifting' in that
regard.
To repeat: in its simplest form, a
contradiction in logic is merely the conjunction of a proposition with its
negation, such that both can't both be true and both can't be false at once. So,
the fact that inscriptions of contradictions exist has no bearing on that
logical principle. Furthermore, FL doesn't rule out the
existence of contradictions. That is because FL isn't a science, nor is it an agent
(as already noted).
It neither rules in, nor rules out, the existence of anything. In fact, in the construction of
indirect proofs, logicians and mathematicians make use of contradictions all the
time! The study of logic, in this
specific respect, revolves around the truth-functional implications that hold between a proposition and its
negation. So, FL isn't about existence in any shape or form.
In
that case, contradictions can't "reflect" anything, for they represent
one form
of the disintegration of the expressive power of language, as Wittgenstein
pointed out.
[Admittedly, there are many different
definitions of "contradiction" in FL and
Philosophical Logic.
That topic has been covered in Essay Eight Part Three,
here and here. Readers are directed there for more details. There is also more on this
here,
here and in
Essay Twelve Part One.]
"Perhaps someone is in the midst of an unhappy love affair and says
'I love him
but I also hate him'. It's not just the statement but the feeling which is a
contradiction surely? If Freud is held to describe the human individual not as a
unified subject but a bundle of contradictory drives and desires, might one not
imagine contradictory drives (if not desires) in a particular social system? Can I not have contradictory emotions about a subject, situation or person (I
know I do about all sorts of things!)." [Loc cit. Paragraphs merged.]
Thus, on the back of some rather egregious Freudian Pseudo-Science, this comrade is
content to build
his 'case'.
But, is there anything in these fraudulent Freudian
fantasies -- even if we put
to one side all the lies, deceit, client abuse, intellectual bullying,
cocaine-induced whimsy, paranoia, and fabricated evidence that marked Freud's
entire career?
Well, once more, the question is: Can people have, or be
subject to, contradictory emotions?
Perhaps these will
suffice?
B12: NN hates Tony Blair.
B13: It is not the case that NN hates
Tony Blair.
I suspect the benighted comrade didn't
mean a contradictory pair like that.
However, it is worth noting that love
and hate aren't automatically contradictory (when put in a propositional context), unless, say,
hating someone implies not loving them; but, as the above quotation shows, it
doesn't imply this! [That must be so unless by "contradiction"
this comrade meant something
entirely different. If so, what?]
Moreover, we have
already seen that B14 isn't even a contradiction, since it could be
false -- that would happen if NN were totally indifferent toward Blair.
Nevertheless, it is worth drawing the
reader's attention to the following comment:
The reader is advised to re-read
the caveats posted here. He
or she should note that in order to give content to the above ideas (if that is what
was
meant by the benighted comrade, or if his ideas actually mean anything at all), we had to use a propositional
context to make their implications clear,
once more.
That rather makes a mess of the
following rather rash remarks, courtesy of the aforementioned comrade:
"I'm just very puzzled about what it means to restrict the meaning of the term
contradiction to a rule of formal logic. It's always been the least compelling of
your arguments it seems to me. I don't understand the linguistic scandal that is
supposed to be involved in talking about the human subject as a 'bundle of
contradictory drives and desires' or talking about the capitalist system as
encompassing contradictory tendencies (how TRPF [the Tendency of the Rate of
Profit to Fall -- RL] is held to operate inside a concrete capitalist social
formation for example).... I don't see how there can be anything ipso facto absurd or meaningless about
such statements to anyone familiar with ordinary language." [Loc cit. Bold emphasis
added; paragraphs merged.]
There is no "scandal" here at
all. This comrade's badly garbled and ill-considered examples themselves imply the
conclusions reached earlier -- that is, when we try to make sense of them.
Evenhe
had to use propositions to inform us of these Freudian Foibles.
[Supposedly contradictory drives and emotions were
disambiguated
earlier. The alleged 'contradictions' in capitalism have been dealt with
here and
here.
Finally, it has already been pointed out, just as it was pointed it out to this comrade,
several times (since he tended to develop selective blindness and an
intermittent, highly suspicious, convenient case of amnesia whenever it
suited him):
my concerns aren't solely with FL-contradictions! We have been reminded
time after time of the many that can occur in ordinary discourse (and not just
in this Essay).]
Of course, it could be argued that certain
'brain states' (which, at some level, provide a material basis for psychological
or social forces) are what lie behind these contradictory emotions and tendencies
-- details concerning which seem to have exercised this benighted comrade -- and it
is perhaps here that these contradictions are to be found. [This also appears to be what motivated Professor
Edgley's remarks examined earlier. By the
way, this doesn't imply I accept these comments, or the next, as facts about 'brain
states' capacity to provide a material basis for psychological or social forces --
let alone
for thought. On that, see
here.]
Unfortunately, the theory that there are such things as 'contradictory forces'
has been laid
to rest in this Essay; but, the overall
idea is susceptible to the next series of objections, anyway.
[The argument below also applies to the
claim that there might be certain brain states, process, or psychological 'drives' -- or even social forces
and tendencies -- at work, about which we are as yet
unaware, that constitute 'material contradictions', or which cause or
'mediate' them. They could even turn out to be those mythical Freudian Fantasies
mentioned earlier. Who knows?]
To that end, let us define "Φ" as the brain states, processes, psychological
'drives' (conscious or unconscious), and/or social forces/tendencies that result in, 'mediate', or from which
"emerges", the following:
B15: NN loves Tony Blair.
Or, which could be expressed in the first
person:
B15a:
"I, NN, love Tony Blair."
Let us also define "Φ*"
as the brain states, processes, psychological 'drives'
(conscious or unconscious), and/or social
forces/tendencies, that result in, 'mediate', or from which "emerges", the following:
B16: NN hates Tony Blair.
Or, which can also be expressed in the first
person:
B16a:
"I, NN, hate Tony Blair."
So, "Φ" stands for the social or psychological forces (etc.,
etc.) that
'mediate' (etc., etc.) "NN
loves Tony Blair" (or its first person equivalent), and
"Φ*" stands for the social forces (etc., etc.) which 'mediate' (etc.,
etc.) "NN hates Tony
Blair" (or its first person equivalent). We can also stipulate that Φ
and Φ*
aren't fixed and immutable, but change in accord with whatever 'dialectic laws
or processes' DM-fans care to throw into the pot.
Let us further assume that Φ 'contradicts'
Φ* -- i.e., that they are
'dialectically-united/identical-but-also-different opposites'.
Now, even with such a generous give-away,
coupled with a range of
recklessly profligate and highly congenial assumptions, this
theory still can't work!
According to the
DM-classics,
all things change into their opposites, and they do so because of
a "struggle" on-going between them. If so, in this case,Φ must change into Φ*, and vice versa.
But,
Φ can't change intoΦ*
since Φ* already exists! If it didn't already exist, according to this
theory, Φ couldn't change, for there would be no opposite with which
it could 'struggle'
in order to make it do just that!
And, it is no good propelling
Φ* into the future so that it is instead what
Φ*will change into, since Φ* will do no such thing unless
Φ is already there to make
that happen!
Now, it could be objected that love can surely turn into hate, and vice versa.
Indeed, it can, but the whole point of introducing
Φ and Φ* was to show that if and when that happens,
DM can't account for it -- and for the above reasons! This is quite
apart from the fact that
Φ and Φ* aren't the abstractions love and hate, they are
real material states and processes
(etc., etc.). So, and once more, Φ can't turn into Φ* since Φ*
already exists!
[For those interested, this argument
has been developed in
extensive
detail here, where
'social contradictions' have also been taken into account. Several objections --
some obvious, some not so obvious -- have also been neutralised.]
Of course, if these aren't
'dialectically-united opposites' to begin with, then the above comrade's
objection fails by default.
Additionally, and once more: do these brain states (etc., etc.) imply
each other, such that neither can exist in its own (like the proletariat can't
exist on its own -- so we are
told)?
But one item of this pair can surely exist without the other. If so, these
states (etc.) can't 'interpenetrate' one another -- again, unlike, say, the
capitalist class and the proletariat -- which (for (n+1)th time), imply one another
such that one can't exist without the other.
So, we see
yet again that none of this makes sense,
even in
DM-terms!
Finally, the following represents an
edited version of an exchange between myself and a far more reasonable comrade
(whose name has been withheld at their request):
Comrade M (commenting on the dialectical use of
the word "contradiction"): I mean what most people mean -- conflict,
inner tension...
Rosa: Do they really? Give me one sentence drawn from ordinary language (the vehicle
most people do in fact use, so what you say should appear there, somewhere)
where such an interpretation could be put on the word "contradiction"
-- i.e.,
one not infected with the sort of idealist guff you read in Hegel. An idealist
will have no problem with asserting such things; if reality is Mind it can
surely argue
with itself. Not so a materialist who bases his/her science on the language
of ordinary workers (ordinary language).
But, even then, why call such things "contradictions"? What link does this
particular use
have with the "gainsaying" of someone, which is what the word usually means?
How is a conflict in society a contradiction?
Sure, you can re-define the word to mean whatever you like, but if we all did
that
we could re-define anything to mean anything, and we'd lose touch with meaning
altogether.
Apart from that, you'd be forcing a view
onto reality (contrary
to what 'dialecticians' tell us they never do), not reading one from it.
Linguistic Idealism -- as I asserted in those parts of my work I sent you --
would then automatically have raised its ideal head. Society would be
'contradictory', not because it really is so, but because we have re-defined
it to be so. A linguistic dodge would have created a few empirical 'truths';
this is 'science' on the cheap...
Comrade M: Rosa said: "Give me one
sentence..." Okay, what about "Don't you contradict me you little bastard!" Or
"That's a
contradiction in terms".
Suppose someone says "military intelligence" is a contradiction in terms. What
they mean is that there is a conflict or a tension between the first and the
second word, thus conjugated.
At any rate, you are berating a new convert. I can't be expected to know
everything at once, much less know it as wisely as the central committee (you).
Rosa: First, the phrase "contradiction in
terms" is either a misnomer or a rhetorical device. Why? Well, since contradiction has to do with truth and falsehood
as much as it has to do with "gainsaying", and since one term on its own
can't
be true or false (only sentences and clauses can be), and since single words do
not say anything, no term can contradict
another.
In that case, "contradiction
in terms" means something like "incompatible phrase(s)", as in "round square".
Now, "A is round and it is square" would only be a contradiction if
"A is round" were taken to mean "A is not square", but then you would not now
have a contradiction in terms, just a sentential contradiction with no "conflict (or) inner
tension" anywhere in sight.
And, if the above conclusion were
rejected (for some reason), you still wouldn't have a "contradiction in terms" that expressed some
sort of
"conflict (or) inner tension", since, once more, words can't conflict (or be
tense, or be in tension) because they aren't agents. Moreover, anyone who
uttered a "contradiction in terms" would not necessarily be in "conflict (or)
inner tension", just confused. And even if they weren't confused, the
"contradiction in terms" they uttered wouldn't necessarily indicate "conflict
(or) inner tension"; it could be a sign of all manner of things (ranging from
lack of clarity, through puzzlement, to playfulness).
As to the idea that such a phrase could indicate
the presence of "conflict (or) inner tension" I have no doubt, but if a
"contradiction in terms" meant that a "conflict (or) inner tension" had to be
present, it would mean this, and not merely could mean this, just as the truth of
"not p" would mean the falsehood of "p" (as opposed
merely to "not p" could
mean the falsehood of "p"). So they can't be synonymous, as you allege.
[Apologies for the prolixity of that paragraph, but logic
is a pain in the dictionary!]
But, even if this weren't so,
"contradiction" here still wouldn't mean "conflict (or) inner tension",
it would mean "gainsaying oneself or another", which could be true without an
inner conflict being implied. It might be a joke, an attempt to puzzle, part of
a game, a mistake, etc. The possibilities are endless. The
attempt to squeeze this into an idealist boot can only succeed if the almost
endless possibilities allowed for by ordinary language are ignored, or can be
ruled out.
As for "Don't you contradict me you little bastard!", the
verb "to contradict" in this command (it isn't in fact a proposition, so it
can't itself be a contradiction, literally speaking -- not that you suggested
it was) clearly means "gainsay". No quibble there. But, if it meant
"conflict, inner tension", you would have:
"Don't you conflict/inner tension me you little bastard!",
which is meaningless.
Even if we were to edit this down to:
"Don't you conflict with me you little bastard!",
it wouldn't mean the same as:
"Don't you contradict me you little bastard!"
One can conflict
with someone without contradicting them, and vice versa (e.g., two friends could
contradict each other (out of fun) without conflicting with each other, say).
Hence these can't mean the same.
However "Don't
you inner tension with me you little bastard!" can't be beaten into shape at
all.
Of course, I
should have also pointed out that if we already have words (such as "conflict")
that adequately capture what we mean, why do we need to repurpose the word "contradiction"
in this way, especially since it brings in its train such unwelcome political baggage? [I
have explained just what this 'baggage' is in Essay Nine
Part Two -- to which
we can now add the multiple confusions exposed in this Essay.]
Because
Dialectical Marxists have so far neglected to explain with any
clarity, or in any detail, what it means to equate 'opposing forces' in nature and society
with 'contradictions', I have been forced to offer several of my own attempts at
clarification (no pun intended). All have so far failed. In this final
sub-section I will endeavour to present what I think is the only viable interpretation
of the presumed link between such forces and 'contradictions'.
[DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context.]
We have seen that the concepts DM-theorists have
imported from
Mystical Christianity and Hermetic Philosophy have badly
failed them when any attempt is made to apply them, or relate them to forces operating in nature and
society. In that case, other than the ideological reasons outlined in Essay Nine
Part Two (summarised
below), the
impertinent answer -- to the question why hard-nosed
revolutionaries insist on using such obscure, mystical jargon (which terminology
they struggle to explain, anyway) -- is the only one left standing:
Dialecticians use obscure jargon like this
simply because it is traditional to
do so.
That means
this part of DM (which has now been hooked up to a heart monitor, in Intensive Care) is
ready to be measured for a nice pine overcoat and lowered six feet closer to the Earth's
Core:
Figure
Sixteen: DM -- An Aging Theory On Its Last Legs
[This is an AI Image generated
using the free software available at
this site.]
A Last Desperate Attempt
However, before we call for
The Hermetic High Priest to read DM its Last Mystical Rites, in all fairness we
need to make one last attempt to resuscitate this moribund 'theory'.
In fact, we are now
in position to reconsider several abandoned alternatives from earlier in an attempt to rescue this part of DM from its
long overdue appointment with a mortician.
Below, I present another re-interpretation of the supposed connection between
'opposing forces' and 'contradictions', based on F6-F9, from earlier (which can
be widened to encompass social forces):
F6: Let force, P1, oppose force,
P2, in configuration, C1, in nature.
F7: Here, opposition amounts to the following: the normal
effects produced by P1 in C1 (had P2
not been present) are the opposite of the effects P2 would
have produced in C1 (had P1similarly not
been operative).
F8: Let P1's normal effects in C1
be elements of an event set, E1, and those of P2
be elements of an event set, E2. For the purposes of simplicity, let E1
and E2 be disjoint.
F9: By F7, E1
and E2
contain only opposites, such that elements of E1
and E2,
taken pair-wise respectively from each set, form oppositional couples.
To this we can
now add the following:
F58: Force, P1, contradicts P2
in so far as some or all of E1 and E2
are contradictory (internally, or with one another).
Unfortunately, this latest re-interpretation can't work, either.
That is because if one or both of E1 and E2
don't exist (as a result of the operation of P1 and P2
again!) there can be no contradiction. As we have seen several times already,
F58 would imply a 'contradiction' between sets of events not all of which
co-exist.77
Fortunately, there are other ways of re-interpreting
the above, which I will now explore.
[HM
= Historical Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context.]
Another way of proceeding involves events that are 'internally contradictory',
perhaps along the following lines:
F58: Force, P1, contradicts
force, P2,
in so far as some or all of E1 and E2
are contradictory (internally, or with one another).
F58a: Force, P1
contradicts force, P2, in so far
as the event set
that one or other of them produces (i.e., E3)
is internally contradictory.
Given that one or
more of the elements of E3 (or even E3
itself) could be 'internally contradictory', F58, or perhaps F58a, might
allow the interpretation of 'contradictions' as 'opposing forces' to stage a late,
semi-miraculous
recovery.
Unfortunately, even
if sense could be made of 'contradictory contemporaneous events', the link
between 'opposing forces' and 'internally contradictory sets of events' would once again
have been severed. Hence, even if F58 and F58a were
completely acceptable, they would still fail to connect 'contradictions' with
'opposing forces', merely with the inter-relationship between the effects of
forces.
Alternatively, let us suppose P1
and P2 operate as the above
propositions suggest. In that case, plainly, given the truth of F58a, onlyE3
would now exist. But, if E3
were 'internally contradictory', presumably parts
of it (i.e., sub-events of E3
-- for instance, E3i
and E3k)
would constitute the imagined 'internal contradiction'. In that case, F58a
would simply become a variant of F58.
[Of course, if,
as we were told, 'dialectical
contradictions' are "mutually exclusive", they can't co-exist. In which case,
E3i
and E3k
can't co-exist, either, and so they can't 'contradict' one another!]
On the other hand, if
all of E3
(i.e., all its sub-events)
were in this state because of its 'internally contradictory' dispositional
properties, then that, too, would be a non-viable alternative, and for reasons that
have already been aired. [On that, see the discussion of F57
earlier this Essay.]
Unfortunately, as far as F58
itself is concerned, if one event prevents another from happening, no
contradiction is implied anyway, since such a 'conflict' would have only one real term
-- as we have seen
several times already. [See, for example, Interlude Nine.]
[Nevertheless, this might
allow for the consideration of more complex examples/situations supposedly drawn from
HM. On that, see another
earlier discussion.]
Anyway, as far as
events being
'internally contradictory' is concerned, we saw that that was a dead-end, too (in
Part One of this Essay).
It might be felt that
"mutually exclusive" doesn't imply that the items involved can't, or
don't, co-exist. After all, the capitalist class
and the proletariat are mutually exclusive, but plainly they can and do
co-exist.
However, as we
also saw earlier, Dialectical Marxists simply assume there is
a link between "mutually exclude" and "oppositional" and/or "contradictory". But, many
things in nature and society mutually exclude one another without implying a
contradiction, or even "opposition". The reader is referred to Interlude Fourteen for
more details --, where it was shown that this entire approach is hopelessly
vague and seriously misguided (that is, where any sense could be made of it).
It
looks, therefore, like this particular interpretative seam has been thoroughly
worked-out. There is no 'gold' to be mined from it. Unfortunately, what little
apparent 'gold'
there appeared to be --
foolishly mined long ago by Hegel & Co. -- turned out to be nothing
but
Iron Pyrites
(i.e., 'Fools Gold').
We need to find a new approach to save this rapidly fading 'theory'
from being sent to the
Knackers Yard.
[DM
= Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, depending on the context; HM = Historical
Materialism/Materialist, also depending on the context.]
The last remaining escape route left open to
Dialectical Marxists relies on
reviving yet
another interpretation postponed from earlier (no pun intended), wherein
'contradictions' were said to exist between (i) the effects of 'opposing forces' (or
between such forces and the effects of other 'opposing forces'), rather than
(ii) between
the forces themselves. This alternative involved taking
Engels's suggestion
seriously:
that forces should be edited out of the picture leaving behind only the relative motion between bodies
--,
in order to give some content to
the idea that 'contradictions' can cause change.
As we saw
earlier, the first of these had to be abandoned because
it meant that such forces 'contradicted' prevented effects, involving this
part of the theory with the idea that 'opposing forces' could 'contradict' non-existent
entities. The second appeared to undermine the dialectical unity of
nature. All this was established earlier.
Nevertheless, I now propose to examine a re-vamped version of the first of these
alternatives -- i.e., Option (i) -- , aimed at circumventing these
persistent and annoying 'problems'.
The good news is that this new
alternative solves the problem created
by the second option.
The bad news
is that this step simply introducesfar worse difficulties of its own.
The aforementioned earlier attempt was based on the following
set of propositions:
F17: Event, E, consists of a set of
inter-connected sub-events, E1-En.
F18: E1-En form
a complex of material interactions (of a sufficiently mediated and contradictory
nature) within T.
F19: Let P1 prevent some or all of E1-En
from taking place.
F20: Therefore, some or all of E do not
exist, will never exist, or do not take place.
["T"stands for "The Totality".]
As we saw above, an existing force, P1,
appears to 'contradict' a non-existent event (or series of events), which
rendered this particular interpretation useless. The following re-vamped version seems to
fix that 'glitch':
F59: Event, E, consists of a set of
inter-connected sub-events, E1-En.
F60: E1-En form
complexes of material interactions (of a sufficiently mediated and contradictory
nature) within T, if ever they occur.
F61: Let P1 prevent some or all of E1-En
from taking place.
F62: Therefore, some or all of E
do not exist, will never exist, or do not take place.
F63: Hence, propositions that express the fact that one or more of E1-En
have been prevented from
taking place contradict propositions that express an expectation that they will occur.
Since, an expectation
can exist alongside
a realisation that that expectation has
been thwarted (in some cases), this appears remove the 'difficulty'.
The bad news
is:
F63 is clearly of little use since, not only would it be
inapplicable throughout the Universe at all times, it doesn't even record a contradiction.
[That is because the propositions
it implicates are of the form "p and q" not "p and not
p", which is what was required -- where
"p" is, say, "Ek
has been prevented", and "q" is, say, "Ek
was expected" --, when the following were needed: "Ek
has been prevented" and "Ek
has not been prevented", etc.]
F63 might now be modified
to avoid this new set-back, perhaps along the following lines:77a
F64: Propositions that express
the prevention of one or more of E1-En
from
taking place contradict propositions that depict the dispositional properties of Pn,
the set of forces that would have produced all of E1-En
but for the presence of P1.
One immediate problem with F64 is that it isn't at all clear
what the "dispositional properties" of forces are. Objects
certainly have dispositional properties as a result of their microstructure and their relationship with other bodies -- if, that is, the term "dispositional"
is read in its traditional sense. [More on that in a later
Essay. In the meantime, on 'dispositions', see
Choi and Fara (2018).]
Even so, since forces
aren't
obviously body-, or particle-like (although they can apparently be carried by
bodies/particles -- if certain theories in
Contemporary Physics are accepted --, but even then this
would now be explained in terms
of transferred momentum, i.e., along neo-Engelsian lines!),78
the ascription of dispositions to forces themselves amounts to a
disguised reference to the affect that forces could or would have on certain bodies
under certain circumstances. In that case, we
would have here an explanation
of "contradiction" that appealed to the effect of effects, once more.
[Anyway,
F64 doesn't even record a contradiction since the propositions it
expresses, once more, are of the form "p and
q", not "p and not p",
as indicated earlier.]
Nevertheless, perhaps F64 can be re-jigged -- maybe
in the following way?
F65: Propositions that express
the prevention of one or more of E1-En
from
taking place contradict propositions that depict the normal operation of Pn, the set
of forces that would have produced all of E1-En,
but for the presence of P1.
Unfortunately, not only does F65 fail to record a contradiction
(yet again: the propositions it expresses are of the form "p and
q", not "p and not p"), hence what it says
turns out to be yet another re-run
of the (direct) inter-relationship between forces as a way of understanding
'contradictions', instead of the present model, which sought to interpret
'contradictions' as the relationship between forces and the effects of
other forces.
Anyway, F65 is of little use: if the normal operation of
Pn
is prevented (so that it doesn't take place), there would be
nothing for P1 to
'contradict'. This annoying, but
recurring, 'problem' is precisely what prompted a turn to the current approach
-- the
actual effects of forces -- since they do exist, as opposed to the
prevented effects of forces -- or even forces which cease to operate --, which don't.
It now seems that unless we can specify how the
effects of forces can 'contradict' other forces (or other effects), this
part of DM will be as good as dead -- even if not yet buried/cremated. Maybe the following
option will help resuscitate it:
F66: Propositions that express the prevention of
one or more of E1-En
taking place contradict
propositions that express the operation of Pn,
such that the presence of E1
(i.e., an effect of P1) excludes some or all of E2-En.
However, this is no use, either, since it matters not how effectively
some or all of E2-En
are excluded; E1
may only 'dialectically contradict' that which exists, and, ex hypothesi,
once excluded, some or all of E2-En would no longer be
around to be 'contradicted' in this or in any other way.
The next suggestion constitutes, in my view, the
only way to keep this critically ill part of DM from
joining The Choir
Invisible:
F67: The prevention of one or more of
E1-En
taking place contradicts the aims of Pn, the set of forces
that would have produced all of E1-En but
for the presence of P1.
[However, F67 will need to be re-written in
'propositional' form, but since that would make this example even more
unwieldy than it already is, that tedious task has been left to the reader. (No
thanks required!)]
The good news is that since aims
can exist where results and effects do not, we
seem at
last to have a genuine 'contradiction'.
The bad news is that this
seemingly life-restoring tonic soon turns into a dose of
Strychnine.
That is because, of course, not only
does F67 fail to record a contradiction (for reasons given several times already --
the propositions it expresses to are of the form "p and
q", not "p and not p"),
we can't attribute aims to forces unless we wish to introduce teleology
and anthropomorphism
into nature and society.
F67 can therefore only apply to forces under the control of
human agents -- or to their animistically projected counterparts in
nature -- that is, if we are determined to go down this route and picture
nature and society in
such mystical terms.
It is therefore no surprise that the only interpretation
that appears to make this part of DM viable is one that reveals the
anthropomorphism implicit in the concepts its theorists have imported from Hegel
and Mystical Hermeticism.
Alternatively, it is equally
unsurprising that this is the
only option that underlines an approach that
works in HM, one that puts forces under human control (but still with no
'contradictions' anywhere in sight).79
Unfortunately, this now means that F67 can't help
revivify the lifeless DM-corpse.
It was argued earlier that there were insurmountable problems facing any attempt
to identify 'opposing forces' with 'contradictions' -- i.e., if they are viewed as, or were
based on, 'dialectically-united opposites'. In connection with that we have
seen
that the DM-classicists
maintained that all such
opposites inevitably turn into each other, into that with which
they have struggled. Is it even plausible
to suppose forces are capable of doing this? Is it credible that a gravitational force,
for example, can turn into a magnetic force, or an electrical force? Do all
R-type forces turn into
A-type forces? Where in Physics
has it been established, or even proposed, that gravity can become a
repulsive force, its opposite? Admittedly, Physicists have invented
something they call 'Dark
Energy' to try to explain how the expansion of the universe seems to be
accelerating (since this new 'energy' opposes the effects of gravity, which
would tend to slow that expansion), but do these two (gravity and 'dark energy'
struggle with, and the turn into, each other? I have yet to see a single
scientist claim they do. If so, they can't be 'dialectical opposites', whatever
else they are. In that case, 'Dark Energy' is no friend of DM.
Do any of the other forces 'struggle'
with each other? Undoubtedly, electricity and magnetism are
inter-linked in modern Physics (via
Maxwell's Equations; and are in fact manifestations of one of the
four fundamental forces, so we are told), but they certainly don't 'struggle'
with one another, and neither do the particles on which they depend. According
to current theory, such forces are "carried" by Exchange Particles,
which aren't (by any stretch of the imagination) an expression or result of a 'struggle' going
on between such particles. [It turns out that if
Quantum Field Theory is correct, there are no particles anyway! That
surprising denouement was covered in more detail Essay Seven
Part One.]
Admittedly, magnetic fields (such as
the Earth's) are
reversible (that is,
the North and South Poles can sometimes flip), as are electrical fields, but that isn't
true of all fields (even though all four of the above forces can and do change in a variety of ways), but it is far
from clear that this is because of any 'struggle' going on in or between them.
For example, the
origin of the reversal of the Earth's magnetic field may lie deep inside the
planet's
core, or, perhaps, inside the crust --, or it may even have an external cause
(with one set of theorists even blaming meteor impact) --currently,
scientists aren't too sure. But, to my knowledge not one single Geophysicist is investigating the alleged 'contradiction', or even 'struggle', between
the North and South Poles (of the Earth's magnetic field) to find
the 'real' cause of any such flip. And even when electric currents reverse, the
question naturally arises: What exactly has been
'struggling' with what?
[Of course,
the above
magnetic phenomenon is a consequence of the direction of a field carried by
certain particles, which simply reverses. But, it doesn't turn into its 'opposite'. It
could be argued that the direction of that field does indeed turn into
its opposite; maybe so, but that isn't the result of one direction struggling
with the other! Anyone who disagree with that conclusion might like to
email me with their best explanation of how
two directions can possibly struggle.]
Hence, even if it should turn out
that every single one of the objections aired in this Essay is misguided in some
(as-yet-to-be-determined) way, the 'dialectical' equation of
'opposing forces' and 'contradictions' doesn't workeven in its own terms!
Do the Relations of Production really turn
into the Forces of Production? Does a use-value struggle with and then change
into an exchange-value? Do any of these factors imply the other like the proletariat implies
the bourgeoisie (so we are told)?
Since there appears to be no way that DM-'contradictions' can be
given a literal, oreven a figurative, interpretation that equates
or identifies them with 'opposing forces' (in nature or society, in
an abstract or in any sort of concrete form) and which is capable of surviving scrutiny, this area of DM can at last be given a decent
burial.
One of the more recent Dialectical
Marxists attempting to connect 'opposing forces' with 'dialectical
contradictions' is Thomas Weston [Weston
(2012)].
I have added several thoughts about his badly failed attempt:here,
here,
here,
here,
here, and
here.
Here also is
Maoist, Lenny Wolff (who has clearly used different editions of the works quoted
to those referenced at this site; I have nevertheless provided links to their more
usual on-line sources):
"To begin with, the method forged by Marxism -- materialist dialectics --
is the most systematic concentration of the scientific method ever achieved, the
most accurate and critical tool of inquiry into the world (indeed, the universe)
and how it works. Marxism is materialist: it focuses on the material world
for the ultimate causes and directions of every event and phenomenon in nature
or society. And it is dialectical in that it comprehends all phenomena in their
changingness (sic) and development and in their interaction with other
phenomena, and because it studies the struggle of opposites within a thing or
process as the underlying basis of its motion and change.... (p.12)
"Constant development and
transformation, explosiveness and changeability, all based on the struggle of
opposites, drives forward not only the sun but the entire material universe; and
this fundamental law forms the basis of materialist dialectics. 'Marxist
philosophy,' Mao wrote, 'holds that the law of the unity of opposites is the
fundamental law of the universe. This law operates universally, whether in the
natural world, in human society, or in man's thinking.' ('On the Correct
Handling of Contradictions Among the People,' MSR, pp.442-443). [Wolff is
here quoting from Volume Five of Mao's Selected Works, but this passage
occurs on p.392 --
RL.]
"To grasp the
contradictory properties within a phenomenon and the character of their constant
struggle and mutual transformation, to understand how that struggle in turn
gives rise to qualitatively new things -- that is the heart of the dialectical
method.... The struggle and interpenetration of
opposites that actually give a thing or process its character generally goes on
beneath the surface. Dialectics uncovers the hidden mainsprings not apparent to
'sound common sense,' which as Engels once remarked, while a 'respectable
fellow...in the homely realm of his own four walls, has very wonderful
adventures' when he enters 'the wide world of research.' (Anti-Dühring,
p.26) [Wolff is here quoting
Marx and Engels (1987),
p.22 -- RL.]
"...[After quoting
Lenin -- RL] Note that Lenin underscores 'All phenomena' in his opening
sentence. Can this be true? Is everything driven forward by internal
contradiction?... Contradiction is
universal, propelling every process and thing. But universality also
means that in the development of each thing, a movement of opposites goes on
from beginning to end. The growth of a child, for instance, unfolds in
contradictions between bursts of rapid growth and periods of relative
consolidation, dependence and independence, learning the old ways and forging
and trying out (their own) new ideas. Where, at any point in the process, is
there not contradiction and struggle?... Lenin lays great stress on
internal contradictions as the 'driving force' of development; but this does
not mean that external causes play no role at all. Ice, when heated enough,
changes into water, which is certainly a change in quality, and not just
degree (as one can test by diving into a swimming pool full of ice cubes, or
pouring water into a Coke). Still, this does not make external causes principal;
no amount of heat can transform ice into chocolate milk, or molten Iead. The
ability of ice to undergo certain qualitative changes and not others results
from its internal contradictions, in this case the contradictory properties of
hydrogen and oxygen in their simultaneous interdependence and struggle with each
other. Yet that example alone doesn't
sufficiently address the question of the relation between internal and external
contradictions. Can it not be said, for example, that the transformation of
water into steam is the result of the contradictory struggle between heat and
water -- in other words, that on a different level (e.g., considering a steam
engine) the contradiction between water and heat is internal and not external?
And that ultimately the very concept of external cause is meaningless?
"No, it is not meaningless...but it
is relative. This is bound up with the fact that there are qualitatively
different levels to the structure of matter (speaking here of all matter,
whether subatomic particles, human societies or galaxies). Water molecules, for
example, contain atoms. These atoms, however, are not 'mini-molecules,' but
qualitatively different organizations of matter with distinct contradictory
characteristics, properties and structures. Their combination into a molecule is
conditional -- and in the absence of certain underlying conditions, the molecule
will break down. But, at the same time, the behaviour of these atoms when they
are integrated into the structure of a molecule will be more determined
by the contradictions of the molecule than by their own internal particularities
as atoms.... The point here is that the
concrete character of the process or thing being analyzed must be kept to
the forefront. There are different levels of structure to matter, and any level
is both relatively autonomous and at the same time linked to and influenced by
other levels. Therefore clarity on what exactly is under study, and on that
basis which contradictions should be considered internal and which external, and
how they relate, is critically important to dialectical analysis. Mao emphasized
understanding the 'law of contradiction in things in a concrete way.' ('On
Contradiction,' MSR, p.90) The actual opposites which constitute and push
forward the development of a thing or process must be ascertained, their
interaction and struggle studied and understood.... [Wolff is here quoting from
Volume One of Mao's Selected Works, but this passage occurs on
p.315 -- RL.]
"To begin with, identity has both a
popular and a philosophical meaning. Philosophically, the identity of opposites
does not mean that the two aspects of a contradiction are the same as
each other, or can't be told apart; it refers instead both to the coexistence of
opposites within a single entity, and to their property
under certain circumstances of
transforming into each other, thereby qualitatively transforming the
character of the thing or process at hand. To begin with the first aspect of
the philosophical meaning of identity, the coexistence of opposites: while every
entity or process is a contradiction composed of opposing forces, through most
of their existence entities exist in a relatively stable state. To put it
another way, within any entity or process there are new and rising forces
struggling against the framework of the thing, striving to negate its character
and bring something new into being; nevertheless, at any given time a thing is
still more itself than 'not itself.'... The opposites in a contradiction coexist
with one another, and this (temporary) coexistence is one aspect of what is
meant by the 'identity of opposites.' Such coexistence, however, is not
static; it's more in the character of a relatively stable framework within which
the ceaseless struggle of opposites goes on. And this ongoing struggle of
opposites partially alters the character of the identity itself even before it
reaches a point of intensity which fundamentally ruptures the identity (or the
framework). Let's look at a few other cases of
mutual coexistence and interdependence of opposites. Life is obviously
diametrically opposed to death -- but really, wouldn't the very concept of life
be meaningless without death, and vice versa? Death only has meaning as a limit
to life, and life itself only continues so long as organisms break down and
synthesize elements from dead plants and animals (and simultaneously expel the
dead cells and toxic waste from their own selves).
"Such coexistence, however, is not
static; it's more in the character of a relatively stable framework within which
the ceaseless struggle of opposites goes on. And this ongoing struggle of
opposites partially alters the character of the identity itself even before it
reaches a point of intensity which fundamentally ruptures the identity (or the
framework). Let's look at a few other cases of
mutual coexistence and interdependence of opposites. Life is obviously
diametrically opposed to death -- but really, wouldn't the very concept of life
be meaningless without death, and vice versa? Death only has meaning as a limit
to life, and life itself only continues so long as organisms break down and
synthesize elements from dead plants and animals (and simultaneously expel the
dead cells and toxic waste from their own selves). Or take war; war is qualitatively
different from peace -- still the two have identity as well. Peace treaties turn
out to be nothing but the framework within which rival bourgeoisies compete with
each other and prepare for new wars, while war itself is not conducted for its
own sake, but to set the terms for new (and more favourable) peaceful
arrangements. And there is identity and struggle in the contradiction between
just and unjust wars, too -- as when the Russian proletariat transformed the
unjust, imperialist war waged by its own bourgeoisie in World War 1 into a
revolutionary civil war in Russia. Further, wars waged by oppressed classes and
nations for their liberation develop as a qualitative leap out of the --
relatively -- nonmilitary struggle of the oppressed against the oppressor.
"But the matter, does not end with the
dependence of opposites upon each other for their existence. As Mao wrote:
'...what is more important is their transformation into
each other. That is to say, in given conditions, each of the contradictory
aspects within a thing transforms itself into its opposite, changes its position
to that of its opposite. This is the second meaning of the identity of
contradiction. ("On Contradiction," MSR, p.119)' [Wolff is here
quoting from Volume One of Mao's Selected Works, but this passage occurs
on p.338 -- RL.]
"While the struggle between its two
aspects goes on throughout the life of the contradiction, and both aspects
undergo partial transformations through different stages as a result of this (as
well as other contradictions influencing the process), there inevitably comes a
point when the old identity can no longer comprehend the contradictory aspects
in their changed character. The subordinate aspect bursts forth, overcomes the
formerly principal aspect, and brings a qualitatively new and different entity
into being. The shell of the egg is destroyed and replaced by ifs opposite, the
chicken; the shell of capitalist society is ruptured by the proletarian
revolution and a new society begins to be created.... (pp.24-31)
"The identity of opposites in the preceding examples resides not only in
their coexistence, but also in their change of place in their relationship
within the contradiction. In the leap from water to ice, the contradictory
identity between the energy of the individual molecule (which tends to random
motion) on the one hand, and the bonding force between molecules on the
other, goes from a state in which the molecular energy is dominant enough to
permit a degree of fluidity to one in which the molecular bonding force becomes
principal, and the molecules are frozen. Between the proletariat and the
bourgeoisie, the bourgeoisie (as noted) does not vanish immediately after the
socialist revolution but continues to exist and wage struggle (speaking here
specifically of the internal makeup of socialist countries) as a dominated and
subordinate aspect of the contradiction (as long as the society remains on the
socialist road); what has changed is the respective position of the two aspects
in the contradiction. This
transformation of opposites into each other changes the qualitative
character of the entity as a whole and the forms assumed by its contradictory
aspects - from water to ice, or capitalism to socialism. In the latter case, the
period in which the bourgeoisie is dominated (first in various countries, later
on a world scale) will eventually result in its full disappearance -- at which
point the proletariat itself will also go out of existence (after all, how could
there be a proletariat without its opposite?) and another new entity, communist
society, with its own contradictions and struggle, will arise.... Identity, to sum up, is contradictory:
opposites both coexist and transform
themselves into one another. Their coexistence is itself a process of
mutual transformation, and their transformation into each other is generally not
absolute but goes on in wave-Iike, or spiral-like, development (more on this
later).... Further, in the relationship between the opposite aspects of a
contradiction, identity and struggle do not exist on a par. Struggle is
principal over identity. Identity, or relative order, is a temporary condition,
but struggle never ceases; it permeates a process from beginning to end and leads to the transformation of opposites
and the eventual annihilation of the process (and its replacement by something
new). In fact, when struggle ceases, identity goes out of existence as well,
since the process itself has come to an end....
"The stars, the planets, different organisms -- all are forms of matter in
motion in which the constituent opposites coexist for a time in one form, only
to eventually be severed through struggle and dissolve (and become in different
forms the elements of new entities). Each individual person, for example, is
nothing but a particular and conditional combination of matter...matter which
existed in different forms previously and will exist in other forms in the
future.... Again, Lenin's warning to take the
identical opposites in a thing or process 'not as dead, rigid, but as living,
conditional, mobile, becoming transformed into one another' ('Conspectus
of Hegel's Book The Science of Logic,' LCW, Vol.38, 109) rings home; and
his characterization of socialism (in another work) as a combination of dying
capitalism and nascent communism is an important application of just this
principle of the identity and struggle of opposites.... (pp.32-35) [Wolff
is here quoting from Volume Thirty-Eight of Lenin's Collected Works,
p.109-- RL.]
"At the same time, contradictions do not
necessarily develop in a predetermined path; different processes and things
interpenetrate and influence one another, and relatively external contradictions
(in one context) can alter a process' direction of development and even
eliminate it altogether.... (p.47) Change does not proceed by simple addition,
nor simply from within a given process. While internal causes are principal
over external, contradictions cannot be viewed simply as 'things unto
themselves.'... (p.59)
"But back to the central point -- the opposition of materialism to idealism. The
basic split between idealism and materialism concerns the nature of the
contradiction between matter and consciousness.
Matter has existed eternally, in an infinite and everchanging variety of forms;
but through it all it exists, whether as mass or energy, a block of steel or an
exploding supernova.
As life on earth developed, matter began to give rise to its opposite,
consciousness. The rudiments of this are found in the earliest, most primitive
organisms and their ability to respond to environmental stimuli. This reaches a
qualitatively higher state in the more intelligent animals, who can draw
conclusions about their immediate environment and make decisions, and it takes
another leap with human consciousness. Humans have the capacity to analyze their
experience, dream up different ways the future might be, and work to make
reality conform to their ideas and dreams, constantly comparing one to the
other. Still, developed as it is, consciousness is nevertheless based on
material reality and the product and property of a highly organized form of
matter, the brain. This much is basic to all materialism." (p.61) [Wolff
(1983), pp.12-61. (This links to a PDF.) Bold emphases alone added. Quotation marks altered, and in
some cases they have been added in order to conform with the conventions adopted at this
site. Several paragraphs merged.]
Fortunately,
fellow Trotskyist,
Peter Mason, was a little more concise:
"Dialectics is a holistic
philosophy, which always considers things in their relations and their
development, as Lenin said.... [The development of Ionian
philosophy] emerged from internal conflict,a war of opposing forces within all
things, a 'unity of opposites' as Lenin called it, an 'interpenetration of
opposites' as Engels termed it. These warring opposites were what drove the
eternal flux of change. Dialectics is a philosophy born of revolution. Marxists have a unique
definition [of materialism]. For Marxists, in this context, materialism can be
described as the philosophy that the world is primary, and thought is
secondary." [Mason
(2012), pp.114, 116. Bold emphases added.
Paragraphs merged.]
Here are few
others taken from off the Internet (what was that again about the mind-numbingly
repetitive nature of Dialectical Marxism...?):
[1] "Dialectics was initially a
particular kind of dialogue invented in Ancient Greece in which two or more
people holding different points of view about a subject seek to establish the
truth of the matter by dialogue with reasoned arguments.... Today dialectics
denotes a
mode of cognition which recognizes the most general laws of motion,
contradiction and new development. There exist four 'laws' to the
dialectical method. They are:
"1) Everything is in a constant state
of motion, development and change.
"2) [In] everywhere there exist opposing
forces which are mutually exclusive yet cannot exist without the other.
Their conflict results in movement.
"3) Change occurs suddenly, all at
once. A quantitative amount of something results in a qualitative change (a
'breaking' point).
"4) Development moves in spirals,
from lower to higher planes of development....
"Dialectical materialism is the
recognition of a transient nature --
a physical reality in constant motion and change. What makes dialectical
materialism a revolutionary scientific method is that it excludes all static
states, all metaphysical views of reality, all one-sidedness and inflexibility.
Because it recognizes the concrete and present side of things, at the same time
it acknowledges that this present state is bound to end. For dialectal
materialism, the only absolute is that there are no eternal absolutes.... Motion is the mode of existence of
matter. Never anywhere has there been matter without motion, nor can there be.
As we mentioned earlier, everything in nature is transient, finite, and in
motion. Matter cannot exist without motion. Everything has its beginning and its
end. People are born, grow and eventually pass away. Stars such as our sun
eventually begin to die, either slowly burning out or self-destructing. Species
evolve, adapt, or go extinct. Rain falls from the clouds, evaporates back into
the clouds where it will once again rain. Human society is also part of nature
and is therefore subject to the same laws....
The
principle governing all growth and development is the idea of opposition and
contradiction. Two mutually exclusive forces which at the same time cannot
exist without each other has been a common theme in many philosophies for a
long time (i.e. yin and yang) exactly because such processes occurring around us
reflect this concept upon our minds...." [Quoted from
here.
Bold emphases added; quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions
adopted at this site. Minor typos corrected; several paragraphs merged. Minor
typographical alteration.]
[2] "The modern
materialist dialectical method developed by Marx is much
more definite and therefore, able to provide us with a much
clearer understanding. Materialist dialectics goes beyond
just seeking the truth of a statement, beyond just
understanding that contradictions are present in statements,
into understanding that contradictions exist throughout
nature and the whole material world. The Marxist
dialectical method has four basic features. First, all
phenomena of nature (or simply put, all real things) are
connected. Second, everything is in constant motion. Third,
all phenomena are undergoing constant change. Fourth, the
change and development of things is the result of the
interaction of opposing forces or internal contradictions
within everything. All this is in opposition to what is
called metaphysics. Metaphysics sees the world and things in
it as static, isolated, one-sided. It views any change there
is as simply one of magnitude, a mere increase or increase
in quantity on a set stage. Metaphysics is the common
philosophy advanced by capitalist thinkers and is taught in
U.S. schools. In general it is the type of world outlook the
capitalist system tries to foist on us so we stay in the
dark about what's really going on....
"[B]esides all the outside influences on a thing (and
let us remember we are talking about everything that
exists), the thing in question has internal contradictions.
Everything has two opposing aspects (internal
contradictions) and each set of these opposite aspects forms
a contradiction. When we speak of a thing we are really
talking about a set of opposites that struggle with each
other, yet coexist and combine to form the thing itself.
There is no up without down, no cold without hot, no victory
without defeat, no capitalist class without a working class,
etc. When a ball is thrown in the air two contradictory
forces are at work simultaneously -- the force propelling
the ball upward and the force of gravity. While gravity is
weaker, the ball goes up. When gravity becomes stronger the
ball changes direction and comes down.... This last point,
then, says that there is a constant movement, constant
struggle, between the two opposing aspects of the thing in
question and this conflict of the internal contradictions is
the most important single force that leads the thing to
change. Or, to put it briefly, there is an internal
contradiction in every single thing and this, more than all
else, causes its motion and development. External forces
are also important, but dialectics understands that external
causes are the condition of change, while internal causes
are the basis of change. For example, a chicken sitting on
an egg will lead to a baby chick, while the same chicken can
sit on a rock forever and hatch nothing -- the internal
contradictions are the most important factor in the
development and motion of not just the egg, but all things...." [Quoted from
here; accessed 22/02/2014. Minor typos corrected.
Bold emphases added;
several paragraphs merged.]
[3] "The world is full of opposing forces. In philosophical language we
would say that the world is full of contradictions. But opposing forces
always exist together. For example, the positive pole of a magnet attracts the
negative pole of another magnet. But every magnet has both a positive and
negative poll (sic). If you cut the magnet up it always has a positive and
negative poll (sic). These opposites exist together -- they 'interpenetrate'. Let's examine the apple. The chemical bonds that hold its atoms together are
being opposed by chemical processes causing those bonds to break leading to the
rotting of the apple. The forces are in opposition to each other. They
contradict each otherbut are contained within the same object." [Quoted
from
here; accessed 22/12/2016. Bold emphases added. Paragraphs merged.]
[4]
"Fundamentally,
everything that exists is a combination of opposites. It is in the nature of
existence for things to occur as a synthesis of opposite entities. In fact, it
is said that development occurs only where opposites do exist. Therefore,
the way of nature presupposes that in everything material which exists, there
must be a unity of opposites. Taking the human being as an example, man is a
conglomerate of numerous opposites. It is in the nature of man to be a moral
being i.e. to be inclined towards the doing of virtuous deeds, for the sake of
peace in society. However, it is also presupposed in the nature of man that he
should desire to carry out some acts that are vicious. Paradoxically, man is a
contradictory; a synthesis of both good and evil, virtue and vice. It is a
natural law that both these elements must exist in man,without these, no
development can occur. This is what the unity of opposites mean. As it is a fact that
opposites necessarily presuppose each other, it is also a fact that they must
clash. The very fact that they are contradictories implies their destiny to
struggle with each other. Thus, two sides of a dilemma cannot exist peacefully;
no way! They must move, and in doing so, clashes must occur between them. There
is usually a continued struggle between them as to which one must prevail over
the other. So, when one of them prevails, then we can say development has taken
place. For example; as usual, it is when one willingly refuses to do vice and
embrace virtue, that one is said to be exhibiting a virtuous character and
vice-versa. Thus, without the existence and clashing of opposites, there can be
no movement, change and development. Therefore, development is when an element
moves against the influence of its opposite. This is what the struggle of
opposites mean. The conclusion of all this is that, every material system in reality by
default, contains within it, elements that would certainly lead to its
disfunctionality; and this is based on which has the stronger force or power...." [Quoted from
here and
here; accessed 22/12/2016;
paragraphs merged.]
[5]
"...Marxist materialism makes use of
dialectics -- a way of thinking which explains how things develop and change.
The laws of dialectics can be summarised as follows:
"Everything is part of the whole, interconnected, an element
in the material unity of the universe. So we
should not be partial, blinkered or narrow in our outlook and analysis.
Everything is in flux, in motion, in the process of changing.
Movement or change may be dramatic, sudden, obvious -- or small, gradual,
virtually invisible. Although on the surface nothing appears to be happening,
underneath elements are growing or declining, moods are changing -- sometimes
through connections with things happening elsewhere. So nothing is unchanging
forever. No form of human society is infinite and unchangeable. Movement
and change occur through the conflict of opposites.
Within
any particular thing there are elements, forces and tendencies opposed to one
another. They give rise to the internal contradictions within a given
thing. At the same time, these conflicting elements, forces and tendencies are
parts of the whole of that particular object or phenomenon, co-existing within
it as a 'unity of opposites'. However, this object also exists in a wider
context or environment, thereby giving rise to external contradictions between
it and other particular things, and between the object and its environment as a
whole. Internal or external contradictions which reflect conflicting interests
that cannot be reconciled are said to be fundamentally antagonistic. Such
conflicting elements and forces will not be able to co-exist permanently in the
same unity or environment. Something has to give. Eventually, an antagonistic
contradiction sharpens to the point where one force has to vanquish the other.
The old unity is broken, and a new unity has to be constructed under the
leadership of the victorious force.
"In the process of struggle, the opposing forces have an
impact on one another, changing each other to a greater or lesser degree.
This is what Marxism calls the 'interpenetration of opposites'. The struggle
itself will also have an impact on the contending forces. At the conclusion of
the struggle, the victorious force is not the same as it was at the beginning.
It may, for example, have absorbed some features of the contrary force,
themselves transformed in the conflict.
Changes of degree -- of quantity -- will at some point
produce a fundamental change in the quality of something -- a change in its
essence or character. For instance, a workplace
may begin with just a few workers in a trade union. But as the level of unionism
increases and the employer is compelled to negotiate collective terms and
conditions, so the whole character or quality of industrial relations in that
workplace will change. Recruitment to the union multiplies—an example of
qualitative change in turn producing quantitative change. The same processes can
come to embrace whole industrial sectors and whole national economies." [Quoted
from
here. Accessed 18/05/17. Underlining removed. Bold emphases alone added;
several paragraphs merged.]
We have already
seen that one on-line dictionary 'defines'
contradiction in somewhat similar terms -- as 'opposing forces' -- but since
that has already been covered no more will be said about it
here.
2.Engels,
for example, went to great lengths to qualify what he meant by
"force" -- cf., Engels (1954),
pp.69-86
-- but he doesn't even once consider the classic problems associated
with such interactions (which had been highlighted by Leibniz,
and echoed, for example, by
Schelling).
Nevertheless, as we saw
in that Essay (as well as Essay Twelve Part One),
DM-theories (like those quoted in the
main body and Note 1) actually function as a "form of
representation", not as a summary of the available evidence. Indeed,
in many
cases, sweeping DM-generalisations like these were almost invariably first advanced on the basis of littleor
no evidence at all! For example:
"Dialectics…prevails
throughout nature…. [T]he motion through opposites which asserts itself
everywhere in nature, and which by the continual conflict of the
opposites…determines the life of nature." [Engels (1954),
p.211.]
"Processes which in
their nature are antagonistic, contain internal contradiction; transformation of
one extreme into its opposite…[is] the negation of the negation…. [This is a]
law of development of nature, history and thought; a law which…holds good in the
animal and the vegetable kingdoms, in geology, in mathematics, in history and in
philosophy…. [D]ialectics is nothing more than the science of the general laws
of motion and development of nature, human society and thought." [Engels (1976),
pp.179-80.]
Engels was quite
happy to call such sketchy, half-formed, and what can only be called sub-hypotheses
(or, to be more honest, guesses and hunches!), "laws", even
though they were solely based on a cursory survey of a limited range of
examples -- each one of which had been specially-selected and then highly simplified
to the point of distortion -- drawn from
his idiosyncratic interpretation of the science of his day. And, even then,
they were all either superficially described or were amateurishly misconstrued -- indeed, as we saw in
Essay Seven Part One. No wonder then
that his odd ideas, and those of his epigones, were labelled, "Mickey Mouse Science".
[Their role as a "form of representation" will be further analysed in the section dealing with
the RRT in Essay Twelve Part Four.]
4. However, in one of
his comments in DN, Engels openly questioned the identification of 'contradictions' with
'opposing forces' (traditionally understood):
"All motion is bound
up with some change of place…. The whole of nature accessible to us forms a
system, an interconnected totality of bodies…. [These] react one on another, and
it is precisely this mutual reaction that constitutes motion…. When two bodies
act on each other…they either attract each other or they repel each other…in
short, the old polar opposites of attraction and repulsion…. It
is expressly to be noted that attraction and repulsion are not regarded here as
so-called 'forces', but as simple forms of motion." [Engels (1954),
pp.70-71. Bold emphasis added.
Paragraphs merged.]
Even though
Engels elaborated on this idea in the succeeding pages of DN,
this passage alone completely undermines the subsequent equation of
'opposing forces' with
'contradictions' -- or, at least, with attraction and repulsion.
[Of course, those remarks were taken from unpublished
notebooks, so it might not have represented Engels's more considered views. But,
as far as can be determined, he nowhere repudiated them.]
[DN = Dialectics of Nature;
i.e., Engels (1954).]
Nevertheless, this re-interpretation of
the word "force" as a sort of shorthand for "simple forms of motion"
is consistent with contemporary approaches to the nature of forces, which sees them as an expression of the exchange of momentum between
'force-carrier particles' (which are
themselves interpreted as 'disturbances in the field', as we saw in Essay
Seven Part
One). Even so, Engels's 'revised view' itself presents Dialectical Marxists
with serious problems he at least appears not to have
noticed. Several of the latter are examined in the main body of this
Essay, and again in
Interlude Two.
As pointed out earlier,
Thomas Weston has recently attempted to identify a
'second force' (or cause) in such circumstances -- which he locates in...,
'inertia'(!). But, inertia isn't a force.
[I have considered
other aspects of Weston's ill-advised article here, here,
here,
here, and
here, as well as in the material that
used to be in this Note -- but has now been moved to the main body (link in the
previous
paragraph).]
Admittedly, this is an oversimplification, but the point is
still valid. Even if it could be shown that gravity is a property/effect of
(a) matter (as a result, perhaps, of the activities of the by now legendary
graviton), (b) 'warped' Spacetime,
or, indeed, (c) something else, 'motion' through
Spacetime would still
fail to be a function of
attractive and repulsive forces. [On that, see
Jammer (1999), pp.iv-vi. It
is
also worth noting that this view has recently been
challenged by, for example,
Wilson (2007). (This
links to a PDF.) There is more on this
topic
here.]
[In the previous
paragraph, the word "motion" has been put in 'scare' quotes, since it is a moot
point whether anything actually moves in
four-dimensional Spacetime.]
6a.However, there are alternative versions
of Classical Physics (for example,
Newton-Cartan Theory
-- this links to a PDF) in which the force of gravity has been "geometrised"
and hence edited out of the picture, in like manner. [On this, see Malament (2012), Manchak (2012) and
Trautman (1965).]
Anyone who wants to pursue this topic
further might like to consult the following (although a knowledge of
contemporary Philosophy of Science, Modern Logic and Applied Mathematics will be required in order to
follow the argument fully in many of them): Bigelow,
et al (1988), Cartwright (1983), Chao and
Reiss (2017), Coelho (2021),Cohen
(1970), Creary (1981), Ellis (1963, 1965, 1976), Hanson (1965a,
1965b), Hesse (1961), Hunt and Suchting (1969), Jammer (1999), Massin
(2009, 2012), Moore (2012),
Rowbottom (2017),
Spurrett (2001), Stinner (1994), Williams (1980),
and Wilson (2002,
2007,
2009,
2010). [These all
link to PDFs.]
I will
return to consider several of the above when we have occasion to examine the 'ontological
status' of component forces,later on in this Essay and
in Note 57. [See
also Note 30.]
6b.
Despite this, it could be argued that it is the
relation between bodies that determines any subsequent change in motion,
which supports the theory that there is a contradiction in this case. But, in
relativistic physics, it is the 'relation' between a body and the gravitational
field in which it is embedded that changes its motion. However, once that is
admitted we will have left far behind the idea
that there are "contradictory forces" at work in any meaningful sense of the term.
Again, it could be objected that even if
the above is accepted, there will still be a relation between bodies in such circumstances, since
planets and stars (etc.) deform the gravitational field
(or they "warp spacetime") surrounding them. That will in turn change the motion of a
secondary orbiting body, for example.
Or so it might be maintained...
Maybe so, but exactly how this is a 'contradiction' has
yet to be explained. There seems to be no "struggle" going on here --, or are we to imagine that
such bodies
'struggle' with tensor fields, or even with abstract spaces (i.e., with mathematical structures),
which factors then turn into each other -- which they should do if the
DM-classics are to be believed? There is no 'unity' or 'identity in
opposition' here; one body just happens to be situated in the deformed/"warped"
results of another body's effect on the relevant field, and, as a result, moves
in a trajectory that follows the local
geodesics. Once again, if anything -- and if we
absolutely have to employ fanciful metaphors here --, the regular and
smooth (non-developmental) nature of the subsequently altered motion looks more like a 'dialectical
tautology'! [I am being deliberately ironic here!]
"All natural
processes are two-sided, they are based on the relation of at least two
operative parts, action and reaction. The notion of force, however, owing to
its origin from the action of the human organism on the external world…implies
that only one part is active, the other part being passive…[and appearing] as a
resistance." [Engels (1954),
p.82. Bold emphasis added.]
[On the
animistic and anthropomorphic origin of the
concept of force, see Hesse (1961), Jammer (1999), and
Agassi (1973),
who references
Francis Bacon's Novum Organum (Book
One: Aphorisms; Aphorisms XXXVII-LXVIII)
as the locus classicus of this
idea.]
Dialectical Marxists
aren't alone in finding their theories embarrassed by an
over-ambitious and incautious use of anthropomorphic terminology; the theories of
'metaphysically-ambitious' Philosophers and scientists who 'dabble with in
little philosophising' have
been similarly compromised for far too many centuries.
[The ideological origin of theories like this
is exposed
in Essays Twelve and Fourteen (summaries
here
and here).
That material has been summarised
here and
here. The word "dabble" was used above in order to highlight a minority of
scientists who engage in amateur, off-the-cuff Metaphysics, typically when they
try to explain their theories in ordinary-ish terms or in popularisations
of the subject.]
9. Of course, not all objects that
collide would be, or would have been, moving in opposite directions. Many will be on trajectories inclined at some angle or
other to the rest. Indeed, many will move in the same direction, only at
different speeds. It isn't easy to see how any of these
can be seen as 'contradictory'.
[Classical problems associated with the 'ontology of
interaction' have now been posted to Interlude One. See also Note 6a.
This topic was also dealt with at greater length in Essay Eight
Part One.]
10.It could be argued
that forces are 'abstractions' constructed to assist in the scientific study of
nature and society, the comprehension of which assists revolutionaries in
their struggle to change the world.
But, that would mean the concept, "force", is little more than a "useful
fiction", except
it is now located in a 'metaphorical'
universe all of its own, situated somewhere between genuine fantasies
(such as ghosts and apparitions) and mathematical fictions (such as the centre of mass of the
Galactic System to which ours belongs -- the
Virgo
Supercluster). If that were indeed the case, the 'objective' status of forces, and hence
of 'contradictions', would be
seriously undermined. Forces and 'contradictions' would now have no physical counterpart, which would
in turn mean
that the real material correlates of DM-'contradictions' would be non-existent
(or even fictional), too. I am far from sure many DM-fans will want to adopt that
interpretation of "force" too
enthusiastically.
All this is quite apart from the fact that if forces
were 'abstractions', no two individuals would agree about their nature.
[That result was established in
Essay Three Parts One
and Two.]
11.Once more, this isn't a problem specifically confined to DM-circles.
Scientific theories are themselves shot-through with metaphor, and scientists
use analogical reasoning all the time. Not that that is a problem in
and of itself.
On the nature and use of metaphor
and analogy in the sciences, cf., Baake (2003), Brown (2003), Benjamin,
et al (1987), Guttenplan (2005), Hesse (1966), Ortony (1993), and White
(1996, 2010). [Several of these base their ideas on
Max Black's
work in this area, which has been
effectively criticised in White (1996).]
However, there
is as yet no satisfactory or definitive treatment of the nature and significance of figurative language
used in science. Unfortunately, this means that the precise
nature of scientific knowledge is, as yet, poorly understood. [I hope to say more
about that
in Essay Thirteen Part Two, when it is published.]
12.This might be one
particular use of the LEM that DM-fans would be wise not
to question. If objects, states of affairs and processes were held to be
both non-contradictory and contradictory at the same time, little
sense could be made of the theory, even before it was examined or tested
in practice.
[LEM = Law of Excluded
Middle; FL = Formal Logic.]
Nevertheless,
in relation to the 'laws' of FL (but I prefer to
called them rules), their application to complex situations requires no
little sensitivity. In that case, it could be argued that Dialectical Marxists
are only committed to the view
that parts of one system or process 'contradict' parts of another,
while still others do not.
To be
perfectly honest, it is impossible to give a clear or definitive answer to the
above proffered pro-DM response since the latter is far too vague and sketchy for anyone
(supporter or critic alike) to decide whether or not it is a legitimate reading. Perhaps it is both and neither
at the same time?
Nevertheless,
DM-theorists actually do speak about contradictions "growing" or "lessening"
in intensity; they even
speak about them being "resolved". [Indeed, Thomas Weston covers this
topic in detail, explaining how 'contradictions' can 'intensify' or be
'resolved', in Weston
(2012), pp.19-25 (this links to a PDF).] But, that is clearly
a
subjectiveopinion on his part since Weston nowhere supplies, or
even suggests, any units by means of which these
supposed changes to assorted 'contradictions' may be measured and no data
to support his contentions or make comparisons. Nor do other DM-theorists even attempt
to quantify them in any way at all (which, on its own, is a rather odd thing to
have to say about those who claim that DM is the very epitome of
scientific and philosophical knowledge). The thought never even occurs to
them!
However, if DM-apologists
ever do get their act together and decide to invent a unit applicable to all
those (lessening and/or 'intensifying') 'contradictions' they see
everywhere, we might at last begin to make some progress.
Until then, may I
suggest the 'Neg' as just such a unit?
So, 1 neg could
be defined as the strength, level,
or 'intensity'
of a 'contradiction' required to make either (i) a stick look bent in
water, (ii) an object look smaller as
it recedes from the viewer -- or maybe even necessary to make (iii) at least one employer look fair
to a randomly-selected trade union bureaucrat (or, indeed, an ordinary individual who might have been misled by
'banal commonsense' and/or 'formal thinking').
In that case, a Nano-neg would be enough to make an electron move
and a Pico-neg would enable it to be both a wave and a particle at the same time. Extending
this idea: a Milli-neg would be strong enough to move a
millipede.
[The reader can decide for herself what a Centi-neg would be capable of setting
in motion.] A Deci-neg would be sufficient to initiate a formal contradiction
in logic, while a Deca-neg (colloquially, "A Blair")
would be enough to spin a pack of lies (about the affordability of,
say,
pensions), or even publish and endorse at least one 'dodgy'
Iraq dossier.
Perhaps then, a Hecto(r)-neg would be sufficient to set off a factional dispute
in yet another Dialectically-Debilitated Trotskyist, Communist, or Maoist sect, while the class war
itself would need a Kilo-neg to cause a strike, a Mega-neg would be required to motivate a
massive anti-war movement, and a Giga-neg to
set off a
proletarian insurrection. Moving up the
scale, a Tera-neg would be enough to keep the Earth in orbit around the Sun, and,
of course, a Yotta-neg
sufficient to kick-start the 'Big Bang'.
We could even introduce a special unit to measure
or record the
stench reaching the nostrils of most working-class individuals as a result
of the oppression, mass murder, counter-revolutionary antics and sectarian
in-fighting in which this misbegotten theory has
helped motivate generations of Dialectical Marxists to engage for much of the twentieth century: the
Rotta-neg.
All we would need then is an intrepid
DM-fan (perhaps
one of those who claim to be able to derive fundamental scientific truths about
'Reality' from
thought alone -- simply by throwing a few obscure Hegel-inspired words at the page) to invent a "Neg-ometer"
-- which
they would surely be able to cobble-together
if they stopped wasting time writing yet another
boilerplate 'Introduction to
DM' -- in order to help facilitate the measurement of these
super-scientific, 'dialectical contradictions',
along with their 'intensifications'. That done,
Dialectical Marxism might at least begin to look
a little more
scientific. After all, if
Scientologists have their
E Meter, DM
should at least have a Neg-ometer.
[To be
honest, I would have suggested the "Con" instead of the "Neg" as a suitable unit
with which to measure the changing strength of DM-'contradictions', but
when I typed "Mega-con" into an earlier version of the above, it seemed to me to
be a little tooon-the-nose, a little too facetious. (Readers
might like to compare these
remarks with somewhat similar comments about dialectical "nodes"/"leaps", posted
here.)]
13.This
assumes, of course, that
'contradictions' have (metaphorical) 'geometric
centres' and possess (figurative) 'separation radii'. [Well, maybe they can also be
photographed, weighed, have their toe-nails clipped and be given a new hair-style?]
Cheap debating points?
Maybe so; but if
all parts of nature (animate and inanimate, macroscopic or microscopic) behave as if
they can argue
amongst themselves -- which is how things are depicted in DM when its theorists
try to sell us the idea that objects and processes are capable of 'contradicting' one another, bickering
away (that is, if the words
"contradiction" and "contradicting" are understood literally,
"contra-dict" = "gain-say")
--, the above 'cheap shot' is hardly worth mentioning in
comparison. So,
instead of the 'gods' being credited with human characteristics (ŕ la Feuerbach), DM-acolytes
expect us to believe that this is instead true of inanimate objects (ŕ
la Hegel, Engels and Lenin)!
By such moves, Dialectical Marxism takes the
p*ss out of itself. It needs little assistance from me.
13a.
Indeed, when asked to explain why this is a 'contradiction',
Ian Birchall
[aka "Grim and Dim" -- his choice of pseudonym, not mine -- and I am not
'outing' a comrade here!]
failed to respond. However, in a
later thread he made another
unsuccessful attempt to reply, as
did a few
other
confused comrades. Readers are encouraged to read
this lengthy exchange on the topic. [Unfortunately, all these links are now
dead!]
My thoughts on the 'arguments' of
one of the more egregious participants in this debate ("JohnG") can be found
here and
here, and now
in a revised form here. [In general
on this deeply confused comrade, see here.]
The same always seems to happen whenever I ask
Dialectical Marxists to explain why these are 'contradictions'; even knowledgeable
comrades soon begin to flounder!
One wonders, therefore, what would become of us
Dialectical Dissidents in the unlikely event that fellow Trotskyists ever managed to secure real power. The
vitriol, hostility, lies and smears I
have had to face now for many years suggest I, for one, wouldn't last long in such circumstances!
[Please note, once more, I am not complaining about this; I
expect this level of vitriol. If I hadn't received it, I would have concluded I had gone wrong somewhere!]
For example, in an email exchange a few years ago, one
prominent Marxist Professor of Economics
--
Andrew Kliman,
no less -- expressed the fervent hope that I should "Eat sh*t and die!" -- either that
or quaff some Hemlock -- simply because I had
the temerity to question the 'sacred dialectic'. This was prompted by my
asking him to explain
exactly what a 'dialectical contradiction' is, which he signally failed to do. His DM-inspired vitriol was
subsequently repeated in October 2013,
here (in the
comments section -- again, this link is now dead!), but his remarks were deleted by the moderators because
of the violent and intemperate nature of the language the good Professor thought to use. Another
UK-SWP comrade (implicitly)
accused
me of being worse than the Nazis (yes, you read that right!), and for the same reason
-- questioning DM. Incidentally,
this particular comrade has now left the SWP. Apparently, he still thinks
that 'truth
is tested in practice'. And, in 2020, I engaged in
a lengthy
(but fruitless) 'discussion' with a fan of 'Systematic Dialectics', who soon resorted to
type, posting personal abuse and barefaced lies.
Another recently
compared me to the Coronavirus!
I
have also critically evaluated
what I consider (so far!) to be the best ever (published) response to the question 'Exactly What
is a Dialectical Contradiction?',
here.
February
2009 Update: Another attempt
to define the indefinable term, "dialectical contradiction", can be found
here (unfortunately, this link is also now dead!). In fact, the owner of that site (a Marxist economist) deleted my
remarks and replies since he
found it far too 'challenging' to defend his own use of "contradiction".
Autumn
2009 Update: Several other attempts
to find out what DM-supporters mean by the odd words they use --
but, this time involving Academic Marxists, which began
here (this link is dead, too!), continued
here,
here,
here,
here,
here, and
here --
were
no less unsuccessful.
December 2011
Update:
Here is another discussion (in the comments section), mainly between myself
and Mike
Rosen, on the nature of these (perennially) obscure DM-'contradictions'. [Unfortunately, when Disqus
-- the hosting service for the site to which the first of these links will take
the reader -- was re-organised a few years ago, older comments sections to the
linked site were lost.]
Several more examples of this
tendency to label anything and everything "contradictory" (a slight
exaggeration!) can be found
here and
here.
Indeed, a recent (March 2013) example
of such profligacy further illustrates the cavalier
attitude shown by DM-fans toward the use of this word:
"In the Communist Manifesto Marx
makes two contradictory assertions: 1. The ruling ideas in any epoch are the
ideas of the ruling class. 2. The emancipation of the working class is the act
of the working class itself." ['Mark', quoted from
here, p.24. Italic emphasis in the original. In fact, Marx said this:
"The ideas of the ruling class are in every epoch the ruling ideas...",
and it wasn't in the Manifesto, it was in the German Ideology.
While there are passages in the Manifesto that can be pressed into
service in support of Claim 2, it is in fact something Marx asserted years
later. (This link is also now dead!)]
But, why are
these contradictory? As usual, we aren't told. (The comrade
involved just assumes it is uncontroversial to throw this word at the screen.) Even so, it
isn't hard to guess the answer -- as
Tony Cliff
pointed out:
"The fact that the working class needs a party
or parties is in itself a proof of the cleavages in the working class. The more
backward culturally, the weaker the organisation and self-administration of the
workers generally, the greater will be the intellectual cleavage between the
class and its Marxist party. From this unevenness in the working class flows the
great danger of an autonomous development of the party and its machine till it
becomes, instead of the servant of the class, its master. This unevenness is a
main source of the danger of 'substitutionism'...."
[Cliff
(1960), p.126.]
In
other words, the working class can't emancipate itself since it is dominated by
ruling-class ideology -- and yet it must emancipate itself if
socialism is to be won. This seems to be the 'contradiction' that was meant here. Indeed, as 'Mark'
from earlier went on to argue:
"When workers
fight back they find that some of the ideas once held, ruling class ideas, are
challenged in the very process of struggle. Workers discover they can make
speeches and organise solidarity. Racist or sexist ideas are challenged as
people unite and fight back together. People change their ideas in struggle.
Consciousness is contradictory. Those fighting
back make up the vanguard of the class. The uneven nature of the class struggle
across the class means we need a revolutionary party, one that orients on those
engaged in struggle, the 'vanguard' of the class. Unevenness in the Party, as
well as the need to totally reject ruling class ideology, means we need a
central leadership in the Party." ['Mark'
quoted from
here, p.24. Paragraphs merged. (This link is still dead!)]
Hence, the "self-emancipation of the working class" can only
take place with the active intervention of the party, which is somehow (miraculously) capable of
freeing itself from bourgeois ideology. Or, rather its "central
leadership" is capable of performing this 'magic trick', while the working class
itself isn't! Of course, in struggle, as 'Mark' points out, workers often
do change their ideas and opinions, but nowhere does
'Mark'
suggest that they can free themselvescompletely from ruling-class
ideology. If they could, there would be no real need for the party!
Well, this
conundrum is doubly ironic in view of the fact that Bolshevik-style parties --
and especially their "central leadership", and, indeed, Dialectical Marxists in general
-- have
themselvesbeen held in thrall to
ruling-class thought-forms (upside down or 'the right
way up') for well over one hundred and fifty years, as these Essays have amply demonstrated.
But, and once more,
it is worth asking again: Why
is
the above example a
contradiction, as opposed to it merely being an impossibility? Or,
even better, an example of confused
thought?
Again, we are left in
the dark.
Here
is another typical example of DM-profligacy in this respect, which surfaced in a letter
sent to Socialist Worker at the end of August 2011:
"I'm
writing regarding Charlie Hore's article on economic growth during the reform
period in China (Socialist
Worker, 20 August). It
doesn't mention the powerful contradictions that emerged within the ruling
bureaucracy as a result of the reforms. Not all
sectors of the bureaucracy have benefited from the reforms. There has
been a shift from ideological campaigns towards a performance-based notion of
state legitimacy. This has
meant that many officials have experienced anxiety about their relevance in
Chinese politics and have been dragged into protest movements. A
socialist analysis has to make sense of these contradictions."
[Bold emphases alone added. Paragraphs merged.]
Again,
no one (in the movement) ever bothers to explain why such things shouldbe called
"contradictions" when they are far better described as "tensions" or
"conflicts". For example, do the above factors imply one another? No. Can one
exist without the other? Yes. That is quite unlike the alleged 'contradiction'
between the bourgeoisie and the proletariat, where one supposedly implies the
other, and neither can exist without the other
(although
I have thrown even that widely accepted inference into considerable doubt,
here).
Some might
conclude that this is just another example of Ms Lichtenstein's pedantry,
but that isn't so. [On 'pedantry', see
here.] There are
important political reasons for rejecting the use of "contradiction" in
the way it is deployed by Dialectical Marxists. [On that, see Essay Nine
Part Two.]
(1) It 'allows' Dialectical Marxists to argue
in favour of anything they like
and its opposite
(often this is done by the very same DM-supporter -- on the same page or
even in the same speech!),
no matter how anti-Marxist or counter-revolutionary this "anything" might
otherwise prove
to be. These moves are then often 'justified' on the basis that since 'everything is contradictory', Marxist theory and practice should be contradictory,
too! [I give several examples of this in Essay Nine Part Two (links above).]
(2) The words "contradiction"
and "contradictory" are used to
rationalise a whole range of
substitutionist strategies, tactics and policies -- for instance, on the basis that even though Marx insisted on the self-emancipation of the working class, we can
substitute one or more of the following for that class: (i) The Party, (ii)
The Red Army, (iii) 'Third World' guerrillas, (iv) 'Progressive' nationalists, (v)
Students, (vi) Sympathetic, left-leaning politicians, and/or (vii) An assortment of social forces,
'rainbow coalitions',
and minority rights movements,
no matter how contradictory this might otherwise seem. And any who object
to this? Well they just don't 'understand dialectics' or the 'contradictory nature of Marxism', the class war, the former USSR..., etc., etc.
Anyway, who has ever heard of 'pure socialism'? What are you? Some sort of
anti-dialectical perfectionist?!
(3) The use of such language 'allows'
DM-fans to cast their eyes over the history of long-term failure of Dialectical Marxism and fail to see
it for what it is:
a profound and protracted refutation
of their core theory, 'Materialist Dialectics'. It also
'allows' them to interpret
this abysmal record as the
opposite of what it is -- on the basis that
'appearances contradict underlying essence'. So, even if Dialectical Marxism looks
hopelessly unsuccessful and a catastrophic failure, the exact opposite is in fact the case.
This then encourages Dialectical Marxists to stick their heads in the drifting
'dialectical sands' while our
movement slowly runs into the real sands.
(4) Because of (3), the word
"contradiction" provides Dialectical Marxists with a
source of
consolation for the long-term ineffectiveness of the entire movement, along
with
its serial divisiveness and its ever present internecine warfare -- "Well, what else can you
expect in a contradictory universe? Marxism should look the opposite of what it
really is! Dialectics allows us to grasp this contradiction." Indeed,
as Lenin himself pointed
out, splitting lies at the heart of everything (which must include the
party!).
So, none of
this is a result of
the present author's 'pedantry',
nor is it merely 'academic' point-scoring. The use of "contradiction" has had, and continues to have,
disastrous political and ideological implications for the entire movement.
14a.
It could be argued that in
so far as forces in nature can be represented as vectors,
that is also the case with contradictions. That response will be considered
presently.
Any who object to my presumed use of the
LEM at this point should
check
this out, and then perhaps think again.
16.
It might be felt that this completely misconstrues the relationship between parts and
wholes in DM, wherein it is claimed that "the whole is more than the sum of the parts", etc.,
etc.
However, that Dubious Dialectical Doctrine has been subjected to
sustained and microscopic examined in Essay Eleven
Part Two, where it was shown to
be no less vague and confused as other areas of DM are.
17.Of course, it could be argued that this objectifies
the "Totality", thereby distorting it. But, if the "Totality" isn't a kind of object (even
though
it might be a
changing 'object' of some sort), how can 'it' have
any relation to 'its' parts, and how could 'contradictions' be properties of
'it'?
It
might be objected in response that the "Totality"
is in fact a process, and hence it would be an 'it' (or, a sort
of 'it') only in that sense. Naturally, the answer to these (and
other) questions concerning this mysterious entity/process, the
"Totality", will have
to be put to one side until DM-theorists tell us (if ever!) what (if anything!) they think 'it' is.
[They might find a few useful ideas (consistent with much else
we find in
DM) set out here.]
Despite this, it could further be objected that abstract reasoning we find at
this site demonstrates nothing
since DM is concerned with verifiable, concrete, material contradictions,
which do exist in the real world. That response has been examined in detail
here and
here, as well as Essay
Five.
20.
Of course, this
rather simple picture will very likely be 'muddied' to some extent by the introduction of the complexities
we actually find in nature.
However, the more complications there are, the less applicable DM-concepts
seem to be. In the present case, we would have here an RARA-system-of-forces.
Again, a choice would then have to be made whether we should widen the meaning of the
word "opposite" in order to accommodate DM, or change DM in order to accommodate
the facts.
To date, with respect to DM, Dialectical Marxists have generally opted for the former
tactic, not the latter. As the reader will no doubt agree, this amounts to
imposing DM on the facts -- the
exact opposite of what its theorists claim to be doing.
Since
AR-forces are discussed below, I
will postpone further comment until then.
This
is about as egregious an error as would be an assumption that 'Reality' itself
must have an edge simply because
every photograph or painting does.
[This topic is examined in detail In Essays Twelve
Part One and Thirteen
Part Two.]
(iii) This way of looking at the world
is indeed as
crazy as it seems!
[This
topic is examined more extensively in
Essay Eight Part Three.]
22.It might be felt that this
site is so heavily biased against DM and any way of interpreting
'opposing forces' as
'contradictions' that scientific facts and theories are being twisted and
slanted so that they begin to appear prejudicial to DM -- this latest assertion
(that much of DM has fallen apart) merely being the most recent example. Accelerated motion
in the real world is often the result of several forces operating on a body. The
ensuing motion simply follows as a result of the oppositional nature of
those forces themselves.
Or so it might be objected...
That
volunteered, pro-DM response will be examined presently in the main body of the Essay.
23.Once more, it could be objected that there is no such thing as "empty space".
But even if that were so, and the objects referred to in the main body of this
Essay weren't situated in the said force field, any forces present would still
fail to operate on each other, but only on
any bodies (and/or their motion) already present in the system. In which case, forces seem to affect bodies,
not each other. [See Interlude One
on this.]
24. It could
be argued that force fields do in fact interact, and they certainly alter one
another. That objection
will also be examined presently.
The material
that used to be here has been moved to Interlude One
(link above).
26.Those who still think that forces
are capable of opposing
motion, and can therefore be said to contradict it, should consult the
material presented in
Interlude Two
(link above),
and presently in the main body of this Essay, where this rather peculiar idea will finally be laid to rest.
Nevertheless, it is worth
pointing out that if it were correct to say
that forces were capable of opposing
motion, and could therefore be said to "contradict" it, the
theory that forces
'contradict' each other will have already gone the non-dialectical
tubes. Plainly, if forces oppose
motion, they can hardly also oppose one another directly. [Unless, of course,
we agree with Engels
that the concept of "force" should be ditched and replaced with talk
about "relative motion".]
27.In which case, it might be wondered whether only those bodies that approach each
other along the same
line of action
(where the angle between their
trajectories is (initially) 180°), or which operate in a force field (where the 'lines of
action' of that field are similarly orientated (initially), at 180°) are to be counted as
'opposites'.
However, since forces
and velocities are vectors -- or, rather, may be represented by vectors
-- they can be resolved to circumvent this difficulty. Even so, any solution
sought along those lines (no pun intended) would clearly be conventional,
since the components of vectors don't exist in nature in any meaningful sense;
they are merely integral to the calculating procedures we use to help us make
sense of any changes that result (etc.).
[On this, see
Interlude Oneand
Interlude Two
(links above)
-- as well as Note 30, below.]
28. Anyone
who thinks that the vector calculus is a description
of reality would be suffering from the same sort of confusion as someone who,
for example, thought that weather actually is the wavy lines, or even the
tangent fields,
drawn on a map, which show, for example,
wind direction and speed, simply because a TV weather forecaster uses them. [On this see
Interlude Two
(link above) and
Interlude Six.] Moreover, for
reasons that were set out earlier,
mathematics, while large sections of it are undeniably based on models, isn't a 'model of reality'.
30.Admittedly, some vectors are invariant under certain transformations, but the
physical interpretation of the operation of forces isn't a given; it is set
by convention. On this, see Ellis (1963, 1965, 1976), as well as the books and
articles listed in Note 6a.
[Ellis
(1976) was written in reply to Hunt and Suchting (1969). See also Hanson (1965a, 1965b),
and Jammer (1999). Mysteriously, however, Ellis has backtracked on his earlier
views (and for what appear to be
instrumentalist
reasons); cf., Bigelow,
Ellis and Pargetter (1988), and the response to this in Jammer (1999), pp.iv-vi.]
The difficulty with finding a physical analogue of, or a correlate for, vector spaces
(or, even worse,
for any tensor
extensions to them) is examined in
Cartwright (1983), pp.54-73;
see also Hesse (1961). A recent challenge has been registered to this way of
seeing forces by
Wilson (2007); on that, see
here.
[A response to Smith (2007) will
appear here in a future re-write of this Essay.]
31.
On this, see Interlude One,
Interlude Two
(links above), as well asNote 30.
32.This
topic was
discussed in much greater detail in Essay Seven Part One, where I have called it "The Dialecticians' Dilemma".
[See also, here.
The supposed 'contradictory nature of motion' was destructively criticised in
Essay Five.]
The material
that used to be here has now been moved to Interlude Four.
34.As pointed out
in
Interlude Four
(link above), it is entirely possible that this isn't
what DM-fans mean by "contradictory forces"; but then again it is
equally doubtful that they have ever subjected their own theory to this level of
scrutiny. Naturally, this means that eventhey would be in no position to accept
or reject this interpretation (or at least not until they begin to ask
and answer to sort of questions raised in this Essay and at this site). Hence, as things
now stand, there would be
little point asking a Dialectical Marxist for a clear and well-thought-out answer to
the following question: "Is
this
what you mean by 'contradictory force'?".
And
good luck to anyone who doubts my assessment of DM-supporters' knowledge of
their own theory! Personal experience,
now stretching across over thirty-five years, has taught me that anyone foolish
enough to ask any of them to devote even so much as one minute to
this topic will face deflection, no little personal abuse and misrepresentation
-- often followed by a barrage of 'scatological invective' -- at best, for even thinking to ask. (Here
is the latest example -- unfortunately that link is now dead! Here then is the
next example in line.)
Added on Edit: I have now included an even more recent example of this
in Appendix C. See also
here for the most
recent 'debate'.
[HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context.]
Compare this
slipshod,
amateurish approach to theory with the
care
and close attention to detail devoted by
other Marxists when they try to analyse concepts employed in HM -- such as "the forces
and relations of production", "ideology", "racism", "class", or
"the tendency of the rate of profit to
fall". Whole books and articles have been written about many of those topics (and
others).
Not one single bookhas ever been written about 'opposing forces' interpreted as
'contradictions' --not even so much as one chapter of a book has been devoted
to it! Just the odd paragraph or two...
35.It is worth repeating
that these assertions are aimed neither at affirming nor denying
DM-theorists' claims about the "Totality", and that includes its supposedly
'contradictory' parts, since both of those reactions would
themselves be metaphysical
-- hence
non-sensical and
incoherent.
[That is because the 'negation' of non-sense is also non-sense. The reasons for
saying that take up most of Essays Twelve
Part One and Eleven
Parts One and
Two.] As pointed out earlier,
the intention here is simply to make patent the latent
non-sense
that DM-theorists'
ideas contain/imply.
Moreover, an appeal to 'relative truth' would be of little use, either. Surprising as it might seem,
that option was
(inadvertently) torpedoed by Leninhimself!
36.As we saw
earlier, these 'difficulties' revolve around the question whether it is:
(a) A force's effects;
(b) The
relative motion between objects; or,
(c) The interrelationship between
bodies and/or processes,
that are supposed to be 'contradictory'.
37.This is so on Hegelian and Aristotelian grounds.
The material
that used to be here has now been moved to Interlude Five.
38. So, this appears to be
yet another
ironic
"dialectical inversion".
The forces involved don't actually 'contradict' each other, they augment one another -- even though they are still
supposed to be
'opposites'! Perhaps then we should gesture in the direction of greater
honesty and call such configurations "dialectical
tautologies"?
On that basis, therefore, we
might be able to construct an entirely new
-- and, it must be admitted, a wholly insincere -- theory of
universal
harmony, not struggle. This is especially so if we recall that forces 'naturally
combine' to form resultants, and opposites more often than not attract
rather than repel each
other (on
that, see Interlude Six,and
here), both of which
phenomena are also connected with motion and change. As a result of such an
'inversion' -- putting DM 'back on its heels', as it were -- change would be
an expression of cooperation,
not conflict.
We could even
re-introduce the idea of an 'Immanent Deity' (a suitable -- but no less
mysterious
-- analogue of the
DM-"Totality") to give this wholly insincere 'theory' the unity and cohesion it
requires, all the while claiming that these ideas haven't been imposed on nature, merely
'read from it'.
Since this insincere, 'mock-theory' is based on a more
'realistic/honest appraisal' of the interplay
between forces themselves, who could reasonably object? We could even call this 'theory' "Annihilectics"
(in that it annihilates dialectics). Any subsequent 'contradictions' implied by this 'theory' could, of
course, be
Nixoned away along
familiar DM-lines.
We could even declare --
with equal arrogance, pomposity and 'justification' -- that anyone who rejects this new
'theory' simply doesn't "understand" Annihilectics,
thus ending all discussion.
On the positive side, this 'theory' enjoys much more evidential support than the
average DM-theory -- given the fact that resultant forces govern every example of change
of motion in
the entire universe, so far as we know.
On the negative side,
however, Annihilectics would mean that class collaboration and harmony will
'inevitably' usher in
the 'revolution'. [We saw that this was an inherent implication of DM, anyway,
here and
here.]
Anyone critical of the above wholly insincere, fanciful and
off-the-wall 'mock-theory' should now point an equally censorious and
accusatory finger at
DM -- and for the same reason.
39.Even so, and once again, howsoever it is imagined that forces finally manage
to combine, change itself isn't initiated by
contradictory forces, but by the aboveannoyingly 'harmonious'resultants -- i.e., all those 'dialectical tautologies'.
40.The material
that used to be here has now been moved to
Interlude Six. [Link above.]
42.At this point, it is
worth recalling how the Stalinists attempted to 'justify' the frequent, sometimes overnight tactical and strategic
180° changes
of direction -- which they regularly performed in the 1930s -- on the basis that they
were 'dialectical', when they had in fact been made for hard-headed political
reasons. So, a pact with the Nazis appeared to make eminently good, 'dialectical'
sense. Anyone who disagreed with this zig-zag approach to 'diplomacy' and
real-politic
clearly didn't "understand" dialectics. Indeed, the 1939
Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact was as good an example of a
'UO' as one could wish to find. Who could possibly complain? Except, perhaps,
'Trotskyite Wreckers' or those motivated by "bourgeois"
prejudice, compounded by an antiquated reliance on 'formal thinking'? Or maybe even those in the grip of an excessive "tenderness" toward treaties with fascists?
[UO = Unity of Opposites.]
[Dozens of examples of topsy-turvy, 'dialectically-inspired' political U-turns
and somersaults like these have been illustrated in Essay Nine
Part Two. Except, of
course, the above pact wasn't a 'dialectical UO', since the existence of the Soviet
State didn't imply
the existence of the Nazi State, or even the signing of a 'non-aggression treaty' with them. In DM-terms
this made no sense, but that is just par for the course with this screwy
theory and that deeply fractured and ideologically-compromised movement, Dialectical Marxism.]
Nevertheless, any number of
equally
incongruous and counter-revolutionary UOs have been rationalised by means
of, or by an appeal to, this
theory. For instance,
John Rees attempted to justify the "united front of a
special kind" -- entered into by the UK-SWP a few years ago -- by appealing
to yet
another 'UO
argument'. But, as we have seen over and over, neither factor in this 'UO' implied the other, unlike the
supposed connection between the proletariat and the bourgeoisie. Hence, that, too,
didn't make any sense in DM-terms. But, because DM glories in contradiction it can be, and has been, used to
'justify' any conclusion deemed expedient and its opposite (like the
above move of Rees's) -- this con-trick often
performed by the same individual (or party hack) in the same speech, book
or article. In which case, DM has proved
itself to be an invaluable tool in the hands of substitutionists, opportunists,
counter-revolutionaries, and
sectarians of
every stripe.
[Again, more details and substantiating evidence can be
found in Essay Nine Part
Two (link above) and Essay Ten Part One.]
43a. Of course, Hegel's ideas
were themselves inspired by countless generations of Mystical Thought, but the explicit use of
"contradiction", alongside the key role
it assumed in his work, is unique and,
except perhaps for its occurrence in Zen Buddhism, it is almost without precedence. This isn't to
claim that philosophers and mystics had never before
appealed to 'oppositional
forces' (and UOs) in order to account for change or
stability in nature and society, but they, too, found they had to co-opt words and concepts
drawn from the vernacular -- as the late Professor Havelock
pointed out (quoted earlier):
"As long as preserved
communication remained oral, the environment could be described or explained
only in the guise of stories which represent it as the work of agents: that is
gods.
Hesiod
takes the step of trying to unify those stories into one great
story, which becomes a cosmic theogony. A great series of matings and births of
gods is narrated to symbolise the present experience of the sky, earth, seas,
mountains, storms, rivers, and stars. His poem is the first attempt we have in a
style in which the resources of documentation have begun to intrude upon the
manner of an acoustic composition. But his account is still a narrative of
events, of 'beginnings,' that is, 'births,' as his critics the
Presocratics
were to put it. From the standpoint of a sophisticated
philosophical language, such as was available to Aristotle, what was lacking
was a set of commonplace but abstract terms which by their interrelations could
describe the physical world conceptually; terms such as space, void, matter,
body, element, motion, immobility, change, permanence, substratum, quantity,
quality, dimension, unit, and the like. Aside altogether from the coinage of
abstract nouns, the conceptual task also required the elimination of verbs of
doing and acting and happening, one may even say, of living and dying, in favour
of a syntax which states permanent relationships between conceptual terms
systematically. For this purpose the required linguistic mechanism was furnished
by the timeless present of the verb to be -- the copula of analytic
statement. The history of early
philosophy is usually written under the assumption that this kind of vocabulary
was already available to the first Greek thinkers. The evidence of their own
language is that it was not. They had to initiate the process of inventing it....
Nevertheless, the
Presocratics could not invent such language by an act of novel creation. They
had to begin with what was available, namely, the vocabulary and syntax of
orally memorised speech, in particular the language of
Homer
and
Hesiod. What they proceeded to do was to take the language of the mythos and
manipulate it, forcing its terms into fresh syntactical relationships which had
the constant effect of stretching and extending their application, giving them a
cosmic rather than a particular reference."
[Havelock (1983), pp.13-14, 21. Bold emphases added; quotation marks altered to
conform with the conventions adopted at this site. Spelling modified to agree with
UK English. Links added; paragraphs merged.]
[On this, see Essay Twelve and Essay Fourteen Part One (summaries
here,
here and
here).
Cf., also
Barnes (2009),
Kahn (1994, 2003), Lloyd (1971), and Seligman (1962).]
44.This insurmountable obstacle blocks the path of all forms of Metaphysical
Realism, so it isn't just a problem for Dialectical Marxists. [There is more on
this in Essays
Twelve Part One and
Thirteen Part Two.]
45.Admittedly, as pointed
out earlier, this could turn out to be a complete distortion of DM, but, as we
have repeatedly seen over the last hundred years or so, Dialectical
Marxists proved
far more intent on reproducing, almost word-for-word, yet another repetition of
the dogmas handed down
to them by the Dialectical Classicists (on that, see
Essay Two) than they have been
analysing
them with the critical eye they so readily and enthusiastically aim at other forms of ruling-class
ideology. But, far worse, there
is precious little in the DM-Classics that lends much assistance to
Dialectical Marxists
themselves, so that even they would be hard-pressed trying to specify exactly
if, how, or where the points raised in this Essay misrepresent
their theory. The following more accurately pictures contemporary Dialectical
Marxists:
Figure Eighteen: Dialectical Monkeys -- See No
Problems, Hear No Problems
And Speak No Problems
Once
again, there is an simple solution: DM-supporters are invited to produce their
own clear account of the precise nature of the link between 'opposing forces' and
'contradictions',
thus making this area of DM perspicuous for the very first
time in its history.
Wisely, though, neutral bystanders won't be holding their breath on this one, and for
reasons set out in
Essay One.
46. Of course, this initial attempt
at clarification is unclear itself! We should normally want to
distinguish the opposition between forces, P1 and P2,
from the opposition between event sets, E1 and E2, or
indeed any pair-wise combination of all four (and/or their elements). Complications like these will be
examined in what follows (in fact, some of them have already been checked).
No, this doesn't contradict what has been argued
elsewhere at this site that FL
isn't, nor does it represent, a 'theory of reality'. I am dealing with the
erroneous ideas promoted by Dialectical Marxists who think that that is not only
what Logic in general is, it is also what it should be. Hence, they believe that
FL is a limited
theory of 'the laws of thought' that supposedly reflects (in an abstract,
formal or even ideological sense) 'reality' -- which is why they offer their
readers DL as a 'superior theory'.
50.It could be objected that forces actually make things happen,
as opposed to preventing them from taking place. But even then, that would be the case if only one force
were to 'win
out', as it were -- also called "The Resultant". Furthermore, making something happen is even less easy to
interpret as a 'contradiction' than opposing or preventing something from
occurring. In that case, once more, calling this a 'dialectical
tautology' would be far more appropriate.
Be this as it may, the analysis
developed in the main body of this Essay
was based on
the idea that one ofP1
or P2brings about, or causes, its own event set, as opposed to initiating
the other set. So
even then, these forces do "make things happen".
Finally, it is rather odd arguing in one breath that forces don't prevent things
while in the next
asserting that forces oppose one anther! [On this, see the
next sub-section.]
Maybe
this DM-inspired conundrum should simply be
Nixoned...
50a.The material
that used to be here has been moved to Interlude Eight.
51.The terminology I have used here isn't what I should prefer
to employ (for reasons
also set out in
Essay One), but
tinkering around with it won't make the conclusion any clearer or any more
favourable to Dialectical Marxism. Nevertheless, the following is, perhaps, a little more 'correct':
F16a: Anything that is
prevented from occurring does not happen.
But, F16a is just a discursive 'tautology' -- although I should prefer to call it
a "grammatical remark"
(on this, see McGinn (2012)), since it expresses a linguistic convention -- a rule for the use of certain words.
[I have covered this in more detail in Essay Twelve Part One,
mainly here.]
52.It should be pointed out (once again!) that this 'new' account of the connection
between 'opposing forces' and 'contradictions' (advanced in the main body of this Essay) is
only being tentatively presented since DM-theorists are as hopelessly unclear in this area
as we have seen they are elsewhere -- butperhaps even more so, if that were
possible!
53. The phrasing of F24 might be considered prejudicial; in
which case, F24a is perhaps a slightly more acceptable alternative:
F24: P1 contradicts
P2 only if it counterbalancesP2.
F24a: P1
contradicts P2 if it counterbalancesP2.
That option will be considered presently
in the
main body of the Essay as F27.
54.We saw (in the passages quoted at the beginning of this Essay) that
several DM-theorists regard disequilibria
in nature and society as just as important as
corresponding equilibria, and hence also in
need of explanation. [Indeed, Weston also seems
to accept that reading, at least in so far as it pertains to the orbit of
one object (i.e., a planet) around another (e.g., a star), etc.]
54a.In order to
appreciate the point, compare F27 with the following:
S1: All things being equal, NN will arrive in
London, UK, if she takes the
M1.
[F27: P1 contradicts P2
if it counterbalances P2.]
S1 is a
sufficient condition,
not a necessary condition, so it doesn't rule out S2 or S3:
S2: All things being equal, NN will arrive in
London, UK, if she takes the
A1.
S3: All things being equal, NN will arrive in
London, UK, if she takes the
M40.
Since there are many different ways to travel to
most cities -- even though none of them is necessary, they could each still be
sufficient. None is unique in this regard, which they would have to be if they
were necessary.
So, S1-S3 are sufficient, not
necessary, conditions. Of course, if there were, and could only ever be, oneway to get to
London (or any other city), it would be both a
necessary and sufficient condition
(all things being equal).
[Often the former is expressed by the
use of
"only if". Unfortunately, the
Wikipedia article on this topic isn't a model of clarity; the
Stanford Internet Encyclopedia of Philosophy article is much better (to
which I have linked above), but
it is easily the more complicated of the two.
However, this
is perhaps the best article on-line about the distinction itself, especially for those new to modern logic.]
The verb phrase "All things being equal" (also
called a ceteris
paribus clause) is required, here, since it is assumed that other (adventitious)
events or circumstances fail to intervene to prevent NN reaching her destination -- such as a crash, a
breakdown, a phone call cancelling the trip, an illness, a robbery, etc., etc.
If the ceteris paribus caveat is allowed, then
S1-S3 would all be sufficient conditions -- otherwise, plainly, they wouldn't! To
state the obvious: simply travelling along a road doesn't guarantee you'll
arrive at your destination! [Which it would do if these were cast iron, super guaranteed, sufficient conditions. But,
as pointed out above, they aren't even
necessary, since there are other ways than by car of travelling to every city on earth
-- on foot, or by bike, train/boat/ship/air, etc., etc.]
There are in fact several suppressed ceteris paribus
clauses in most of the (futile) attempts I have made to render this part of DM
clear. I have omitted them in order to reduce complexity -- and, of
course, the irritation quotient.
56.Admittedly,
this is to use
dialectical-terminology (of obscure meaning and
even more dubious provenance);
that doesn't imply I accept any of it makes the slightest sense.
In fact,
this whole idea is an echo of Kant's concept of "real negation"
[Kant (1763, 1998)], which
we met in Essay Seven Part One. I
have critically evaluated his theory inAppendix A.
57.Of course, in
an analysis of situations where the smallest angle between these two forces
lies between 0°and 90°, or, indeed, between 90°and 180°, the components of the forces involved could be put in the required relation.
Unfortunately, the prospects for a realist, or even a metaphysical, account of
forces do not look at all promising. Indeed, it is worth
asking the following question: Are the components
of such forces in effect reallyshadow forces -- that is, are they
just mathematical fictions? Are they
genuine forces in the first place? And how might we distinguish them from 'real forces'?
Does anyone think that
these components actually exist? [As we will see, many do!] But, if they don't exist, how can the decomposition
(i.e., the splitting)
of forces into such non-existent components help in any way? On the other hand, if
they do exist, and we can split such forces in a potentially infinite
number of ways (as we rotate the relevant axes, or utilise
other
coordinate systems), then does every single one of these (other) component
forces co-exist
with all the rest (before or after decomposition) along with the original force?
Or, do they exist only when we think about, or actually decompose, them? [I have discussed this further in
Note 58.]
In fact, as
suggested in this and other Essays at this site, it is more fruitful and less
problematic to regard such mathematical structures as an expression of the rules we use to make sense of,
or manipulate, nature for our own purposes. That being the case, the above
'difficulties' simply vanish.
[I will add
a few more thoughts about 'component forces' to this Note in a future
re-write of this Essay. On this, see the books and articles listed in Note 6a.]
58. Hegel-fans mightn't object too much at this point since they have become inured to the hypnotic,
if not the narcoleptic
effect of
such opaque and obscure terminology -- indeed, just as they
seem inured to
the Word Magic upon which it depends. That verbal scam is
based on
a series of verbal tricks that attempt to derive 'fundamental truths' about 'Reality',
valid for all of time, solely from the supposed meaning of a few jargonised expressions. Anyone who
doubts this only has to leaf through a few academic studies of, or commentaries
on, Hegel's Logic to be convinced that these Captains of Confusion will happily swallow,
whole, guff like this even before breakfast, seldom blinking as they comment (favourably)
on Hegel's ability to conjure 'Nothing' out of 'Being', and then
'Becoming' out of both -- miraculously 'deriving'
all three from a quirky re-configuration of the diminutive verb "to be"!
However, at this point
consistent (historical) materialists will
no doubt call a halt and see the above 'derivation' for what it is: Idealist word-juggling at its best -- as, indeed, George Novack
(inadvertently) conceded:
"A consistent materialism can't proceed from
principles which are validated by appeal to abstract reason, intuition,
self-evidence or some other subjective or purely theoretical source. Idealisms
may do this. But the materialist philosophy has to be based upon evidence taken
from objective material sources and verified by demonstration in practice...."
[Novack (1965), p.17. Bold emphasis added. "Inadvertently", since Novack was
himself an expert at "proceeding" from "abstract reason, intuition,
self-evidence or some other subjective or purely theoretical source", as we
discovered in Essays
Two
and
Four.]
And,
as Engels himself emphasised (this time in relation to Dühring's
a priori 'system'):
"The general results of the investigation of the world are
obtained at the end of this investigation, hence are not principles, points
of departure, but results, conclusions. To construct the latter in
one's head, take them as the basis from which to start, and then reconstruct the
world from them in one's head is ideology, an ideology which tainted every
species of materialism hitherto existing.... AsDühring proceeds from
'principles' instead of facts he is an ideologist, and can screen his being one
only by formulating his propositions in such general and vacuous terms that they
appear axiomatic, flat. Moreover, nothing can be concluded from them; one
can only read something into them...." [Marx and Engels (1987), Volume
25, p.597. Bold emphases alone added; quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions adopted at this site.]
But,
as we have seen, that
is precisely what Engels also ended up doing.
[Hegel's
attempt to 'derive' Nothing and Becoming from Being will be
destructively criticised in Essay Twelve Part Five.]
This latest twist
once again brings into question the 'ontological' status of forces, -- and whether 'resolved
forces' actually exist. And if they don't, what are we to say about the
forces that were their source -- i.e., those that had just been resolved to create
those very components? Again, if resolved forces don't exist, then what are we
to say about resultant forces that have in effect been 'reverse resolved' (i.e.,
combined) from them? How can a resultant be the result of combining component
forces that don't exist? If we now conclude that resultant forces do exist, then when
we try to resolve them back into their components, so that those components are
now themselves resolved forces, do they thereby cease to exist? But, that can only
mean that the original forces that had been combined to make that resultant must
both exist and not exist!
It could be
argued, as it is on many Internet Physics sites, that such components can be
measured, so they must exist. But, so can the original force, the decomposition of which
'created' these components, and that can be ascertained at the same time. Does
this mean all three forces co-exist (the original force and its
components)? After all, they can all be measured. If so, that can only mean a single force will now have doubled its
strength, since the magnitude of the original force must exist, as must the
magnitude of its components. But, what are we to say if different axes or
co-ordinate systems are used? Do those new components also exist? If so, the
original force seems to be growing in strength all the time.
Now it might
be that these magnitudes can't be added in the above rather crude manner -- so
that when the original force has been measured we can't also add the magnitude
of its components, they have to be ignored, and vice versa. But that
reply only succeeds in nullifying the argument that all these forces (the
original force and its components) can be measured -- which was
taken to mean the component forces must also exist. If we have to ignore the magnitude of the
components while the magnitude of the original force is measured, and then we
have to ignore the magnitude of the original force while the magnitudes of its
components are measured, then those magnitudes must be mathematical fictions
(even if they are only such temporarily). That in turn must mean one or other of these forces
(the original or its components) physically cease to exist when all this
measuring is being carried out! On the other hand, if they (all) still physically exist, there seems no way any of
these magnitudes can legitimately be ignored. If they exist, so do their
magnitudes, which means they can be added, which, as we have just
seen, simply doubles the strength of the original force!).
There seems to be no
other way of interpreting this phenomenon.
[On this, see also the comments and links added to Note 57 above. I also return to this
topic when I consider the nature of resultant
forces.]
59.How have revolutionaries managed to overlook this vitally
important 'third force' for so long?
59a1.
In fact, we have been considering real material forces since the
beginning of this Essay! After all, what are gravity, magnetism and other fundamental forces
if not real and material? What we haven't done yet is consider in detail forces
at work in class society, but that is all. They will be dealt with presently, in Interlude Fourteen. See also,
here.
60.Several examples of 'real
material forces' that are supposed to comprise 'contradictions' (such as those between the forces and relations of
production, or between use-, and exchange-value) will be analysed in
Interlude Fourteen (link above).
[See also, here.]
60a0. Bertell Ollman has a somewhat
similar story to tell:
"Marx’s
approach to the future could not be more different. Like virtually everyone else
in his day, Marx was astounded by the scope and rapidity of the changes that
were occurring all around him, but also by their contradictory nature. The
enormous growth in the production of wealth, for example, came along with an
increase in the worst forms of poverty; progress in science and technology that
had a potential for making work much easier only succeeded in speeding up the
pace of work and lengthening the working day; even the increase of personal
freedom due to the abolition of various feudal ties came on the back of an even
greater decrease in freedom due to the unforgiving conditions in which people
were forced under pain of starvation to live and work (or what Marx was later to
call the 'violence of things').
Meanwhile, more and more of the world was becoming privatized, commodified,
fetishised, exploitable and exploited, and alienated as 'all that is solid melts
into air.'" [Quoted from
here. Accessed 22/12/2017. Quotation marks altered to conform with the
conventions adopted at this site. Bold emphasis added; spelling modified to agree with UK English.]
True
to form, Ollman helped himself to the word "contradictory" without even once thinking
to explain why what he claims is contradictory is
contradictory.
60a. Anyone tempted to reject these two questions (as prejudicial/misleading):
Had Hegel died of Cholera (or whatever it was that
finally killed him) 45 years earlier than he
actually 'left our presence',
does anyone really think we would be using this term -- "contradiction"
-- in the way DM-theorists do? Would we even be bothering with 'dialectics'?
should perhaps inform the rest of us
where else
could the DM-classicists have derived their odd use of "contradiction" or its
equivalent?
Other than a long line of
Mystics, who else employed that word this way?
61.As
pointed out above, if
this phrase is to assume a viable role in
HM, it must be understood
analogically.
[The details surrounding my own interpretation of such a key
HM-concept will have to wait on another occasion.]
[HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, also
depending on the context.]
In the main body of this Essay, however, I am
questioning both the literal and the metaphorical application of the word "contradiction" to situations
that present themselves in HM and DM.
61a0.
In relation to the first alternative interpretation (i.e., F46), I will offer
what I take to be a plausible HM-reinterpretation (i.e.,
F46a). I won't, though, do so for the
other alternatives.
F46: Capitalism offers A, but delivers only not
A.
F46a:
Capitalism offers abundance, but delivers only scarcity (i.e.,
'not-abundance').
62.The negation of wealth might appear to be poverty, but that is so in only a very
loose and figurative sort of sense. Recall that something could fail to be
wealth without automatically becoming a cause of, or being identical with,
poverty. Naturally, that is because the two words have a complex set of
application conditions and connotations. So, for example, Ł10,000 ($13,000) (invested as capital,
or held in cash) doesn't constitute wealth in and of itself, and the lack of it
doesn't automatically amount to poverty,
either. Both options obviously depend on the surrounding
historical and social
circumstances.
Of
course, in Marxist economic theory, wealth is associated with the production of use-values
(or, in class society, their monetary equivalent, etc.).
[That isn't being denied here. It is unclear, anyway, whether or not the
introduction of that technicality at this stage would significantly alter things.
However, on this see
Interlude Thirteen.]
Someone might
interject at this point and argue that the contradiction here is between the forces that create wealth and
those that produce poverty -- or, perhaps, the contradictions inherent in the
processes that operate toward either or both ends. Furthermore, social forces
like this are inextricably
interlinked and work in opposite directions in capitalist society. [On this, see the material that
used to be inNote 61a, above, but which has now been
moved here.]
Or, so it
might be argued...
But, do the
above forces turn into each other? They should do if the
DM-classics are to be believed. I have yet to read, meet, or engage in
discussion with a
single DM-supporter who claims they either do, or will one day, turn into one
another.
Be this as
it may, why call these "contradictions", to begin with? The only apparent reason
seems to be that the word itself was borrowed from
Hegel, who based his use of it on some
seriously
garbled 'logic'.
[There is much more on this in Essay Eight Part
Three.]
Anyway, this
specific topic has also been covered
in greater detail in this Essay, here and
in
Interlude Fourteen.
63. Earlier, we encountered similar problems
over the simplistic interpretation of schematic letters Dialectical Marxists
like to use (such as "A" and "not A"), in connection with Trotsky's criticism of
the LOI (i.e., in Essay Six),
as well as part of an extended and detailed analysis of
DL and FL (in
Essay Four).
There, it was demonstrated that these apparently simple-looking schematic
letters are deceptively complex.
[LOI = Law of Identity; FL = Formal Logic; DL =
Dialectical Logic.]
I have also ignored the couplet "A and non-A" here, which has a different logic,
even though Dialectical Marxists don't appear to be aware of the difference between
"A and non-A"
and
"A and not A". [On that, see
here.]
I
have done so because:
(i) The use of predicate-term negation (as this use of
"non-" is itself called) isn't generally colloquial; and,
(ii) It is even
less easy to derive a contradiction from this particular use of the negative particle.
[This
topic will be explored at greater length in Essay Twelve Parts Five and Six.
Anyway, the comments in the main body of this Essay aren't affected by the above distinction.]
It is
also worth adding that it is only the sloppy, it not slap-dash and amateurish way these letters
are regularly used by
Dialectical Marxists (who take their cue, of course, from
Hegel)
that 'allows' their 'theory' even to appear to be viable. [More
on that, here. A recent (2025)
example of the careless DM-use of symbols -- and from two Academic Marxists --
can be accessed
here.]
64.Unfortunately, F52 requires the use of some rather stilted language if it is to remain
literal. Anyway, the "poverty" reading will be adopted presently (in connection
with F49).
F52:
Capitalism produces wealth and not wealth.
[F49: Capitalism offers A, but delivers
A and B, where A and B
are opposites.]
A much more detailed analysis of the alleged 'contradiction' between
use-value and exchange-value can be found in Interlude Fourteen.
[See also here.]
65. F52a has to be interpreted this way
otherwise it might suggest that
Capitalism had in fact made the very same person (or group of people)
both wealthy and not wealthy at the same time! Not even Mad Dog
Dialecticians, I presume, would want to accept that as a valid interpretation of
their theory.
F52a: Capitalism produces wealth and Capitalism produces not
wealth.
66.This would, of course, be a contradiction if the first person in the fictional
conversation aired at this point in the main body of the Essay had said "There
are no defective Widgets", while the second came out with "There are some defective
Widgets", or if the first
had said "Every Widget is defective!", and the second retorted "Some
Widgets aren't defective". But,
plainly, these aren't the examples at issue -- mainly because there is no way any of them can be
regarded as
an interpretation of A and not A,
in F47:
F47: Capitalism offers A, but delivers both
A
and not A.
[Since
Aristotle, logicians have recognised that (in a non-empty universe)
"Every
F is G"
is the contradictory of "Some F is not G", and "No
F is G" is the contradictory
of "Some F is G". Concerning each pair of sentences both can't be true
and both can't be false at the same time;
they have opposite
truth-values. (Why the universe of discourse has to be non-empty was
explained earlier.)]
Someone might object that these are rather trite examples and aren't at all the sort of
contradictions of interest to
Dialectical Marxists.
Maybe so, but since the nature of the 'contradictions' that are of
interest to them has been left obscure for well over a hundred years, they will have to
do for now. And that will continue to be the case until such objectors manage to say clearly, and for the first time
ever, what they
do mean by their odd use of "contradiction". Moreover, if this
DM-concept/word fails to work with respect to these allegedly 'trite' examples,
it stands no chance in relation to more complex objects and processes.
However, on that, see
here,
here and
Interlude Fourteen (link above).
70. If,
say, an abundance of money in one pocket (or even a large horde of "use-values" in, for example, a warehouse somewhere), per impossibile,
did manage to 'contradict' another
empty
warehouse, locally or remotely, it would make no sense, even in DM-terms.
Presumably, since such lifeless objects have no effect on each other they couldn't
cause any changes (in each other), nor could they develop into one another (as
DM-'contradictions'/UOs are all
supposed to do).
Even worse, the existence of one of them does not imply the existence of the other; so
they aren't 'interpenetrated opposites', either.
[UO = Unity of Opposites.]
So, even in DM-terms,
it is unclear what sense it makes to say that such factors are part of, or
could even constitute, a 'dialectical contradiction'.
The
material that used to be here has now been moved to Interlude Thirteen.
71. Naturally, and once again, these
comments will have to remain tentative until we are told what (if anything)
DM-theorists mean by the term "dialectical contradiction". Since this ground has been
raked over scores of times already, yet another pass here will be avoided.
72. The
material that used to be here has now been moved to
Interlude Fourteen (link in Note 64, above).
73.
On this, see
Interlude Thirteen and
Interlude Fourteen.
[Links above.]
76a.
For those not too familiar with the terms "relative form" and "equivalent form,
the following remarks might be of some help:
"In the simple expression of value the two types of commodities, linen and coat,
obviously play two
different roles.
The linen is the commodity which
expresses its value in the body of a commodity different from it,
the coat. On the other hand, the commodity-type coat serves as
the material in which value is expressed.
The one commodity plays an active, the other a passive role. Now we say of the
commodity which expresses its value in another commodity:
its value is represented as relative
value,
or is in the relative
value-form.
As opposed to this, we say of the other commodity, here the coat, which serves
as the material of the expression of value:
it functions as
equivalent to
the first commodity or is in
the equivalent form."
[Quoted from
here.
Italic
emphases in the original. Accessed 01/11/2021.]
77a.The reference to "p and q"
and "p and not p", in relation to F63,
might seem a little obscure:
F63: Hence, propositions that express the fact that one or more of E1-En
have been prevented from
taking place contradict propositions that express an expectation that they will occur.
If "p" stands for, say, "E1
has been prevented from taking place", then "not p" will stand for "It is not the
case that
E1
has been prevented from taking place". "Not p" can't therefore stand for "E1
is expected to take place". Since the latter clearly isn't of the form
"not p", "q" was recruited in order to represent that
logically unconnected sentence.
So, that is why reference was made to
"p and q", but not to "p and not p", in relation to F63.
78. The import of this
particular claim
is obscure, at best, even if many physicists believe this theory to be
true (i.e.,
the one that has replaced certain forces with a transfer of momentum).
However, since that idea seems to have no real bearing on the issues at hand, no more will be said about it here.
79. This alternative provides us with a clue as to why it is that
HM
works -- and why it does so even while DM
self-destructs. Clearly, only human beings (as individuals or as members
of a class) canform contradictory aims and intentions
-- even if they and the connections between them are often only dimly perceived,
or aren't perceived at all. Plainly, therefore, this would allow F67 to be
re-written in a way that rendered it conducive to HM -- the exposition of which
will not be attempted here.
F67: The prevention of one or more of
E1-En
taking place contradicts the aims of Pn, the set of forces
that would have produced all of E1-En but
for the presence of P1.
[HM = Historical Materialism/Materialist,
depending on the context; DM = Dialectical Materialism/Materialist, also
depending on the context.]
80.
To be fair, analogous problems afflict every account of causality concocted by
Traditional Philosophers and Metaphysicians. So, this isn't a conundrum confined to DM-theorists
alone. [This topic is discussed in more detail in
Essays Thirteen Part
Three and Three Part Five.]
Hegel scholars
have tried to argue that 'dialectical contradictions' (partially) originated in Kant's
concept of 'real negation'/'opposition' (a concept first aired in Kant (1763)). In this
Appendix I propose to examine only
those sections of Kant's work that are relevant to the aims of this Essay
and this site.
[Some of the background to this topic can be found in Redding (2007), Chapter Three.]
Kant begins by distinguishing between two
types of opposition:
"Two
things are opposed to each other if one thing cancels that which is posited
by the other. This opposition is two-fold: it is either logical through
contradiction, or it is real, that is to say, without contradiction.
"The first opposition, namely logical
opposition, is that upon which attention has been exclusively and uniquely
concentrated until now. The opposition consists in the fact that something is
simultaneously affirmed and denied of the very same thing. The consequence of
the logical conjunction is nothing at all [nihil negativum irrepraesentabile
-- 'A negative nothing which is incapable of being represented' -- translation
on p.439 -- RL], as the law of contradiction asserts. A body which is in motion
is something; a body which is not in motion is also something [cogitabile
-- 'Capable of being thought' -- translation on p.439 -- RL]; but a body which
is both in motion and also, in the very same sense, not in motion, is nothing at
all.
"The second opposition, namely real
opposition, is that where two predicates of a thing are opposed to each other,
but not through the law of contradiction. Here, too, one thing cancels that
which is posited by the other; but the consequence is something (cogitabile).
The motive force of a body in one direction and an equal tendency of the same
body in the opposite direction do not contradict each other; as predicates, they
are simultaneously possible in one body. The consequence of such an
opposition is rest, which is something [repraesentabile -- 'Capable of
being represented' -- translation on p.439 -- RL]. It is, nonetheless, a true
opposition. For that which is posited by the one tendency, construed as existing
on its own, is cancelled by the other tendency, and the two tendencies are true
predicates of one and the self-same thing, and they belong to it simultaneously.
The consequence of the opposition is also nothing, but nothing in another sense
to that in which it occurs in a contradiction [nihil privativum,
repraesentabile -- 'A negative nothing which is capable of being
represented' -- translation on p.439 -- RL]. We shall, in future, call this
nothing: zero = 0. Its meaning is the same as that of negation (negatio),
lack, absence -- notions which are in general use among philosophers -- albeit
with a more precise determination which will be specified later on." [Kant
(1763), p.211. Bold emphases alone added.]
Already, we see Kant conflating what words
themselves as such mean (not whatever they 'reflect' or refer to in
'reality') with what we can do with them; that is he runs together, (a)
linguistic meaning with
speakers' meaning, and (b) talk about talk with talk about
things. Those two type of confusions won't form the main focus of what follows (except in
connection with what I have to say presently about 'cancellation'), since I have said much more
about (a) in Essay Thirteen
Part
Three. For (b), follow these links:
this and
this. I will also refrain from commenting about Kant's attempt to define
'opposition through contradiction' (or the example he cites -- concerning
motion). I have said enough about this in Essays
Four,
Five,
Eight
Part Three and Eleven
Part One, as well
as throughout this Essay.
Unfortunately for Kant,contradiction has
nothing to do with 'cancellation', nor has opposition. If, for example, you
and others oppose
the fascists
on the streets, they aren't thereby cancelled. Would that it were so easy to 'cancel' fascists! Furthermore,
as already noted, just like many other Traditional Philosophers Kant has confused talk about talk with
talk about things (that is, talk about language with talk about the
world). This is obvious enough from the opening sentence:
"Two things are opposed to each other
if one thing cancels that which is posited by the other. This opposition is
two-fold: it is either logical through contradiction, or it is real, that is to
say, without contradiction." [Ibid. Bold emphasis added.]
"Things", of course, can't "posit" anything,
nor can predicates "oppose" one another,
since they possess neither brain, intellect nor language. A similar muddle
'allowed'
Hegel, for example, to confuse what we might say when we contradict one another
with how the universe itself works! Hence, Kant's jumping-off
point was ill-conceived and confusedfrom the start. That is because he began with a
'definition' of opposition that was itself based on two serious errors (i.e.,
the conflation of opposition with cancellation, and his confusion over the nature
of language -- illustrated below). We have
also seen
that two opposing forces do not 'cancel' each other, even
when one force nullifies, or partially nullifies, the effects of the second
force. Kant felt he could do this since he ran-together the meaning of "cancel"
with that of "oppose" -- or perhaps, "fully oppose". This means that because Hegel derived
his ideas in this area (in
whole or in part) from
Kant's
ruminations about opposing forces, his [Hegel's] theory was defective before he
even began!
[However, we have already
noted that Hegel's
'logic' was seriously flawed for other reasons -- on that, see
here and
here.]
Despite this, we can
see from the above passage
where the idea that opposing forces are 'contradictory' probably originated:
"The second opposition, namely real
opposition, is that where two predicates of a thing are opposed to each other,
but not through the law of contradiction. Here, too, one thing cancels that
which is posited by the other; but the consequence is something (cogitabile).
The motive force of a body in one direction and an equal tendency of the same
body in the opposite direction do not contradict each other; as predicates, they
are simultaneously possible in one body." [Ibid. Italics in the
original.]
Exactly how predicates can be 'opposed' to
one another Kant neglected to say. Nevertheless, it turns out that the examples
he subsequently offered his readers only succeeded in undermining other
points he
wanted to make about this
type of opposition -- as we are about to
discover.
Indeed, this entire approach to opposition derives from ancient, mystical ideas about
its nature and origin --
explored in
Essay Two --, except in
Kant's case they were translated into what predicates are now capable of doing,which unfortunately pictures themas agents in their own right! That in turn connects these
antiquated notions with religious
doctrines about the
creation of the world by the 'Word' of 'God'. If the world (or if 'things') are
fundamentally linguistic and mind-like, they can surely 'posit' whatever they like, and,
in that sense, they can be said to 'oppose' one another. Otherwise they can't.
Kant has clearly run together "opposite meaning" with "opposition",
a linguistic slide that allowed him then to equate a feature of our use of
language (i.e., that it possesses antonyms) with
what happens in the world (i.e., that it is possible to nullify, undo, or even
reverse, the effects of forces, actions or commands by their contraries).
As argued in another
Essay
published at this
site (slightly edited):
Super-ScientificTruths, which Ancient Greek Philosophers 'derived' solely
from the meaning of a set of specially-selected and 'surgically-enhanced' words,
began to mirror the abstract view of reality adopted by this new layer of
theorists, just as the theories they concocted also reflected
their daily experience of class society. In this way, their mode of being
mirrored their view of 'Being'. The lifestyle of these theoretical drones was largely
dominated by leisure -- leisure bought (directly or indirectly) at the expense of the necessary
labour-time of those whose language and experience they also denigrated. In order to give expression to this form of estrangement, they
concocted obscure, Idealist-inspired 'jargon' that was
deliberately set in opposition to the 'debased' and 'unreliable' language of those who had
to work to stay alive and which kept them in the luxury to which they had become
accustomed.
In
earlier
myths and
Theogonies,
conflict in this world was viewed as a reflection of the rivalries that existed
between warring 'gods', struggles that took place in a hidden world
beyond the reach of the senses. Their verbal wrangles and machinations became the model upon
which later Idealist and Hermetic
thinkers based their new and impressive,
Super-Scientific Theories -- 'world-views' that attempted to explain all of 'Being'
-- which they then happily and peremptorily imposed on nature and society.
As Marx and Engels argued, language was originally the
product of collective labour and developed as a means of communication,
but it is ill-suited
when
pressed into service as a means of representation (especially when it
came to be viewed as a medium for representing the thoughts of 'God'). In order to
transform the vernacular into just such a representational device, theorists found they
had to take words that had grown out of, and which expressed, relations between
human beings and apply them to the relations between objects in nature --, or,
indeed, between those warring 'deities' --, as the late Professor
Havelock
noted:
"As long as preserved
communication remained oral, the environment could be described or explained
only in the guise of stories which represent it as the work of agents: that is
gods.
Hesiod
takes the step of trying to unify those stories into one great
story, which becomes a cosmic theogony. A great series of matings and births of
gods is narrated to symbolise the present experience of the sky, earth, seas,
mountains, storms, rivers, and stars. His poem is the first attempt we have in a
style in which the resources of documentation have begun to intrude upon the
manner of an acoustic composition. But his account is still a narrative of
events, of 'beginnings,' that is, 'births,' as his critics the
Presocratics
were to put it. From the standpoint of a sophisticated
philosophical language, such as was available to Aristotle, what was lacking
was a set of commonplace but abstract terms which by their interrelations could
describe the physical world conceptually; terms such as space, void, matter,
body, element, motion, immobility, change, permanence, substratum, quantity,
quality, dimension, unit, and the like. Aside altogether from the coinage of
abstract nouns, the conceptual task also required the elimination of verbs of
doing and acting and happening, one may even say, of living and dying, in favour
of a syntax which states permanent relationships between conceptual terms
systematically. For this purpose the required linguistic mechanism was furnished
by the timeless present of the verb to be -- the copula of analytic
statement. The history of early
philosophy is usually written under the assumption that this kind of vocabulary
was already available to the first Greek thinkers. The evidence of their own
language is that it was not. They had to initiate the process of inventing it....
Nevertheless, the
Presocratics could not invent such language by an act of novel creation. They
had to begin with what was available, namely, the vocabulary and syntax of
orally memorised speech, in particular the language of
Homer
and
Hesiod. What they proceeded to do was to take the language of the mythos and
manipulate it, forcing its terms into fresh syntactical relationships which had
the constant effect of stretching and extending their application, giving them a
cosmic rather than a particular reference."
[Havelock (1983), pp.13-14, 21. Bold emphases added; quotation marks altered to
conform with the conventions adopted at this site. Spelling modified to agree with
UK English. Links added; paragraphs merged.]
Unfortunately, these (co-opted) ordinary
expressions also carried with them
into these new ideological surroundings connotations they possessed when they
were used in everyday life -- in connection with inter-human
communication, as an expression of our social nature. Predictably, these moves
had the following untoward effect: when the ideas such words seemed to
express were imposed on nature (in the above manner), traditional (metaphysical
and quasi-religious) views of the world were inevitably caught up in this.
Hence, this new use of language amounted to a projection
of the human social relations the words involved originally expressed. This
succeeded in anthropomorphising
(and, indeed, enchanting) nature
and society.
This is how the
RRT originally arose
and took shape.
[RRT = Reverse Reflection Theory;
follow the above link for an explanation.]
In which case, Marx was entirely
correct when he said the
following:
"Feuerbach's great achievement is.... The proof that philosophy is nothing else but
religion rendered into thought and expounded by thought, i.e., another form
and manner of existence of the estrangement of the essence of man; hence equally
to be condemned...." [Marx
(1975b),
p.381. Bold emphasis
and link added.]
As we will see in other Essays published at
this site: because they appropriated and then elaborated upon these
anthropomorphic concepts, later generations of thinkers (i.e., the vast majority of post-Renaissance
Philosophers, including Dialectical
Marxists) anthropomorphised
nature in like manner. In this way, much of subsequent thought failed to break free from this
ancient, animistic, enchanted view of the universe.
[This process has been
analysed in detail in Essay
Thirteen Part Three (especially
here,
here, and
here),
but in relation to the anthropomorphisation of the human psyche, wherein
the brain is pictured as 'seeing' things, sending 'messages' or conveying 'information' to other parts of the body, employing
'signals' and 'codes' in order to so do.... It will be further illustrated in Essay Three Part Five
(when it is published), where it will be shown that this view of nature and
humanity lends superficial plausibility to 'determinism' (and by default to metaphysical
theories concerning the 'freedom of the will'), as nature and society are
themselves attributed with
capacities, 'laws', and powers that enable it to 'determine' the course of
events with 'iron necessity'. Until that Essay is published, the reader is
directed here and
here for more
details.]
Superstitious individuals had earlier
tried to interpret natural processes as the work of various 'spirits' and 'deities', using anthropomorphic language to
that end. Subsequently, in more developed class societies, priests and
theologians indulged in these thought-forms for ideological reasons, in
order to suggest that the natural and social order are 'divinely-ordained', the
legitimacy of which not only couldn't it shouldn't be questioned, let alone resisted. Subsequently, as we
can see from the record,
Ancient Greek Thinkers began looking for increasingly secular ways of theorising
about the world in order to construct a less animistic rationale for the new forms of class
society beginning to emerge in the 6th century BC.
However, they also retained use of this
'transformed language', not noticing they had in fact banished the
aforementioned 'spirits' and 'gods' in name alone (as Feuerbach half
recognised),' Despite their efforts, the
anthropomorphic
connotations still lingered on, and there they remain to this day.
Unfortunately for humanity, these
developments also meant
that it became 'natural' for theorists (like
Anaximenes and
Heraclitus) to see conflict in conceptual, logical and
linguistic terms. And this is from
where Hegel appropriated these archaic and terminally obscure ideas.
That, of course, set
this new form of discourse in direct opposition to the language of everyday
life. Again, as noted above, these alienated thought-forms were bequeathed to all
subsequent generations of thinkers, since the latter largely shared the same
privileged material conditions, ruling-class patronage and ideological predispositions that came with this slice of the
intellectual territory.
In this artificially-constructed 'intellectual
community', populated
by indolent thinkers like these, words appeared to
exert
their own irresistible authority; commands, edicts and orders seemed to
possess their own secret, magical power (which, of
course,
accounts for the ancient and early modern search for the original language that 'God' gave to mankind;
on this, see
Eco
(1997), partially quoted here).
Words were, after all, capable of moving slaves, servants, and
workers effortlessly about the place. Codified into law,
words
also appeared to possess genuine
and effective
coercivepower,
which helped mask the class domination on which this parasitic social form was
predicated. Naturally, this
entirely superficial aspect of official language would blind those who benefited from
these social forms
to its material roots in class society.
The very real social power that words seemed
to possess would
'naturally' suggest to such theoretical 'drones'
that if language underpinned
the authority of the State, and if the
State mirrored
Cosmic Reality, then the universe must also run along discursive lines.
These theorists would now begin to
misinterpret a
conventionalisedsocial
form as a secret code that powered the universe -- mastery of which would help
those inducted into its mysteries to grasp the 'essential' nature of 'Being', and then, perhaps, control
it. [On
this, see Kingsley (1997).]
In that case, Traditional Theorists
would start to see reality not simply as 'rational', but as ultimately linguistic,
constituted by the word of some 'god', or other. In ancient creation myths, the 'Deity' spoke and everything not only
popped into existence, it sprang to attention and thereafter always did as it was told.
Given this approach, seemingly
inert matter actually had the capacity to obey orders (but only when addressed with
'the right sort
of language'; hence a search was initiated as generations of sorcerers and
mystics looked for these magical words),
as if matter were intelligent and possessed a will of its own. Nature thus
came to be viewed as an enchanted
'Being', with 'secrets' hidden 'beneath its surface'. Moreover, because of the distorted view of language
that underpinned this theory, 'Being Itself' could be recruited to bolster the 'legitimation' and 'rationalisation' of class power.
Indeed, as these
Ancient Theorists saw things, nature was
governed by
opposing forces:
good and evil, light and dark, order and chaos, love and hate, hot and cold. All
were either personified as good/evil intelligences, or they were re-configured as
discursive principles (i.e., as 'logical' laws -- which weren't in fact just 'laws of thought',
they were
principles that governed all of 'Reality', stitched into the its 'fabric' by the supreme
Logos, who made everything by the command of 'His' voice, by language).
Here is Hegel giving expression to
this 'world-view':
"This objective thinking, then, is
the content of pure science. Consequently, far from it being formal, far
from it standing in need of a matter to constitute an actual and true cognition,
it is its content alone which has absolute truth, or, if one still wanted to
employ the word matter, it is the veritable matter -- but a matter which is not
external to the form, since this matter is rather pure thought and hence the
absolute form itself. Accordingly, logic is to be understood as the system of
pure reason, as the realm of pure thought. This realm is truth as it is
without veil and in its own absolute nature. It can therefore be said that this
content is the exposition of God as he is in his eternal essence before the
creation of nature and a finite mind.
Anaxagoras
is praised as the man who first declared that Nous,
thought, is the principle of the world, that the essence of the world is to
be defined as thought. In so doing he laid the foundation for an
intellectual view of the universe, the pure form of which must be logic. What we are dealing with in logic is not
a thinking about
something which exists independently as a base for our thinking and apart from
it, nor forms which are supposed to provide mere signs or distinguishing marks
of truth; on the contrary, the necessary forms and self-determinations of
thought are the content and the ultimate truth itself." [Hegel
(1999), pp.49-50,
§53-54.
Bold emphases and link added. Italic emphases in the original; paragraphs
merged.]
These ideas feature in
ancient creation myths, in Greek Philosophy, in
Hindu, Buddhist and Chinese thought (appearing in the latter as Yin and Yang, for
instance -- for more examples of this, see
here). Hence, for such
thinkers, the internal source of movement and development was
ultimately linguistic, determined by these discursive
opposites. Either that, or reality was founded on an Intelligence or Will
of some sort (thus also on language), and, once again, all this was directly linked
to the rationalisation of ruling-class power.
Therefore,
material
reality was not so
much congealed energy as condensed language, no less the slave of 'God'
than humans were subjects of the state. Hence, "ruling ideas" were
derived either from the alienated thoughts of those who actually ruled or those who rationalised
that rule on their behalf. "Ruling ideas" thus ruled society because, for such
Idealists and Mystics, Hierarchical Ideas ruled the world.
As above, so below;
the microcosm mirrored the macrocosm; indeed, just as Traditional Thought supposedly
mirrored the world.
Few Traditional Thinkers have strayed
far from these 'metaphysical tram-lines', these archaic patterns-of-thought, even if they
came to be expressed in
different idioms as each Mode of Production rose and fell, and as each state
altered its legal form or developed new ideological priorities....
Some might object that philosophical ideas can't
have remained the
same for thousands of years, across different modes of production. That claim runs
counter to core ideas in Historical Materialism. But, we don't argue the same
for religious belief. Marx put no time stamp on the following, for
example:
"...Man makes religion, religion does not make man. Religion is, indeed, the
self-consciousness and self-esteem of man who has either not yet won through to
himself, or has already lost himself again. But man is no abstract
being squatting outside the world. Man is the world of man -- state,
society. This state and this society produce religion, which is an inverted
consciousness of the world, because they are an inverted world.
Religion is the general theory of this world, its encyclopaedic compendium, its
logic in popular form, its spiritual point d'honneur, its enthusiasm, its
moral sanction, its solemn complement, and its universal basis of consolation
and justification. It is the fantastic realization of the human essence
since the human essence has not acquired any true reality.... Religious
suffering is, at one and the same time, the expression of real suffering
and a protest against real suffering. Religion is the sigh of the
oppressed creature, the heart of a heartless world, and the soul of soulless
conditions. It is the opium of the people."
[Marx
(1975c), p.244.
Italic emphases in the original; paragraphs merged.]
The above remarks applied back in Ancient Babylon and Egypt,
just as they did thousands of years ago in China, India, Greece and Rome --
indeed, as they continued to apply in the Middle Ages and
have done so right across the planet ever since. As Marx and Engels
also said:
"[O]ne fact is
common to all past ages, viz., the exploitation of one part of society by the
other. No wonder, then, that the social consciousness of past ages, despite
all the multiplicity and variety it displays, moves within certain common forms,
or general ideas, which cannot completely vanish except with the total
disappearance of class antagonisms. The Communist revolution is the most
radical rupture with traditional property relations; no wonder that its
development involved the most radical rupture with traditional ideas." [Marx
and Engels (1968b), p.52. Bold emphases added.]
While these thought-forms represented a significant ideological leap for alienated mankind,
they represented a major step backward for oppressed and exploited humanity.
That is
because Traditional Theorists carved these "ruling-ideas"
into the very fabric of the heavens -- by their continual, steadfast conflation
of talk about talk
with talk about the world, and by their long-standing adherence to the
RRT.
[I say more about this
below.]
And, in one form
or another, there those ideas remain
to this day.
It is no surprise, therefore, to see Kant's
thought processes travel along these well trodden intellectual paths.
Indeed, as
Wittgenstein pointed out:
"Language has the same traps ready for
everyone; the immense network of easily trodden false paths. And thus we see one
person after another walking down the same paths.... One keeps hearing the remark that philosophy
really doesn't make any progress, that the same philosophical problems that
occupied the Greeks keep occupying us. But those who say that don't understand the
reason this must be so. The reason is that our language has remained constant
and keeps seducing us into asking the same questions. So long as there is a verb
'be' that seems to function like 'eat' and 'drink', so long as there are the adjectives
'identical', 'true', 'false', 'possible', so long as there is talk about a flow
of time and an expanse of space, etc., etc. humans will continue to bump up
against the same mysterious difficulties, and stare at something that no
explanation seems able to remove. And this, by the way, satisfies a longing
for the transcendental [an alternative version of the manuscript has
'supernatural' here -- RL], for in believing that they see the 'limit of human
understanding' they of course believe that they can see beyond it. I read '...philosophers are no nearer to the
meaning of 'Reality' than Plato got...'. What a strange state of affairs. How
strange in that case that Plato could get that far in the first place! Or that
after him we were not able to get further. Was it because Plato was so
clever?" [Wittgenstein (2013), pp.311-12e. Italic emphases in the
original; quotation marks altered to conform with the conventions adopted at this
site. Paragraphs merged.]
While Kant himself rejected the application
of the word "contradiction" to 'opposing forces', it didn't take much
effort for
subsequent Idealists to do that for him and stretch the meaning of "opposition" so that it finally became
synonymous with
"contradiction" (or those described above, that are engaged in some
form of real-world inter-action, and not just in language --, especially after Kant had also stirred the terms "real
opposition" and "negation" into the pot). The 'intellectual' slide from one
understanding to the other was further
motivated by Kant's sloppy use of "cancel". If that word legitimately
applies to both terms (i.e., if it applies to "contradiction" and "real
negation" alike), then what had begin to look like 'passive opposition' -- for want of a better term --
could all the more easily be transformed into 'active opposition', and then
later into 'dialectical
contradiction' at the hands of a
Hermetic Con-Artist called Hegel.
We can also
see from
the above passage where
the equation of "forces" with "tendencies" -- an equivalence subsequently appropriated by
Tom Weston, as we discovered earlier -- might have originated:
"The second opposition, namely real
opposition, is that where two predicates of a thing are opposed to each other,
but not through the law of contradiction. Here, too, one thing cancels that
which is posited by the other; but the consequence is something (cogitabile).
The motive force of a body in one direction and an equal tendency of the same
body in the opposite direction do not contradict each other; as predicates, they
are simultaneously possible in one body. The consequence of such an
opposition is rest, which is something (repraesentabile -- 'Capable of
being represented' -- translation on p.439 -- RL). It is, nonetheless, a true
opposition. For that which is posited by the one tendency, construed as existing
on its own, is cancelled by the other tendency, and the two tendencies are true
predicates of one and the self-same thing, and they belong to it simultaneously.
The consequence of the opposition is also nothing, but nothing in another sense
to that in which it occurs in a contradiction (nihil privativum,
repraesentabile -- 'A negative nothing which is capable of being
represented' -- translation on p.439 -- RL). We shall, in future, call this
nothing: zero = 0. Its meaning is the same as that of negation (negatio),
lack, absence -- notions which are in general use among philosophers -- albeit
with a more precise determination which will be specified later on." [Kant
(1763), p.211. Bold emphases alone added.]
We
have already seen that
Traditional
Philosophers regularly confused predicates with properties; i.e., they
interpret
predicates one minute as linguistic expressions, the next as the properties of
bodies, or even the properties of forces themselves. Hence, and once again, they too confused talk about talk with
talk about things. And we find Kant doing likewise when he says,
for instance:
K1: "The
second opposition, namely real opposition, is that where two predicates of a
thing are opposed to each other.... The motive force of a body in one
direction and an equal tendency of the same body in the opposite direction do
not contradict each other; as predicates, they are simultaneously possible in
one body." [Ibid. Bold added.]
K2: "For
that which is posited by the one tendency, construed as existing on its
own, is cancelled by the other tendency, and the two tendencies are true
predicates of one and the self-same thing, and they belong to it
simultaneously." [Ibid. Bold added.]
In
K1, predicates are properties of bodies and forces --, like, say, colour and size are.
But, in
K2 they can truly be posited; so, they are now linguistic expressions,
even while they are also the properties of 'things'.
Not
content with that, Kant also confused "nothing" with "zero",
which is another serious error. As
Blaise Pascal pointed
out, if zero (i.e., 0) and nothing were the same, then 10 would equal 1 since both are
immediately followed by nothing!
Be this as it may, Kant expanded on what he
thought he meant by appealing to a series of examples taken from elementary arithmetic
(all the while confusing the displacement of a body from an origin or starting point with the
distance
travelled), and,
for want of a better term, navigation:
"Mathematicians make use of the
concepts of this real opposition in the case of mathematical magnitudes. In
order to indicate them, the mathematicians designate them by means of the signs
'+' and '−'. Since every such opposition is reciprocal, it can easily be seen
that one magnitude cancels the other, either complete or in part.... Suppose
that a ship sails from Portugal to Brazil. Let all the distances which it covers
with the east wind be designated by '+', while those which it covers with the
west wind are designated by '−'. The numbers themselves signify miles. The
week's journey is +12 +7 −3 −5 +8 = 19 miles; this is the distance the ship has
sailed westwards." [Kant (1763), pp.212-13. There is a similar argument
advanced in Hegel (1975), pp.172-74,
partially quoted below. Bold emphasis
added.]
Several years later, Hegel simply regurgitated a garbled version of the same
argument (and without attribution):
"If +W mean 6 miles to the West, and -W mean 6 miles to the East, and if the +
and - cancel each other, the 6 miles of way or space remain what they were with
and without the contrast. Even the mere plus
and minus of
number or abstract direction have, if we like, zero, for their third: but it
need not be denied that the empty contrast, which understanding institutes
between plus and
minus, is
not without its value in such abstractions as number, direction, &c." [Hegel
(1975), p.172, §119.
Good luck trying to understand what this Pope of Perplexity was trying to say --
i.e., without
first having read Kant!]
If you walk
100 metres west from your home (or some other starting point), turn through 180ş,
and then walk 50 metres east, you will have travelled a total of 150
metres, but your displacement from your home (or starting point) will now be 50 metres. Hegel
and Kant confused these two ways of describing relative motion.
So, on the basis of this
prime example of sophomoric confusion
(fortified by a throw-away line Hegel found in one of Spinoza's letters -- i.e.,
'Every determination is also negation') this Conceptual Con-Artist built his entire system!
[Details
concerning Spinoza's 'throw-away line' referred to above -- and why it fails
even in its own terms -- can be accessed
here,
here and
here.]
As we are
about to see, Kant's ship example undermines his
(and Hegel's) claim that these mathematical operations "cancel" one
another. If the ship in question has indeed sailed the above miles, then it has clearly travelled a total of 35 miles (not 19).
Just because it has sailed 8 miles (west), that doesn't mean it hasn't
then
travelled those -8 miles to the east (i.e., the -5 and -3 distances). Of course, the ship has in the end sailed a
net total of 19
miles west (anda grosstotal distance 27 miles west
-- i.e., 12 + 7 + 8), which is now its displacement from the starting point. But, the 8
miles it also sailed west fail to cancel
anything, nor do the -8 miles (i.e., -3 + -5) it has travelled east. The ship has still
sailed those miles.
If you replace that ship with a car, then the
odometer in
that vehicle will show a total of 35 miles travelled (i.e., 12 + 7 + 3 + 5 + 8).
The 'negative distances' still had to be covered, so they lose their
negative signs when the total distance the car has travelled is to be
ascertained. That will be so unless, of course, the car was driven backwards
for the -3 and -5 distances. But, even then,
that car will still have covered 35 miles, and its petrol/gas tank will have
consumed a commensurate amount of fuel (or electricity, if it is
battery-powered). [Henceforth, I will assume this is a petrol/gas-fuelled
vehicle.] Consider a car with a full tank that
will allow it to be driven, say, 400 miles (all things being equal). No one
supposes that if it is driven 200 miles west, and then 200 miles east,
the petrol/gas tank will miraculously re-fill itself on the second leg of the
journey -- that is, that the use of petrol/gas to travel in one direction is somehow
'cancelled' by the use of petrol/gas travelling in the opposite direction -- even though +200
−200 = 0 (if we use Kant and Hegel's rather
confused
symbols -- more on that presently).
As is the case with many others, Kant
and Hegel have also muddled an operation that undoes another operation with
cancellation. Cancellation would mean that the said operation wasn't carried out;
an inverse operation on the other hand simply undoes whatever another operation had
done. So, if the
captain of a ship wants to cancel part of her journey, she will just not sail.
In order to cancel it, what she wouldn't do is sail west and then sail the same distance east! If you cancel your
holiday/vacation, you just don't go. What you don't do is go to Ibiza,
Cancun, Florence,
Costa Rica, or wherever, and then come straight back! Of course, if your holiday/vacation had
been cancelled by someone else while you were on your way to your destination,
that might involve you having to return, but no one in their left mind would
cancel their own holiday/vacation by travelling to their destination, then
promptly returning home.
Kant continues:
"The magnitudes preceded by '−' have
this sign in front of them simply to signify opposition, for they are to be
combined with those magnitudes which are preceded by '+'.... And since
subtraction is a cancellingwhich occurs when opposed magnitudes are taken
together, it is evident that the '−' cannot really be a sign of subtraction, as
is commonly supposed; it is only the combination of '+' and '−' together which
signifies subtraction. Hence the proposition '−4 −5 = −9' is not a subtraction
at all, but a genuine increase and addition of magnitudes of the same kind. On
the other hand, '+9 −5 = 4' does signify a subtraction, for the signs of
opposition indicate that the one cancels as much in the other as is equal to
itself. Likewise, the sign '+' on its own does not really signify addition
itself. The sign '+' only signifies addition in so far as the magnitude which it
precedes is supposed to be combined with another magnitude which is also
preceded by '+', or is thought of as preceded by '+'. If, however, it is to be
combined with a magnitude preceded by '−', this can only occur by means of
opposition, and then both the sign '+' and the sign '−' signify a subtraction,
one magnitude cancelling as much in the second magnitude as is equal, namely, to
the first, as for example '−9 +4 = −5'. For this reason, the sign '−', as it
occurs in the example '−9 −4 = −13', does not signify a subtraction but an
addition, in exactly the same way as the sign '+', as it occurs in the example
'+9 +4 = +13' signifies addition." [Kant (1763), p.213. Bold emphases added.]
First
of all, Kant has again helped himself to the word "opposition" with no attempt
to justify this odd use of that word
in such
a context. In what way is a "−" sign oppositional? Consider, for example, a
temperature of -5°C. Is the sign in front to the "5" here actually in 'opposition' to
anything? Someone might think it 'opposes' +5°C? But, when we turn these temperatures into
Fahrenheit, we
obtain 23°F and 41°F, respectively. [Something analogous occurs if we switch to
degrees Kelvin.] Where has the alleged 'opposition' gone?
Second,
Kant has plainly confused positive
and negative integers with the operations of addition and
subtraction. 7, for example, is a positive integer; adding 7 is what we do
with it. Running the two together would be like confusing a pencil with what
can be drawn with it. This muddle hasn't been helped either by mathematicians
using the "−" to indicate both an operation and
a sign attached to
a numeral to map it onto an element in the set of
negative integers. Hence, in order to distinguish these two different uses of what
look like the same sign, novices in arithmetic are often taught to
distinguish a number from an operation by the use of brackets.
Hence, the integer 7
would be written as "(+7)", and the integer -5 as "(-5)";
so, when the latter is subtracted from the former that would be written as "(+7) - (-5)". However,
even this is far from perspicuous, and often causes confusions of its
own. In which case, I will henceforth distinguish
the operation of subtraction from the negative integer sign itself
in the following way: "─"
(a long dash) signifies the operation of subtraction, and "-" (a short dash)
indicates the
negative sign, used to signify the number in question belongs to the set of negative integers.
[Of course, Kant wrote at a time when
mathematicians themselves were far less clear what they meant by numbers in general --, or, indeed,
operations and functions. Subsequent philosophers who uncritically draw on Kant's
ideas are less easy to forgive.]
Now, it isn't too clear how Kant would classify,
for instance, the following: -8 ─ -3 = -5. Is this subtraction or
addition? Well, according to Kant's comments above, since there are no '+' and '-' signs
written together,
this
can't be subtraction!
Turning to
money: consider an overdraft of Ł8 in a certain account. Suppose a bank
manager discovers an error of Ł3 in the said account and wipes Ł3 off that
overdraft in order to correct this mistake. The overdraft will now be Ł5.
Plainly, the owner of that account won't have any more money in her account as a
result (she is still overdrawn!) -- so, nothing has actually been added. All that has
happened is that some of the debt has been subtracted -- i.e., removed.
This
nicely illustrates what happens when operations are conflated with numbers --,
or, for that matter, mathematical operations are muddled with cancellation (or,
indeed, with "opposition"). "Mighty thinker" though he was, Kant's thought is
confused from beginning to end on these issues. Hegel's doubly so.
Despite this, at
least Kant could write coherent (if sometimes rather difficult) sentences!
However, it
is often said "Two negatives make a positive" and in this instance that might
work out as follows (where we will see an operation is being confused with a
number): 10 ─ -5 = 15. If "two negatives make a positive" were true, "─"
is clearly being treated as a negative, the long dash, "─", being viewed as the
same as the short dash, "-" -- which can be seen from the statement itself "Two negatives make a
positive". They are both called "negatives"! But the former is an operation applied to a negative number,
so these aren't two negatives! The first is the subtraction operation, the
second forms part of the name of a number.
We can illustrate what is actually happening here by considering a simple
transaction:
Suppose
NN has Ł10 in her pocket but she owes MM Ł5. Further supposeMM says to NN: "You did me a favour last week; forget the
Ł5 you owe me!". Here we would apparently have 10 ─ -5 = 15, where it now seems
NN ends up with Ł15 -- Ł5 more than she started with. In this case, it looks like "Two negatives do
make a positive", but the truth is that NNdoesn't walk away with Ł15!
Money can't be magicked out of thin air!NN actually walks away with
Ł10. What has happened here is that NN's Ł10 at the beginning was
in effect Ł5 + Ł5, the second Ł5 of which was owed to MM. So, the
calculation should have been: 5 ─ -5 = 10, as MM cancelled the Ł5 debt.
But, nothing has been added to NN's wealth; all that took place is that
the
part of the money that was owed to MM is no longer owed and can now be
counted as NN's money. It only looks like something has been added if we
fail to see what is actually happening in such a transaction. So, the popular saying "Two
negatives make a positive" is highly misleading (in circumstances like
these).
[Clearly this popular saying is based on an analogy drawn between the negation
operator in language (and in formal system other than mathematics) and these two
signs -- "─"and "-" -- in mathematics itself. While the following two sentences
are equivalent (all things being equal) "It is not not raining" and "It is
raining", where the first "not" maps the sentence "It is raining" onto "It is
not raining", and the second "not" maps "It is not raining back onto "It is
raining", this is not like the above examples of subtraction. Both "not"s here
do not name anything, they indicate the carrying out of an operation of mapping
-- where an indicate sentence is mapped onto its negation. (So, this use of
"not" is no more a name than "and" or "or" are.) Often it is said that these two
"not"s 'cancel' one another, but that would be to make the same mistake we have
seen Kant and Hegel commit. The second "not" just undoes what the first "not"
did. Of course, we often see these two words concatenated together in sentences
like "It is not not raining", but that is just a typological or verbal
convenience or shorthand. We can't now say these two cancel one another without
compromising the mapping that brought us back to "It is raining". Not only that,
such loose talk merely encourages sloppy thinking elsewhere, which, as we
have seen, led Philosophers like Kant and Hegel into imagining that
contradiction is some form of cancellation!]
Someone might object that the bank
manager mentioned earlier did in fact cancel part of the debt, but that isn't so. An error
was rectified, that is all. Of course, debts can be cancelled, but the
cancellation of a debt isn't itself a mathematical operation (you don't
learn your 'cancellation tables' at school, nor are there 'cancellation theorems'
in Number
Theory). The cancellation of a debt involves one or more of the following:
an act of goodwill (or of charity), a rectification, a humiliation, or, indeed, a host of other incidental
social or interpersonal actions/relations -- as we saw with NN and
MM earlier.
We can certainly work out the mathematic result or consequences of a cancellation, but that
doesn't remove the clear distinction between how we calculate and how we
describe the causes or the results of such moves socially, should we so choose. If
someone pays off a debt, that is different from cancelling it, and the same
applies to errors that are put right -- although the end result in each case
might be the same.
Finally, if a debt
were to be cancelled simpliciter (that is, for no obvious reason), then someone
else
will have lost out (willingly or otherwise), which isn't the case with debts
that have been paid off, or where an error has been rectified. So, let us assume
that NN has Ł100 in her bank account and that she also
owes MM Ł25; if MM cancels NN's debt, then someone otherthanNN will lose out (in this case MM will have
voluntarily lost or forfeited Ł25). On the other hand, if NN pays MM the Ł25, only NN will lose
out. The result in each case for NN will be the same in some respects but
not in others. It will be the same in that NN will now no longer owe that
money (this being the outcome whether the debt was paid or was wiped), but it will be different in
that in the second instance (i.e., if NN pays the debt), NN will be Ł25
worse off, not MM. In the first instance, however, if the debt is wiped, NN will be free of the
debt, but nothing will have been added to her bank balance, which remains
at
Ł100. The debt will just be forgotten and it is MM who will have lost out. So,
as we can see, paying off a debt is significantly different from that debt being cancelled.
Kant
once again ran these distinct notions together and only succeeded in confusing himself
and others -- who should, perhaps,
have known better.
It might
help to consider a more perspicuous example: imagine a collection of eight
marbles on a table all labelled with "-" signs. [So, here the "-"
forms part of the name of, or label for, each marble.] If three of those marbles are removed
from the collection, there will only
be five of those labelled marbles left, in which case we would have: -8 ─ -3 = -5.
Nothing has been cancelled -- and nothing added. We finish with five marbles
on the table. [In this case, of course,
"-8" means, for instance, "eight marbles each labelled with a '-' sign".]
Kant then proceeded to sink himself
into even
deeper
confusion:
"In order to extract what is
philosophically significant from this concept and to do so without particularly
looking at magnitude, we shall begin by offering the following remark. The
mathematical concept of negative magnitudes involves the opposition which we
have above called 'real opposition'. Suppose there are +8 units of capital and
-8 units of passive debt; no contradiction is involved in attributing them to
the same person. However, one of these magnitudes cancels an amount which
is equal to that which is posited by the other, and the consequence is zero."
[Ibid., p.214. Bold emphasis added.]
But, Kant's
is here running together of concepts
that should be kept separate (e.g., he is confusing the repaying of a debt with cancelling
that debt). But this now means he has to answer the following two (distinct) questions in the
same way:
If he
is consistent he will have to say "Yes" to both. These options are
indistinguishable if, like Kant, you work with such confused ideas. For Kant, it
seems that if the result is zero, it doesn't matter how we arrived at that result. So, we could say
that we 'cancelled' a debt of -8 with +8 capital, or we could say that we
'cancelled' capital of +8 with a debt of -8! Or, more colloquially, someone
might say (if he were a Kantian in this respect) "I paid off my bank balance of
Ł8 with a debt of Ł8."(!) In reply to that, a neutral observer could only
respond incredulously: "How can you pay off a bank balance of Ł8! You pay with
the money in your bank account, surely? You can't pay with a debt. A debt isn't
currency!"
Of course, one can pass a debt on so
that someone else is paid instead (when that debt is finally discharged by the
debtor); but, even then, no debt has been used as payment. It has merely been
transferred.
Couldn't
that be regarded as payment in such a case? Might this
not be how an IOU
could work? Sure, just as swapping cigarettes in prison, or bartering, say, an
Ox for two wagons of hay can be so regarded. But, in the case of passing on a
debt, what has in effect been transferred is a hold on someone else's money (the
original creditor's), and that -- the hold -- is what has in the end made the payment. Debts
and IOUs still fail to be currency, despite what
Jim Carrey
appears to believe:
Video Seven: Dumb And Dumber
-- IOU's Are 'As Good As Money'
No one plans a bank heist to steal a load of debts!
No mugger has ever demanded "Hand over your IOUs!" A robber might, indeed,
steal someone's IOUs so that those debts can't be redeemed, but that still
doesn't turn an IOU into currency. Next time you want to buy something, try paying for
it with an IOU. See how far you get. While you are at it, check on Google
what the exchange rate is for IOUs. Who has ever been banged up for
counterfeiting an IOU?
Someone might point out that banknotes
originally grew out of the use of IOUs, or promissory notes. That isn't quite
right; they were originally introduced into Europe (from China by Marco Polo) as
"value received" notes, as opposed to "sight bills", which were promissory
notes. Even so, that doesn't elide the clear distinction that exists today
between legal currency and an IOU. There is a world of difference between
promissory notes issued by a public authority and an IOU written by a guy at the
pub. Just as there is in bourgeois society a major difference between legally
owing a house and squatting in one -- or, indeed, between hiring and
hijacking a car.
Although we can
see there is a real difference here
between currency and debts, it seems Kant's confused analysis can't distinguish between them.
He continues -- and it is here where
we see the implicit confusion above become explicit:
"I shall, accordingly, call the debts
'negative units of capital'. But in doing so I do not mean they are negations or
mere denials of units of capital, for it they were they would themselves be
designated by zero.... What I mean when I call debts 'negative units of capital'
is this: debts are positive grounds of the diminishment of the units of capital.
In order to make this clear, we shall adopt the method of the mathematicians and
call descent 'negative ascent'; falling 'negative rising', retreat 'negative
advance'. In this way, it is instantly apparent from the expression itself that,
for example, falling is not to be distinguished from rising merely in the way in
which 'not a' is distinguished from 'a'. It is rather the case that falling is
just as positive as rising.... I can just as well call descent 'negative rising'
and I can call rising 'negative descent'. Similarly, units of capital are just
as much negative debts, as the latter are negative units of capital. But it is
rather more appropriate to apply the name 'negative' to that on which the
intention is primarily focused in a given case, if one wishes to designate its
real opposite. For example, it is rather more appropriate to call debts negative
(sic) 'negative units of capital' than to call units of capital 'negative
debts', although there is no difference to be found in the reciprocal relation
itself.... 'The negative of rising is setting'. What I intend to convey by this
expression is not that the one thing is the negation of the other, but rather
that there is something which stands in a relation of real opposition to
something else." [Kant (1763), pp.214-15. Italic emphasis in the original.
There is clearly a serious misprint in this passage, where the text has
"negative 'negative units of capital'". I have however left the above as it is
in the published version. Bold emphases added.]
Clearly, the confusion arises from Kant's rather careless attempt to connect certain noun phrases with other noun
phrases (that can be used to describe operations, actions or states (and their
inverses)), such as "negative units of capital" and "negative rising". This only
succeeds in compounding Kant's
confusion. For if we insist on calling debt, "negative
capital", then the choice will become indifferent between the questions
posed earlier -- so 'paying off a negative
debt' or 'paying off capital' will make some sort of crazy sense --, which helps explain this rather
odd comment:
"[D]ebts are positive grounds of the
diminishment of the units of capital." [Ibid.]
Which isn't a million miles distant from
this:
Z1: "I paid off my bank balance of
Ł8 with a debt
of Ł8."
In addition, while it might make some sort of
rhetorical sense to call ascent "negative descent", even that won't work in every
case. Is murder really "negative life-saving"? Is birth "negative death", or is
it "negative burial"? When a mother gives birth does she really "negatively
kill" her baby? What about painting a door red? What is that the negative
of? Indeed, what is the negative of Kant writing the above comments?
But the more
serious problem is that Kant has once again confused a name with an operation.
We can see this when he says
"we shall adopt the method of the mathematicians and call descent
'negative ascent'; falling 'negative rising', retreat 'negative advance'."
Kant has here changed the verb "to descend" into the name "descent", and the
verb "to ascend" into the noun "ascent" -- which then 'allows him' to equate the
former with the name "negative ascent". But, this also means the negation
operation has become a name, or part of an
appositional name,
"negative ascent", too. As we have seen that is about a intelligent as confusing
a pencil with what can be done with one. But if negatio is supposed to cancel an
operation, then according to Kant, descent must cancel ascent (since it is
according to him, negative ascent). But as we have seen, an ascent is cancelled
by not doing it, not by undoing what has already been done. If you want to
cancel your ascent of the
Matterhorn you don't climb it and the come back down again! You just
don't set foot on the mountain.
Figure Nineteen: Our Guide Today,
Her Kant, Has Cancelled Our Planned Ascent Of The Matterhorn --
So He Says We We'll Just Have To
Climb It And Then Come Back Down Again!
It has been asserted many times at this site
that DM -- indeed, much of Traditional Philosophy -- arose out of a careless and sloppy use,
or indeed misuse, of language, and it looks like Kant's
argument above hasn't strayed too far from that conceptual minefield -- as we
saw Marx point out:
"The
philosophers have only to dissolve their language into the ordinary language,
from which it is abstracted, in order to recognise it, as the distorted
language of the actual world...." [Marx
and Engels (1970), p.118. Bold emphases added.]
Kant merely
elaborates on these confusions throughout the rest of this work (except, he
later attempts to derive several sweeping, if not decidedly odd, metaphysical
conclusions from them), so there seems
little point pursuing this Kantian detour into dialectical disaster any further, given the aims of
this site.
More-or-less the same can be said about similar comments on this topic published
in Kant's masterpiece, Critique of Pure Reason [Kant (1998),
pp.369, 373], which add nothing new to the above. [Readers are invited to check
the veracity of
that assertion for themselves.]
[None of
these rather harsh remarks should be read as in anyway derogatory of the
towering stature of Kant's mature work -- for example, his three Critiques
-- which marked a significant advance in bourgeois philosophy (almost on a par
with those made by Plato and Aristotle), even if sharp criticism of his writing
style would be entirely justified.]
In which
case, as we have seen, it is hardly surprising that Kant's many confusions found
their way into the even more muddled ramblings of The
Caliph of Confusion, Hegel. Hence, there is no good reason to suppose there
are any 'real negations' out there that somehow power the universe -- even if sense
could be made of the supposition that there could be.
Or, perhaps more accurately: it makes no sense to suppose such
confusions power anythingother than an overheated imagination.
As Bertrand Russell
remarked:
"This illustrates an important truth, namely,
that the worse your logic, the more interesting the consequences to which it
gives rise." [Russell (1961), p.715.]
One or two
Dialectical Marxists, when
confronted (by yours truly) with the above quote, thought Russell was somehow advocating the use of sub-standard logic
on the basis that it results in "more interesting" consequences!
They failed to
notice Russell was being sarcastic.
This allegory appears in a 'discussion'
between Socrates and a character called
Glaucon (who
was Plato's older brother and in effect merely a sounding board and
nodding dog while he responded to much that Socrates just baldly asserted).
Readers will no doubt recognise the right-wing and Aristocratic tone of
this passage -- anyway, I
have highlighted in bold those sections where that is the clearest. The text
below was copied off the Internet, but I have made one
or two minor changes to it in light of the published version.
The dialogue
begins with Socrates, and each paragraph alternates between Socrates and
Glaucon:
And now, I
said, let me show in a figure how far our nature is enlightened or
unenlightened: -- Behold! human beings living in a underground den, which has a
mouth open towards the light and reaching all along the den; here they have been
from their childhood, and have their legs and necks chained so that they cannot
move, and can only see before them, being prevented by the chains from turning
round their heads. Above and behind them a fire is blazing at a distance, and
between the fire and the prisoners there is a raised way; and you will see, if
you look, a low wall built along the way, like the screen which marionette
players have in front of them, over which they show the puppets.
I see.
And do you see, I said, men passing along the wall carrying all sorts of
vessels, and statues and figures of animals made of wood and stone and various
materials, which appear over the wall? Some of them are talking, others silent.
You have shown me a strange image, and they are strange prisoners.
Like ourselves, I replied; and they see only their own shadows, or the shadows
of one another, which the fire throws on the opposite wall of the cave?
True, he said; how could they see anything but the shadows if they were never
allowed to move their heads?
And of the objects which are being carried in like manner they would only see
the shadows?
Yes, he said.
And if they were able to converse with one another, would they not suppose that
they were naming what was actually before them?
Very true.
And suppose further that the prison had an echo which came from the other side,
would they not be sure to fancy when one of the passers-by spoke that the voice
which they heard came from the passing shadow?
No question, he replied.
To them, I said, the truth would be literally nothing but the shadows of the
images.
That is certain.
And now look again, and see what will naturally follow if the prisoners are
released and disabused of their error. At first, when any of them is liberated
and compelled suddenly to stand up and turn his neck round and walk and look
towards the light, he will suffer sharp pains; the glare will distress him, and
he will be unable to see the realities of which in his former state he had seen
the shadows; and then conceive some one saying to him, that what he saw before
was an illusion, but that now, when he is approaching nearer to being and his
eye is turned towards more real existence, he has a clearer vision -- what will
be his reply? And you may further imagine that his instructor is pointing to the
objects as they pass and requiring him to name them -- will he not be perplexed?
Will he not fancy that the shadows which he formerly saw are truer than the
objects which are now shown to him?
Far truer.
And if he is compelled to look straight at the light, will he not have a pain in
his eyes which will make him turn away to take and take in the objects of vision
which he can see, and which he will conceive to be in reality clearer than the
things which are now being shown to him?
True, he [would].
And suppose once more, that he is reluctantly dragged up a steep and rugged
ascent, and held fast until he's forced into the presence of the sun himself, is
he not likely to be pained and irritated? When he approaches the light his eyes
will be dazzled, and he will not be able to see anything at all of what are now
called realities.
Not all in a moment, he said.
He will require to grow accustomed to the sight of the upper world. And first he
will see the shadows best, next the reflections of men and other objects in the
water, and then the objects themselves; then he will gaze upon the light of the
moon and the stars and the spangled heaven; and he will see the sky and the
stars by night better than the sun or the light of the sun by day?
Certainly.
Last of [all] he will be able to see the sun, and not mere reflections of him in
the water, but he will see him in his own proper place, and not in another; and
he will contemplate him as he is.
Certainly.
He will then proceed to argue that this is he who gives the season and the
years, and is the guardian of all that is in the visible world, and in a certain
way the cause of all things which he and his fellows have been accustomed to
behold?
Clearly, he said, he would first see the sun and then reason about him.
And when he remembered his old habitation, and the wisdom of the den and his
fellow-prisoners, do you not suppose that he would felicitate himself on the
change, and pity them?
Certainly, he would.
And if they were in the habit of conferring honours among themselves on those
who were quickest to observe the passing shadows and to remark which of them
went before, and which followed after, and which were together; and who were
therefore best able to draw conclusions as to the future, do you think that he
would care for such honours and glories, or envy the possessors of them? Would
he not say with Homer, 'Better to be the poor servant of a poor master', and to
endure anything, rather than think as they do and live after their manner?
Yes, he said, I think that he would rather suffer anything [rather] than
entertain these false notions and live in this miserable manner.
Imagine once more, I said, such an [individual] coming suddenly out of the sun
to be replaced in his old situation; would he not be certain to have his eyes
full of darkness?
To be sure, he said.
And if there were a contest, and he had to compete in measuring the shadows with
the prisoners who had never moved out of the den, while his sight was still
weak, and before his eyes had become steady (and the time which would be needed
to acquire this new habit of sight might be very considerable) would he not be
ridiculous? Men would say of him that up he went and down he came without his
eyes; and that it was better not even to think of ascending; and if any one
tried to loose another and lead him up to the light, let them only catch the
offender, and they would put him to death.
No question, he said.
This entire allegory, I said, you may now append, dear Glaucon, to the previous
argument; the prison-house is the world of sight, the light of the fire is the
sun, and you will not misapprehend me if you interpret the journey upwards to be
the ascent of the soul into the intellectual world according to my poor belief,
which, at your desire, I have expressed whether rightly or wrongly God knows.
But, whether true or false, my opinion is that in the world of knowledge the
idea of good appears last of all, and is seen only with an effort; and, when
seen, is also inferred to be the universal author of all things beautiful and
right, parent of light and of the lord of light in this visible world, and the
immediate source of reason and truth in the intellectual; and that this is the
power upon which he who would act rationally, either in public or private life
must have his eye fixed.
I agree, he
said, as far as I am able to understand you.
Moreover, I said, you must not wonder that those who attain to this beatific
vision are unwilling to descend to human affairs; for their souls are ever
hastening into the upper world where they desire to dwell; which desire of
theirs is very natural, if our allegory may be trusted.
Yes, very natural.
And is there anything surprising in one who passes from divine contemplations to
the evil state of man, misbehaving himself in a ridiculous manner; if, while his
eyes are blinking and before he has become accustomed to the surrounding
darkness, he is compelled to fight in courts of law, or in other places, about
the images or the shadows of images of justice, and is endeavouring to meet the
conceptions of those who have never yet seen absolute justice?
Anything but surprising, he replied.
Any one who has common sense will remember that the bewilderments of the eyes
are of two kinds, and arise from two causes, either from coming out of the light
or from going into the light, which is true of the mind's eye, quite as much as
of the bodily eye; and he who remembers this when he sees any one whose vision
is perplexed and weak, will not be too ready to laugh; he will first ask whether
that soul of man has come out of the brighter light, and is unable to see
because unaccustomed to the dark, or having turned from darkness to the day is
dazzled by excess of light. And he will count the one happy in his condition and
state of being, and he will pity the other; or, if he have a mind to laugh at
the soul which comes from below into the light, there will be more reason in
this than in the laugh which greets him who returns from above out of the light
into the den.
That, he said, is a very just distinction.
But then, if I am right, certain professors of education must be wrong when they
say that they can put a knowledge into the soul which was not there before, like
sight into blind eyes.
They undoubtedly say this, he replied.
Whereas, our argument shows that the power and capacity of learning exists in
the soul already; and that just as the eye was unable to turn from darkness to
light without the whole body, so too the instrument of knowledge can only by the
movement of the whole soul be turned from the world of becoming into that of
being, and learn by degrees to endure the sight of being, and of the brightest
and best of being, or in other words, of the good.
Very true.
And must there not be some art which will effect conversion in the easiest and
quickest manner; not implanting the faculty of sight, for that exists already,
but has been turned in the wrong direction, and is looking away from the truth?
Yes, he said, such an art may be presumed.
And whereas the other so-called virtues of the soul seem to be akin to bodily
qualities, for even when they are not originally innate they can be implanted
later by habit and exercise, the of wisdom more than anything else contains a
divine element which always remains, and by this conversion is rendered useful
and profitable; or, on the other hand, hurtful and useless. Did you never
observe the narrow intelligence flashing from the keen eye of a clever rogue --
how eager he is, how clearly his paltry soul sees the way to his end; he is the
reverse of blind, but his keen eyesight is forced into the service of evil, and
he is mischievous in proportion to his cleverness.
Very true,
he said.
But what if there had been a circumcision of such natures in the days of their
youth; and they had been severed from those sensual pleasures, such as eating
and drinking, which, like leaden weights, were attached to them at their birth,
and which drag them down and turn the vision of their souls upon the things that
are below -- if, I say, they had been released from these impediments and turned
in the opposite direction, the very same faculty in them would have seen the
truth as keenly as they see what their eyes are turned to now.
Very likely.
Yes, I said; and there is another thing which is likely. or rather a necessary
inference from what has preceded, that neither the uneducated and uninformed of
the truth, nor yet those who never make an end of their education, will be able
ministers of State; not the former, because they have no single aim of duty
which is the rule of all their actions, private as well as public; nor the
latter, because they will not act at all except upon compulsion, fancying that
they are already dwelling apart in the islands of the blest.
Very true, he replied.
Then, I said, the business of us who are the founders of the State will be to
compel the best minds to attain that knowledge which we have already shown to be
the greatest of all -- they must continue to ascend until they arrive at the
good; but when they have ascended and seen enough we must not allow them to do
as they do now.
What do you mean?
I mean that they remain in the upper world: but this must not be allowed; they
must be made to descend again among the prisoners in the den, and partake of
their labours and honours, whether they are worth having or not.
But is not
this unjust? he said; ought we to give them a worse life, when they might have a
better?
You have again forgotten, my friend, I said, the intention of the legislator,
who did not aim at making any one class in the State happy above the rest; the
happiness was to be in the whole State, and he held the citizens together by
persuasion and necessity, making them benefactors of the State, and
therefore benefactors of one another; to this end he created them, not to please
themselves, but to be his instruments in binding up the State.
True, he said, I had forgotten.
Observe, Glaucon, that there will be no injustice in compelling our
philosophers to have a care and providence of others; we shall explain to them
that in other States, men of their class are not obliged to share in the toils
of politics: and this is reasonable, for they grow up at their own sweet
will, and the government would rather not have them. Being self-taught, they
cannot be expected to show any gratitude for a culture which they have never
received. But we have brought you into the world to be rulers of the hive, kings
of yourselves and of the other citizens, and have educated you far better and
more perfectly than they have been educated, and you are better able to share in
the double duty. Wherefore each of you, when his turn comes, must go down to the
general underground abode, and get the habit of seeing in the dark. When you
have acquired the habit, you will see ten thousand times better than the
inhabitants of the den, and you will know what the several images are, and what
they represent, because you have seen the beautiful and just and good in their
truth. And thus our State which is also yours will be a reality, and not a dream
only, and will be administered in a spirit unlike that of other States, in which
men fight with one another about shadows only and are distracted in the struggle
for power, which in their eyes is a great good. Whereas the truth is that the
State in which the rulers are most reluctant to govern is always the best and
most quietly governed, and the State in which they are most eager, the worst.
Quite true,
he replied.
And will our pupils, when they hear this, refuse to take their turn at the toils
of State, when they are allowed to spend the greater part of their time with one
another in the heavenly light?
Impossible, he answered; for they are just men, and the commands which we impose
upon them are just; there can be no doubt that every one of them will take
office as a stern necessity, and not after the fashion of our present rulers of
State.
Yes, my friend, I said; and there lies the point. You must contrive for your
future rulers another and a better life than that of a ruler, and then you may
have a well-ordered State; for only in the State which offers this, will they
rule who are truly rich, not in silver and gold, but in virtue and wisdom,
which are the true blessings of life. Whereas if they go to the administration
of public affairs, poor and hungering after [their] own private advantage,
thinking that hence they are to snatch the chief good, order there can never be;
for they will be fighting about office, and the civil and domestic broils which
thus arise will be the ruin of the rulers themselves and of the whole State.
Most true, he replied.
And the only life which looks down upon the life of political ambition is that
of true philosophy. Do you know of any other?
Indeed, I do not, he said.
And those who govern ought not to be lovers of the task? For, if they are, there
will be rival lovers, and they will fight.
No question.
Who then are those whom we shall compel to be guardians? Surely they will be
the men who are wisest about affairs of State, and by whom the State is best
administered, and who at the same time have other honours and another and a
better life than that of politics?
They are the men, and I will choose them, he replied.
And now shall we consider in what way such guardians will be produced, and how
they are to be brought from darkness to light -- as some are said to have
ascended from the world below to the gods?
By all means, he replied.
The process, I said, is not the turning over of an oyster-shell [tossing a coin
-- RL], but the turning round of a soul passing from a day which is little
better than night to the true day of being, that is, the ascent from below,
which we affirm to be true philosophy? [Plato
(1997b) Book VII, pp.1132-38, 514-521c. I have used the on-line version
here, even though the edition I have cited is a far superior translation. Bold
added.]
From this wild allegory -- that
the world of
common experience is in effect a play of shadows, which are themselves just reflectedartefacts,
not 'real objects', and that only those who have 'seen the light' after they
have left the cave will know 'true
being' -- Plato derives the elitist conclusion that only Philosophers arefit to rule! It is
this ridiculous fantasy
upon which Professor Tegmark, for
instance, hoped to base his theory! Of course, he might be unaware of the
connection this allegory has always enjoyed with the 'justification' of anti-democratic,
aristocratic wealth, power and privilege, but that just highlights the insidious nature of the "ideas of the
ruling-class" (of which class Plato wasn't just a card-carrying member,
he remains to this day one of their leading ideologues).
Be this as
it may, this allegory is still -- two thousand four hundred years later -- a powerful image
underpinning the theory that the universe is a mathematical object, and the
world of 'appearances' is but a shadow of a hidden world. Indeed, as we saw in Essay Three Part Two (here
and here),
this is a "ruling idea" that motivates also Dialectical Marxists. [on
that, see Note 6a
and Note 25 of
the latter Essay, too.]
However, Plato's allegory doesn't work even in its own terms, not least because
those trapped in this cave from birth will have no
language, and hence won't be able to name anything, conclude anything or
talk about anything, whether they are inside or outside the cave. This
entire
fairy-tale thus collapses like a cheap deckchair.
Exactly how this fantasy managed to influence so many and for so long, and
why anyone took it seriously, is, therefore, a mystery we will just have to pass
over in silence -- at least for now...
Appendix C:
Dm Fans Struggle To Explain Use-Value And Exchange-Value
Here follows the relevant parts of a 'debate' I had
with several DM-fans
over at Libcom back in 2012.
This material has been slightly edited to remove
spelling errors and typos, and the quotation marks have been altered to conform with
the conventions
adopted at this site. In addition, many paragraphs have been merged. Material that isn't relevant to the relation between Use-Value and Exchange-Value [UV
and RV] has largely been omitted (as have some of the off-topic disputes among
the DM-fans themselves). Any other edits have either been explicitly
acknowledged or they have been put in square brackets (often indicated by the
addition of an "-- RL"). Other than the name
abbreviations, all emphases are in the original (unless otherwise stated).
Finally, spelling has been modified to agree with UK English. As noted in the
preface, elsewhere in the Essay, as well as in what follows -- except where Marx
is being quoted -- the words, "use-value" and "exchange-value" have been
hyphenated, even where those in the debate failed to do so. This has been done
to make the spelling of these two terms consistent with the rest of the Essay.
It is worth pointing out that in what follows I am
not questioning the validity of Marx's distinction between UV and
EV, merely pointing out that:
(i) We have as yet no clear idea concerning what we now mean
by these two terms (that can be seen by the way that even my adversaries can't
agree among themselves). The same indecision occurs in the DM-literature (which
allegation I aim to substantiate in Essay Fourteen Part Two); and,
(ii) The connection between UV and EV
can't be 'dialectical', whatever else it is. As we will see, UV and EV
don't imply one another (unlike the proletariat and the capitalist class
supposedly
do), nor do they 'struggle' with and then turn into each other (which should
happen if the
DM-classics are to be believed).
Readers are encouraged to exercise patience until
near the end, when the key philosophical point will be revealed (this takes
place in the last debate I had with
SA -- one of those involved in this discussion, identified below).
Finally, in this discussion, I am clearly RL.
Others will be identified (where possible) below -- but only the basis of what
they have called themselves elsewhere at Libcom or elsewhere on the Internet. I
have also added a few brief comments (where relevant) explaining any past
relationship I have had with those in this discussion, so that the reason for
the tone adopted in my replies to them might correctly be understood), or
where it might assist readers understand they lack of facility with colloquial
English (i.e., if English wasn't their first language). Several other remarks
have been added to help the reader understand to whom a given reply has been
directed.
RL
(the following short passage was in fact quoted from an earlier version of this Essay):
"Can't exchange-values exist where there
is no use-value at all? What about antiques? They seem to have an exchange-value
but many do not have a use-value. Same with many works of art and other
collectables (such as stamps and old coins). And can't criminals exchange
useless items in order to launder money?"
Jura (whose first language isn't English):
"This is laughable, but not that
surprising in a 21st century Trotskyist. You don't even understand the basic
relationships between value, exchange-value and use-value, i.e. the fundamental
concepts of Marx's analysis (first five or six pages of Ch1 of Volume 1). How
can anything you say be relevant to questions of the structure of Marx's theory
-- which is exclusively what the Marxian dialectic relates to -- if you don't
understand its actual content?..."
S Artesian
(henceforth, SA -- who is one of
those all too frequent DM-fans who liberally mix a stream of abuse with many of
their responses to me --, and, in his case, not just in this particular debate
but over at RevLeft and elsewhere -- which helps explain my
dismissive and irreverent attitude toward him):
"This claim of Rosa's was answered long ago on revleft. Marx is concerned with
the organization of social production, the dominant, determining mode. The
accumulation of curios, pets, antiques is exactly what he is not talking about,
no more than he is discussing a tailor who is 'kept' by a wealthy individual,
producing suits only for that individual. Get rid of the troll."
Jura (replying to
SA):
"That's not the issue at all. Marx would
never deny that antiques, pets or works of art are use-values. It's right there
on the first page."
SA (replying to
Jura):
"The issue isn't if these objects are use-values, but are they commodities. Of
course they can have a use-value; and they can even claim exchange-value when
sold, but are they 'produced as commodities'? Are they values? Is the suit made by
the private tailor a value? Absolutely not. There [They?] are objects of individual
desire that are not results of social production, consequently their 'values'
have nothing to do with the socially necessary labour time of their reproduction,
just as the value of an artist's painting has absolutely nothing to do with the
labour time embedded in its production. Marx is dealing with the organization of
labour as abstract labour; an antique, curio, work of art claims its identity as
an antique, curio, work of art precisely because it is not a product of abstract
labour."
Jura (replying to SA):
"I agree with the substance of your posts, but you're not
paying attention to what Rosa said. Rosa claims that some commodities (like some
antiques) don't have use-value (how their value is determined is not important
right now). I'm saying -- repeating Marx -- that this is nonsense: all
commodities, regardless of whether their price is regulated by SNLT [Socially
Necessary Labour Time -- RL] or not, must have a use-value in order to be sold
to someone."
SA
(replying to Jura):
"Well of course it has a 'use-value.' Somebody wants it, likes it, exchanges
something for it -- represents or translates its use-value into an exchange-value. That very process, of finding the translation of use-value into
exchange-value is what Marx is examining -- how is it that the use-value of
one object can be expressed as an exchange-value with another object, a
value in exchange with all other objects. But antiques, curios, etc. are not
the organizing principle of commodity production and their status or
magnitudes of use and exchange have nothing to do with Marx's explication of
value and of the social fusion of use-value with exchange-value."
RL:
"What is the 'use-value' of an antique chair, stored in a cellar, which everyone
has forgotten about? Perhaps: its use is to collect dust, or provide a framework
for spiders to spin their webs? Or maybe its use is to puzzle you?"
Jura (replying to RL):
"You don't seem to understand Marx's definition of
use-value at all (Jura now quotes Marx):
'The utility of a thing makes it a use value. But this
utility is not a thing of air. Being limited by the physical properties of the
commodity, it has no existence apart from that commodity. A commodity, such as
iron, corn, or a diamond, is therefore, so far as it is a material thing, a use value, something useful.' [Quoted from
here. Link added on edit.]
RL (replying to Jura):
"So, what is the use-value of that chair?"
Jura
(replying to RL):
"My point is that as long as someone buys it, it has to have one. Marx is very
clear about this. Perhaps the old chair satisfies a need for historical
furniture associated with certain aesthetic or other properties (as with
antiques). Or someone's need for just something solid to sit on (as with old
shit sold at flea markets). As long as it is brought to market and sold
(becoming a commodity), it must have a use-value (for at least one person,
regardless of whether they end up actually using it or find out it's useless),
otherwise it wouldn't have found a buyer in the first place."
SA (attempting to reply to RL's
question about that chair; note the abuse; it gets worse):
"Says all that needs to be said about Rosa's supposed understanding of Marx,
of the commodity, of value. What a display of ignorance. The chair that is
stored in a cellar may have been produced in a factory, or it may have been
produced by a craftsman working in a guild-type arrangement, or it may have
been home-produced for home use. In any and all cases, in the first two
cases it was produced as a [commodity?] in order to claim, receive an exchange-value; it
was produced for the purpose of exchange. Such purpose can only be realized
if the chair has a use. In the third circumstance, the chair is produced as
a use-value, and only a use-value. There is no exchange-value in this case.
It is produced for direct consumption, for self-subsistence. 100 years later
the chair becomes an 'antique' -- antique is a market, and marketing
designation. Does the chair have 'use'? Of course it does, as it satisfies
the need of someone who will provide a value in exchange for the chair. Does
the chair have use as a chair? Perhaps not, and that's not necessary. If a
photographer buys the chair because he/she wants to photograph it for an
article in the Sunday Times, does the chair have use? Of course it does. If
a museum buys the chair to display the method and styles of chair
construction 200 years ago, is that use? Of course it is. That our troll
thinks of use only as simple, immediate, direct consumption shows how little
she understands about social production, accumulation, use, and...Marx.
It makes her, fundamentally, a peasant."
RL (replying to Jura):
"So, all the labour power congealed
in that chair, which vanishes if it stays in that cellar, suddenly comes
back, does it? Even so, I asked what use-value it has in that cellar,
gathering dust -- not when it was being sold." [I have very slightly altered
my last sentence to make its meaning clearer -- RL. The original was this:
"Even so, I asked what use-value it has in that cellar, gathering dust --
not as it was being sold."]
RL (replying to SA):
"Where did I deny this? The question is what use-value has it got in a
cellar, gathering dust, and forgotten about? Maybe this: to annoy SA?
You seem to want to duck that question -- or raise side issues that have
nothing to do with what I asked."
Jura (replying to RL
-- and becoming irate):
"Now you're asking about value, which has nothing to do with the present
problem. Even things that don't have value can be use-values. Even
things that are not products of any labour can be use-values. For how
much that chair is going to be sold at an antiques auction or at the
flea market is irrelevant. You said (in your writings) that some
commodities namely antiques, don't have use-value. I'm saying it's
nonsense.... You're saying something which has (exchange) value does not
have to have use-value. Utter nonsense!"
RL (replying to Jura):
"But, I thought all things were interconnected in that quirky
dialectical universe of yours? So, what is the use-value of an
antique chair, in a cellar, forgotten about and gathering dust?
Maybe this: to get you to ignore the question?"
Jura (replying to RL):
"Anyway, it depends. It can be stored away as a memory of someone's old
times as the chairman of the SWP. It can be stored away due to lack of
space. You know, whether a thing has a use-value or not is a different
question than whether this use-value is being realized in consumption
(as long as the thing is not destroyed or does not decay). But remember:
you said this (notice the lack of cellars and dust in the paragraph).
'Can't exchange-values exist
where there is no use-value at all? What about antiques? They seem to
have an exchange-value but many do not have a use-value. Same with many
works of art and other collectables (such as stamps and old coins).'
"You're saying something which has (exchange-) value does not have to
have use-value. Utter nonsense!"
[Bold emphasis in the original.]
RL (replying to Jura):
"Jura:
'Anyway, it depends. It can be stored away as a memory of someone's old
times as the chairman of the SWP. It can be stored away due to lack of
space. You know, whether a thing has a use-value or not is a different
question than whether this use-value is being realized in consumption
(as long as the thing is not destroyed or does not decay).'
"Sure, but that wasn't my example, it's yours. If you don't like, and
can't answer, that one, try this: What is the use-value of an antique
chair, washed up on a desert island, hidden under tons of sand?
"[Or another:] Imagine this scenario: An antique dealer buys a house with its
contents, and pays $1,000,000 for it. In the cellar (which she never
visits) there is an antique chair, forgotten about, and gathering
dust. Ten years later, after still not visiting the cellar, she
sells the house and contents for $1,500,000. The new owner, a fan of
Hegel, also never goes into that cellar. Ten years later, the house
burns down, and all the contents are destroyed. So, the chair has an
exchange-value (part of the $2,500,000), but no use-value (before it
was burnt). Plenty more examples like that to keep you busy...."
SA (replying to RL;
note the continued abuse):
"You are so completely ignorant. Clearly you never bothered to
read the 1st volume of Capital, or at least beyond the afterward
to the 2nd edition. Whether it sits in a cellar, or on the floor
of the NYSE [New York Stock Exchange -- RL], or in the National
Academy of Design, it's still a chair. Whether the queen's bum
graces it or it is used simply as a place to stack old
magazines, or it's forgotten about completely, it's a chair with
a use-value. The question is in the transformation, the
expression of the use-value as an exchange-value -- in the chair
establishing itself as an object that can command labour, or the
expression of labour as it exists in all other objects, as value.
"Does scrap metal sitting in a junkyard have use-value? Of
course it does, even if it is not being consumed at the moment.
Does a 1958 Chevrolet Corvette have a use-value? Of course it
does. Even if it sits in its owners garage and he only looks at
it on national holidays? Yes, even then. You've claimed antiques
have an exchange-value without a use-value. Clearly you're the
one who thinks Marx was an imbecile to point out that the
commodity must have a use-value to carry, circulate, forward the
value the capitalist seeks to realize from its exchange. Even
without realizing that value, however, the commodity still
retains its use-value.
"Do the fleets of jets stored in the desert due to the downturn
in 2008 still have a use-value? Of course they do. Does the 10%
of the world's maritime capacity currently at anchor have a use-value? Of course those ships have a use-value; but that utility
can only be expressed under certain economic conditions -- when
a profit can be had. This is why Marx refers to the
contradiction between use-value and exchange-value; at some
point the production of one, which is the production of the
other, negates the impulse, and the ability, for the
accumulation of capital. I'd like to thank you for exposing the
full range of your ignorance regarding Marx's critique of
capital....
"Tell us again Rosa why chairs not being directly and
continuously sat upon have no use-value. According to you, every
night when the lights are turned out, and people are in bed, the
chairs in the dark have no use-value. And in the day when people
awake? Then the beds have no use-value, clearly. Dunce. Or
Ignoramus. Or both."
RL (replying to
SA):
"From this it seems that it's not the object itself, but
the intention to treat something as a chair that gives it a
use-value. In that case, if the chair in question has been
forgotten about, locked away in that cellar, so that no one
knows it's there and can thus form no intention toward it,
it has no use-value. In which case, you agree with me! Alas,
the rest of what you say, fascinating though it was, does
not seem to address my point."
Kambing (who now enters the debate, replying to
RL):
"OK, I'm going to agree with you that it doesn't really
make sense to talk about the 'use-value' for an object
that no people are relating to in any way, but nor does
it make any sense to talk about such objects having
'exchange-value' or any other sort of value for that
matter. 'Value' is not a static quality of an object,
but refers to the social relations in which an object is
embedded. So without people 'relating' to the objects in
some fashion, they do not have value. Furthermore, the
value categories and relationships that Marx establishes
in Capital refer specifically to the social relations of
generalised commodity production, so they have
relatively little utility with respect to objects that
are not mediating the capital-labour relation.
"'Use-value' loses most of its utility as a coherent
category if you are talking about an object outside of a
market relation -- it is really more of a catch-all
category for all the various qualitative ways that
people relate to objects (or to other people through
objects), which really only has analytical applicability
in distinction from (and as a necessary precondition
for) 'exchange-value', in the context of market
exchange. I think that the way you have framed your
discussion on value demonstrates that if you attempt to
remove the dialectical logic from Marx's concepts of
value (value as a dynamic, contradictory social
relation) you evacuate those concepts of their useful
meaning."
RL (replying to
Kambing):
"Kambing, I largely agree with what you say, but I'm not
too sure about this:
'I think that the way you have framed your discussion on
value demonstrates that if you attempt to remove the
dialectical logic from Marx's concepts of value (value
as a dynamic, contradictory social relation) you
evacuate those concepts of their useful meaning.'
"Well, I deny these relations are 'contradictory',
to begin with, and I don't see how dialectics helps
in any way at all. Indeed, I argue that it gets in
the way, mystifying Marx's work for no gain at all.
After all you tried, largely successfully, to
explain yourself in the first two paragraphs of your
reply without any dialectics at all (except perhaps
that vague reference to 'mediating'). And there is
no need to use 'dialectics', either, since, as I
have shown, Marx abandoned this way of looking at
things in Das Kapital." [That refers to
earlier pages in this debate. I have omitted the
rest of the discussion I had with Kambing since it
drifted off into other, off-topic issues.]
SA (replying to RL):
"First, it's your claim that the chair, locked
away in the cellar and forgotten about has NO
use-value but...retains exchange-value.
Remember? Your claim is that antiques have
exchange-value with no use-value, right? So
Rosa, do the fleets of airplanes in the desert,
or the ships at anchor, or the rail cars in
storage maintain their use-value, or does it
disappear? Do they have an exchange-value
without a use-value?
"This issue, BTW, is one of the reasons Keynes
'make 1/2 dig holes, and the other 1/2 fill them
back up' theory falls apart...no use-values
are being created. To be a commodity the object
must have a use-value. Use-values can exist
without being commodities, but commodities in
order to be values must have a use-value. Try
reading more than just the afterward to volume
1. It might help you. Then again it might not."
RL (replying to
SA):
"My answer is that this is a problem for you, not
me. I'm not going to try to solve it for you. Read
the Afterword again, yourself -- you seem to have
missed the section where Marx endorses a summary of
'the dialectic method' (the only one he published in
his entire life)
which contains not one atom of
Hegel." [Link added -- RL.]
SA (replying to
RL):
"Problem for me? No, it's not a problem for me,
because I assert that the old chair has a use-value, whether it's in a cellar or in the kitchen
or in a museum or a flea market; just as wood
has a use-value even when it simply lays on the
ground in a forest with no one 'knowing' it's
there or looking for it, much less collecting
it. Wood burns; its combustibility is a physical
characteristic, independent of the social
relation that harvests, processes, distributes
the wood. In any case, your ignorance of Marx's
most fundamental categories, and the relations
of those categories has been exposed for all to
see. That's a fair day's work."
RL (replying to
SA):
"Once more: so it's the intention to use an
object in a certain way that gives it a use-value, not the object itself. In other
words, it's not an intrinsic property (or an
'essential property') of the object in
question, but an extrinsic property -- one
we supply to the object concerned. We can
see this from the way you word your reply:
'just as wood has a use-value even when it
simply lays on the ground in a forest with
no one 'knowing' it's there or looking for
it, much less collecting it.'
"This either means that wood had a use-value
long before human beings existed, or it only
assumed a use-value when we evolved
sufficiently enough to form an intention to
use it. Otherwise you might be committed to
the view that wood can have a use-value
for lightning, since it can set wood on
fire. However, given the fact that you also
want to regard use-value as a social
concept, it seems that the latter is the
case: only when something can be used
intentionally in a certain way is it a use-value. Which is it to be? Do objects have
an intrinsic use-value, or do they acquire
one extrinsically when we form an intention
to use them in some way?
"Think carefully before you reply. I have a
rather nice trap waiting for you if your
answer is pitched at your usual, sloppy and
slapdash level. Alas, that [often] happens since you
let your emotions rule your head. We can see
that by the way you rapidly become abusive.
So, this might be a good time to put away
those childish traits we have come to know
and loathe, and act like a man, for a
change. Give it a go, you might get to like
it. Tantrums don't win arguments...."
SA (replying to RL):
"You're the one arguing that use-value
is a matter of intent. You essentially
have a version of the old 'If a tree
falls in the forest and nobody's around
to hear it, does the tree make a sound?'
Your argument by intent is really
nothing but childish idealism. A
use-value is an object that satisfies a
human want, need, desire. Nature can
certainly provide use-values without
human intent. Wood does not have a
telos, a purpose, to be burnt in its
make-up; it has the intrinsic quality of
combustibility whether or not it sits in
the forest or is sold in the
supermarket. It has the property of
combustibility intrinsic to it. It does
not need a human being to buy or sell it
to provide warmth. If there's a fire in
the forest, and nobody is there to see
it, or feel it, is the fire hot? The
chair retains its use-value even
when not being used. Intent does not
endow wood with its ability to provide
warmth in combustion. Intent to sit in
the chair does not make it useful. Its
existence as a chair, as something of
utility for sitting upon exists whatever
your intent may be. As an antique, the
chair can only claim value in exchange
if it has use. The exchange is based
upon the chair's usefulness in
satisfying the need of a collector to
collect, or as a representative of some
form of craftsmanship, as a decorative
piece, or even as a decorative piece to
be used as a chair. It does not derive
its utility from exchange in any of
these cases; exchange is derived from
the utility of the chair, the different
utilities in these scenarios."
RL (replying to SA -- in
what follows, emphases are in the original):
"SA (oh dear, into the trap
this numpty falls -- I did try to
warn him):
'You're the one arguing that
use-value is a matter of intent. You
essentially have a version of the
old "If a tree falls in the forest
and nobody's around to hear it, does
the tree make a sound?" Your
argument by intent is really nothing
but childish idealism.'
"In fact, I have expressed no
opinion about the nature of use-value. I have, though, posed several
problems for you with your odd view
of this subject, since it's not too
clear whether you accept an
intentional view of use-values or an
essentialist view -- your social
interpretation suggests the former,
while your comments about wood
suggest the latter.
"[As seems plain, you have not given
this much thought, but have
blundered around in the usual way,
oblivious of this distinction
-- until I kindly pointed it out to
you.]
'If a tree falls in the forest and
nobody's around to hear it, does the
tree make a sound?" Your argument by
intent is really nothing but
childish idealism'
"Not at all. I posed a series of
problems for you; if you now want to
divert attention from your
predicament, as I predicted you
would (in that other thread), that's
up to you. Now, if we adopt an
unsympathetic interpretation of your
views, wood had a use-value for
lightning long before we evolved,
since it can be set alight by it.
(Before you complain I have ignored
what you said about human need etc.,
be patient -- we'll get to that soon
enough.) Is that your view? But it
follows from what seems to be your
essentialist view of wood. If wood
has been flammable since it first
evolved, then it must have acquired
this essential property long before
we emerged. In that case, if you do
indeed hold an essentialist view of
use-values, you must also believe
that wood is a use-value for
lightning. [Again, patience,
please!] This has nothing to do with
trees falling in forests unheard,
since the hearing of sound is not an
essential property of falling trees.
But, as seems to be the case with
your odd theory, the capacity of
wood to burn is an essential
property of that wood. And if that
is so, it must be a use-value for
lightning. (Again, patience,
please!)
"[This isn't my belief, I hasten to
add -- just in case you try to foist
it on me, as you have several other
things! -- but a consequence of
your sloppy approach to HM
[Historical Materialism -- RL]. (I
blame dialectics. However, you can
console yourself with the thought
that you're not the first comrade to
have his brains addled by Hegel --
upside down or the 'right way up'.)]
"On the other hand, if you hold
an intentional view of use-values,
then wood can't be a use-value until
someone decides to use it, but not
before. This would absolve you of
the ridiculous belief that wood is a
use-value for lightning. However,
this option would create other
problems for you -- since it implies
that antique chairs are only use-values if someone decides to use
them to sit upon. However, between
episodes of sitting, they'd not be
use-values -- unless there was
someone always present with that
intention. That's because, of
course, intentions can't be stored
in chairs. This is indeed why many
prefer the essentialist view, since
a chair, they hold, is essentially a
chair, even if no one ever actually
uses it. Hence it's always a use-value. But, as we have seen, a
consistent application of this idea
implies wood is a use-value for
lightning -- and a field is a use-value for a worm that burrowed into
it -- 50 million years ago.
(Patience please!)
"Now I sympathise with the
predicament you are in. The Hegelian
tradition has bequeathed to the sad
souls whose brains it has colonised
far too few, and far too crude, conceptual
tools to extricate you from it.
But, hey, that's why I am here, to
help you poor sods out. [This
sentence has been slightly modified
on edit in order to make its content
clearer. The original was as
follows:
"The Hegelian tradition has
bequeathed to the sad souls whose
brains it has colonised far too few
and crude conceptual tools to
extricate you from it."
-- RL.]
"Ah, but you now fall into the
trap:
'A use-value is an object that
satisfies a human want, need,
desire.'
"So, you do favour the intentional
interpretation, after all. In which
case, wood isn't a use-value per
se -- only if someone decides to
use it. But then you back-sass and
say this:
'Nature can certainly provide use-values without human intent.'
"This either means nature has
intentions, or you favour the
essentialist interpretation. So,
'nature' provided the earth with
wood many million years ago, which
one day humans would use. In that
case it was a use-value 50 million
years ago. And, its use-value,
according to your earlier comments,
is its capacity to burn. But that
capacity is actionable by lightning,
too. So it seems that wood is a use-value for lightning, also
provided
by nature. (Patience please!)
Now the only way out of this
predicament is to emphasise this
clause:
'satisfies a human want, need,
desire.'
"But if nature:
'can certainly provide use-values
without human intent...'
"Then it looks like you are
committed to a
teleological/anthropomorphic view:
that nature provides the
intention here. But then you
have this answer:
'Wood does not have a telos, a
purpose, to be burnt in its make-up;
it has the intrinsic quality of
combustibility whether or not it
sits in the forest or is sold in the
supermarket. It has the property of
combustibility intrinsic to it.'
"So, we are back to the essentialist
view of use-values, again! But, this
just means that anything that is
capable of being burnt is a use-value. So, since it is possible to
burn almost anything (if the energy
input is high enough) then
practically everything in the
universe is a use-value! Hence,
the moon is a use-value, so is the
Kuiper Belt and Proxima Centauri.
Hence your 'definition' is far too
generous. You will thus have to
modify it so that you include a
reference to attainability (since
most of the universe will be forever
unattainable to us humans). I'll
leave that to you.
"But, let us examine that definition
again, to see how you fell into the
trap:
'A use-value is an object that
satisfies a human want, need,
desire....'
"In which case, we are back full
circle: if an object (like an
antique chair) is in a cellar,
forgotten about and gathering dust,
it no longer 'satisfies a human
want, need, desire', since no one
knows about it.
"Now, I did tell you to frame your
response carefully, and not in your
usual slap-dash manner. Here we can
see you ignored my good advice. You
unwisely put your definition in the present
continuous tense. That means
that anything that isn't at the
moment satisfying a "human want,
need, desire" can't be a use-value.
[Your definition, not mine!]
Hence, if a piece of wood isn't actually
being used, or lies unknown in
the forest, it can't be a use-value
after all. In trying to unite an
intentional definition with an
essentialist definition you end with
an unworkable theory. The rest of
what you say, interesting though it
is, falls foul of this serious
screw-up on your part. I did try to
warn to warn you...
"Back to that lightning. It seems
that the only way you can extricate
yourself is to widen your definition
along these lines:
'A use-value is an object that has,
is now, or could satisfy a human
want, need, desire.' [These aren't
SA's words; this is my
suggestion -- RL.]
"Ok, so I want it to be the case
that wood is a use-value for
lightning. Hence, it is.
"QED."
SA (replying to RL):
"I agree. Use-value is relational.
It cannot exist for the human
relation without the human relation.
Wood is combustible. Combustibility
is not an intrinsic use-value.
Combustibility is useful for human
beings. Human beings purposefully
utilizing objects makes use-values.
So once again, do the fleets of jets
stored in the desert have a use-value? The 10% or so of the world's
container fleet at anchor...does it
have use-value? If they're not being
used, do they have a use-value? But
more importantly, getting back to
the original assertion...do they
have value, exchange-value? The
argument after all is that objects
can have an exchange-value without a
use-value. Remember, supposedly the
antique chair in a cellar has no use-value, but has an exchange-value. As
the warehoused jets and ships show
us, the use-value continues to
exist. Whether or not the use-value
is expressed is determined by the
needs of capital accumulation."
RL (replying to SA):
"SA:
'Wood is combustible. Combustibility
is not an intrinsic use-value.
Combustibility is useful for human
beings. Human beings purposefully
utilizing objects makes use-values.'
"But, your definition of use-value:
'A use-value is an object that
satisfies a human want, need,
desire...',
"implies that if an object
isn't at this moment satisfying
a 'human want, need, desire',
then it can't be a use-value.
So, that chair, in that cellar,
forgotten about, which is not
now satisfying a 'human want,
need, desire' can't be a use-value, contrary to what you
assert elsewhere. And, if you
relax your definition (which
would make your theory a version
of stipulative conventionalism
-- that is, you'd be aiming to
solve a scientific problem by
means of linguistic tinkering),
that would be no help either, as
I pointed out earlier:
'Back to that lightning. It seems
that the only way you can extricate
yourself is to widen your definition
along these lines: "A use-value is
an object that has, is now, or could
satisfy a human want, need, desire."'
[Again, these aren't SA's
words; this is my suggestion -- RL .] Ok,
so I want it to be the case that
wood is a use-value for lightning.
Hence, it is. QED'"
SA (replying to RL):
"And in your argument;
everything loses its use-value,
except the bed and the blankets,
when humans go to sleep. Again,
do the jets parked in the desert
have use-value? Yes or no? Does
a jet, not officially removed
from the roster of equipment of
an airline, not being utilized
on any particular day, lose its
use-value? In short, your
argument becomes 'A chair is
only a chair when being sat
upon' -- which has nothing to
do with Marx's analysis at all.
Marx is talking about human
appropriation of nature, through
labour, and what factors
determine the expression, the
mode of that appropriation. In
the case of capital that mode
is value.
"And this:
'Ok, so I want it to be the case
that wood is a use-value for
lightning. Hence, it is',
"is exactly what artists do. The
wood can be used to represent
lightning -- that's its use-value to the artist. That's the
point. Wood can't be [useful
to?] lightning,
but it can, to an individual,
satisfy a need to represent
lightning. Now the artist can
buy the wood, in which case the
exchange-value cannot exist
separate from the use-value. Or
the artist may find the wood, in
which case the use-value exists
without a coincident exchange-value. The mode of appropriation
for society, however, is
determined by the social
organization of labour."
[Added
on edit: From this we can
see that SA hasn't got the point
about wood and lightning. There
were no artists around 50
million years ago! -- RL.]
RL (replying to SA):
"SA:
'And in your argument;
everything loses its use-value,
except the bed and the blankets,
when humans go to sleep.'
"Well,
in fact, that's a consequence
of your definition. Or do
you deny that you posted this?
'A use-value is an object that
satisfies a human want, need,
desire....'
"Given this definition that
chair can't be a use-value!
'Again, do
the jets parked in the desert
have use-value? Yes or no? Does
a jet, not officially removed
from the roster of equipment of
an airline, not being utilized
on any particular day, lose its
use-value?'
"Given your defective
definition, they don't appear to
[have a use-value], either! May
I suggest, therefore, that you
re-think your definition? (And
good luck with that one, given
the impoverished conceptual
tools Hegel dumped on all those
who think he had anything of
value to say!)
'In short, your argument becomes
"A chair is only a chair when
being sat upon" -- which has
nothing to do with Marx's
analysis at all. Marx is talking
about human appropriation of
nature, through labour, and what
factors determine the
expression, the mode of that
appropriation. In the case of
capital that mode is value.'
"Once more, this follows from your definition,
not mine (since I haven't
defined use-value).
'The wood can
be used to represent lightning
-- that's its use-value to the
artist. That's the point. Wood
can't be lightning, but it can,
to an individual, satisfy a need
to represent lightning.
Now the artist can buy the wood,
in which case the exchange-value
cannot exist separate from the
use-value. Or the artist may
find the wood, in which case the
use-value exists without a
coincident exchange-value. The
mode of appropriation for
society, however, is determined
by the social organization of
labour.'
"But, what about a lump of wood
that is lying in a forest,
unknown to any artist, or to
anyone at all, 50 million years
ago? Given your defective
definition, it can't be a use-value -- since it is not now:
'an object that satisfies a
human want, need, desire....'
"But if you relax your useless
definition, then it can be a use-value to lightning, if I want
it to be:
[RL
from earlier] 'Back to that
lightning. It seems that the
only way you can extricate
yourself is to widen your
definition along these lines:
[SA from earlier, my
words in his mouth] "A
use-value is an object that has,
is now, or could satisfy a human
want, need, desire...."
[RL from earlier] "'Ok, so
I want it to be the case that
wood is a use-value for
lightning. Hence, it is. QED.'"
SA (replying to someone
else -- but note the fatal
admission -- I have only
included this passage here
because of that):
"I agree that the assertion that
there can be exchange-value
without use-value is
nonsense.... [B]ut moreover the
'pretence' of exchange-value
without use-value is indicative
of fraud, swindling, scams...all those things that accompany
capital like pilot fish
accompany the shark. We can look
at the flim-flam scams of the
emerging US railroad industry in
the 1830s and 1840s to see
all sorts of examples of
'exchange-value' without use-value -- every single
occurrence collapsed leaving the
holders of the paper values,
exactly that: holders of the
value of the paper and nothing
else." [Bold emphasis added.]
SA (replying to RL
-- SA has a habit of
ignoring anything he can't
answer (he has just ignored my
last comment in its
entirety(!)), a trait he
perfected over at Revleft):
"Tell us again how antiques have
exchange-value without use-value."
RL (replying to SA):
"I see that you have once
again ducked a question you
can't answer:
[RL from earlier] 'But if
you relax your useless
definition, then it can be a use-value to lightning, if I want it
to be....
Back to that
lightning. It seems that the
only way you can extricate
yourself is to widen your
definition along these lines:
"A use-value is an object that
has, is now, or could satisfy a
human want, need, desire...."
Ok, so I want it to be the case
that wood is a use-value for
lightning. Hence, it is. QED.'
"But, to answer your (spurious)
question: A woman buys a house
and contents for $1,000,000. In
the cellar there is an antique
chair which she knows nothing
about, and neither does anyone
else. Five years later she sells
the house and contents for
$1,500,000, still knowing
nothing of that chair. Now
according to your defective
definition of use-value (which,
despite being warned [about
being] careful, you unwisely put
in the present continuous
tense):
'A use-value is an object that
satisfies a human want, need,
desire....'
"That chair isn't a use-value --
since it does not satisfy, and
has not (for at least five
years) satisfied a: 'human want,
need, desire....'
"And that's because no one
knows about it. Even so, it
has an exchange-value. Now
it's all the same to me if
this has stumped you, but
when, in x months or years
time, you claim yet again to
have answered all my
questions, I will quote this
conundrum back at you (and
this page, too) to show you
are just as full of hot air
now as you were at RevLeft."
Kambing (replying to
RL):
"While the ownership of the
chair may have legally
changed hands due to the
'contents' being included in
the sale, it clearly hasn't
actually been specifically
factored into the exchange-value. By your logic, used
tissues that got left under
the bed would also have an
exchange-value. Besides,
typically in a home and
contents sale the exchange-value of the contents is not
all precisely determined,
presumably because the owner
(or their agent) has decided
that the time it would take
to sell off the contents
individually is worth more
than the lost income.
"Regardless of its legal
status, unknown contents
don't really factor into it
at all. I mean, what if
there was a lost $10,000,000
work of art hidden in the
attic? Or several million
dollars in cash? Has their
'exchange-value' suddenly
plummeted and then risen
again? (Ok, presumably there
may be laws that may exclude
such things from the sale
itself, I'm not sure). But
the point is that exchange-value and use-value are
both ascribed by human
beings, they are social
phenomena. It seems like
your 'non-dialectical'
approach is a bit
metaphysical and
fetishistic, with objects
being magically imbued with
value without any human
action or thought
whatsoever."
L Bird (replying to
RL -- L Bird
is henceforth LB):
"Rosa, my tentative
answer to your question
would be that this issue
of 'use-value/exchange-value' can't be
addressed at the level
of individual objects,
whether 'known about' or
not. The theory is
intended to explain
exploitation at the
level of society, and is
not intended to compete
with psychological
theories of what
individuals think of
isolated objects. I
suppose the simple
answer to your question
is that 'it is
immaterial' (poor
joke)."
RL (replying to
Kambing):
"Kambing:
'While the ownership of
the chair may have
legally changed hands
due to the 'contents'
being included in the
sale, it clearly hasn't
actually been
specifically factored
into the exchange-value.
By your logic, used
tissues that got left
under the bed would also
have an exchange-value.
Besides, typically in a
home and contents sale
the exchange-value of
the contents is not all
precisely determined,
presumably because the
owner (or their agent)
has decided that the
time it would take to
sell off the contents
individually is worth
more than the lost
income.'
"Not my 'logic': it
follows from the sloppy
wording being bandied
about by SA and
one or two others."
'Regardless of its legal
status, unknown contents
don't really factor into
it at all. I mean, what
if there was a lost
$10,000,000 work of art
hidden in the attic? Or
several million dollars
in cash? Has their
'exchange-value'
suddenly plummeted and
then risen again? (Ok,
presumably there may be
laws that may exclude
such things from the
sale itself, I'm not
sure). But the point is
that exchange-value and
use-value are both
ascribed by human
beings, they are social
phenomena. It seems like
your 'non-dialectical'
approach is a bit
metaphysical and
fetishistic, with
objects being magically
imbued with value
without any human action
or thought whatsoever.'
"This is a problem for
the mystics here, not
me. I have attempted to
define nothing, nor have
I posted a single
theoretical statement
about use- and/or
exchange-value.
So pick a fight with
SA, not me."
RL (replying to
LB):
"LB, thanks
for at least trying
to answer my
question:
'Rosa, my tentative
answer to your
question would be
that this issue of
"use-value/exchange-value" can't be
addressed at the
level of individual
objects, whether
'known about' or
not. The theory is
intended to explain
exploitation at the
level of society,
and is not intended
to compete with
psychological
theories of what
individuals think of
isolated objects.'
"Well, with all due
respect, that's a
bit like arguing
that Newton's theory
of gravitation, say,
is not intended to
deal with single
objects (like that
apple, for example),
but the solar
system/the galaxy
etc. as a whole. The
only reason I aired
this example was to
embarrass the intentional definition
of use-value SA
here was trying to
sell us, since
that does introduce
psychological
factors. Recall, I
am not offering my
own views here,
merely putting
pressure on SA
by drawing out the
ridiculous
consequences of his
characteristically
sloppy approach in
this area. (True to
form, he has gone
rather quiet. If he
replies, expect more
prevarication and
delaying tactics
from him.)"
LB (replying to
RL):
"I think you've
chosen a poor
counter-example,
Rosa.
Gravity does work at
the level of single
objects, as well as
at the level of
systems like the
solar system. I
think a better
example is the
property of 'dog
protection', which
works at the level
of 'walls', not at
the level of wall
components, like
bricks. One can't
find a mysterious
property of 'dog
protection' in a
brick, no matter how
hard one looks!...
'Recall, I am not
offering my own views
here, merely putting
pressure on SA by
drawing out the
ridiculous consequences
of his
characteristically
sloppy approach in this
area.'
"Hmmm... well, since I
don't believe in
'objective positions'
from which to view the
world (social or
physical), I think
you are 'offering your
own views', because this
is an inescapable
component of criticism,
but your views have
always remained
unspoken, in this
debate, at least. Well
done, for arguing from a
hidden position, like
the good sniper you are!
The troops in the open
trying to attack you are
taking a terrific
mauling!"
RL (replying
to LB):
"LB:
'I think you've
chosen a poor
counter-example,
Rosa. Gravity does
work at the level of
single objects, as
well as at the level
of systems like the
solar system.'
"In that case, this
seems to mean that
SA's version
of Marx's theory
can't explain a
single thing.
'I think a better
example is the
property of "dog
protection", which
works at the level
of "walls", not at
the level of wall
components, like
bricks. One can't
find a mysterious
property of "dog
protection" in a
brick, no matter how
hard one looks!'
"Sorry, but I can't
see what this has
got to do with my
example -- my choice
of example doesn't
depend on being able
to see a property in
anything. So, I'll
stick to my example,
if that's Ok with
you."
'Hmmm... well, since I
don't believe in
"objective positions"
from which to view the
world (social or
physical), I think you
are "offering your own
views", because this is
an inescapable component
of criticism, but your
views have always
remained unspoken, in
this debate, at least.'
"Well, I don't
pretend to be
arguing from an
'objective' position
(in relation to
this, or anything
else, for that
matter), since I
do not accept this
use of 'objective'
-- and that's
because I reject all
philosophical
theories of
'objectivity' as
non-sensical. And,
of course, my views
have remained
unspoken, but if you
adopt this line,
then you will be
forced to argue, for
instance, that my
view of the taste of
butter is part of my
argument here, since
it too was unspoken
-- just as your
unspoken view of
[the] history of, say, the
Eiffel Tower
motivated your
choice of 'dog
protection'. [Link
added.]
'Well done, for
arguing from a
hidden position,
like the good sniper
you are! The troops
in the open trying
to attack you are
taking a terrific
mauling!'
"As I pointed
out to SA,
the reason for
this is that the
vast majority of
comrades who
have allowed
'dialectics' (in
the
post-Hegelian
sense of that
word) to
colonise their
brains, have
also bought into
an impoverished
intellectual
tradition.
Unfortunately,
that tradition
in 'continental
thought' has
bequeathed to
its acolytes
'logics' and
methods that are
far too weak,
conceptually
impoverished,
and confused for
them to be able
defend
themselves. This
has been
compounded by
the fact that
they also reject
analytic
philosophy and
the advanced
analytic
techniques it
has developed
that expose the
poverty of
thought that has
devolved from
this mystical
tradition. And
they refuse to
be told too. So,
they only have
themselves to
blame..."
LB (replying
to RL):
"RL:
'Sorry, but I can't see
what this has got to do
with my example -- my
choice of example
doesn't depend on being
able to see a property
in anything. So, I'll
stick to my example, if
that's Ok with you.'
"Yeah, sure, I was
merely trying to
point out that
'value', etc., work
at the conceptual
level of 'dog
protection', not at
the lower level of
'bricks'. You can
'stick to your
example' in your
debate with SA,
et al, but if
you do then I think
you are missing the
'social' meaning: of
course, if SA wants to
fight you on that
level, I think
you'll triumph.
'And, of course, my
views have remained
unspoken, but if you
adopt this line, then
you will be forced to
argue, for instance,
that my view of the
taste of butter is part
of my argument here,
since it too was
unspoken -- just as your
unspoken view of history
of, say, the Eiffel
Tower motivated your
choice of "dog
protection".'
"This is poor logic from
you, Rosa. The fact that
one relevant thing is
unspoken doesn't
logically lead to every
unspoken thing being
relevant.
'This has been
compounded by the fact
that they also reject
analytic philosophy and
the advanced analytic
techniques it has
developed that expose
the poverty of thought
that has devolved from
this mystical
tradition.'
"While I have a lot of
sympathy for your
characterisation of
'dialectics' as the
'mystical tradition', I
also think that
'analytic techniques',
'advanced' or not, have
to be located
within some assumptions
and axioms. I feel that,
perhaps, it's in that
discussion that I'll be
revealed to be closer to
our 'dialectics'
experts. Perhaps, not.
You say you think
historical materialism,
of some sort, is useful,
and I think I, and even
syndicalistcat [another
character in this
debate, whose comments I
have omitted -- RL] and
others, would agree with
that."
RL (replying to
LB):
"LB:
'This is poor logic from
you, Rosa. The fact that
one relevant thing is
unspoken doesn't
logically lead to every
unspoken thing being
relevant.'
"I'm not too sure
that is anything to
do with logic, but
even supposing it
has, I don't think
you will be able to
advance a
non-question-begging
way to exclude my
examples while
maintaining the
allegation that
unspoken views lie
behind my argument.
And it wasn't part
of the point I
wished to make that
'every unspoken
thing being
relevant', only that
you are guessing --
and without any
evidence, too.
'While I have a lot of
sympathy for your
characterisation of
"dialectics" as the
"mystical tradition", I
also think that
"analytic techniques",
"advanced" or not, have
to be located
within some assumptions
and axioms. I feel that,
perhaps, it's in that
discussion that I'll be
revealed to be closer to
our "dialectics"
experts. Perhaps, not.
You say you think
historical materialism,
of some sort, is useful,
and I think I, and even
syndicalistcat and
others, would agree with
that.'
"Sure, in many areas
of Analytic
Philosophy there are
just such
assumptions, but
there are no
philosophical (in
the traditional
sense of that word)
assumptions
underlying the
Wittgensteinian
method I use.
Indeed, if there
are, and you can
identify any to
which I adhere, I
will abandon them
immediately, and
apologise
profusely."
LB (replying
to RL):
"RL:
'And it wasn't part
of the point I
wished to make that
"every unspoken
thing being
relevant", only that
you are guessing --
and without any
evidence, too.'
"But, Rosa, what
counts as 'evidence'
depends on one's
conceptual schema,
so to maintain I
haven't supplied
'evidence' means
that you must have a
way of measuring
'evidence', to be
aware of its
absence. How do you
measure 'evidence'?"
'Sure, in many areas
of Analytic
Philosophy there are
just such
assumptions, but
there are no
philosophical (in
the traditional
sense of that word)
assumptions
underlying the
Wittgensteinian
method I use.'
"You'll have to
define 'traditional' for us, Rosa. I think Wittgenstein's method has
philosophical assumptions, just like every other human method."
SA
(replying to RL):
"I think it would be helpful if Rosa
could demystify the first three chapters of vol 1 [of Capital -- RL] for LB, who finds
Marx's presentation 'magical, religious, mystical' in the mode of
dialectics. All Rosa's nonsense about exchange-value without use-value is
exactly that, nonsense from the perspective of Marx's examination of value,
because Marx's explication is an analysis of how and why the use-value of
any single commodity is expressed as, or translated into, the exchange-value
of any and all other commodities. If Rosa's 'Anti-dialectics' has any
validity, any practical consequences for Marx's analysis, then surely that
consequence will become evident in Marx's examination of value.
"Now I certainly don't expect Rosa
to engage such a challenge -- what we will get is more puffery about 'as
soon as you answer my questions' blahblahblah...but I'm not the person
asking for clarification of those chapters, LB, who substantially
agrees with Rosa's 'critique'[,] is, and he thinks those chapters are examples
of Hegelian obfuscation. So it would be nice to see, since clearly those
three chapters are critical to Marx's work, to see them 'demystified.'
"Edit: Here's where Rosa takes the
argument rather than deal with the concrete issue at hand:
'But, your
definition of use-value: "A use-value is an object that satisfies a human want,
need, desire...", implies that if an object isn't at this moment satisfying a
"human want, need, desire", then it can't be a use-value.'
"No such
implication is contained in Marx's description of a use-value. The inference is
particularly and peculiarly Rosa's. We can state Marx's definition this way: a
use-value is an object that can satisfy a human, want, need, or desire." [Added
on Edit: Readers will no doubt have noticed that my prediction -- "expect
more prevarication and delaying tactics from [SA]" -- has been amply
confirmed.]
SA
(replying to LB -- whose comment I have omitted):
"But Rosa believes that Marx
extirpated Hegel in volume 1 of Capital. So why then are these three
chapters so mystifying and difficult for many people to grasp? Is it that
Marx, 'flirting' with Hegel, like a moth flirts with a flame, got way too
close? Is it possible that Marx, writing volume 1 for the 'general public'
deliberately mystified this analysis of value and the commodity, of the
basic unit of capital? There have been numerous explanations of Marx's first
three chapters. Some have even been provided in the discussions at this
site. Others in books by Rubin and many other writers. If the first 3
chapters have a significance for all that follows in the volume, and in
capitalism, surely Rosa's anti-Hegelianism should be able to clarify Marx's
analysis of value."
[I have also omitted several
exchanges between SA and one or two others since they don't directly
impact on my comments.]
RL (replying to LB):
"LB:
'But, Rosa, what counts as
"evidence" depends on one's conceptual schema, so to maintain I haven't
supplied "evidence" means that you must have a way of measuring "evidence",
to be aware of its absence.'
"Well, I don't have a
'conceptual scheme', and I doubt anyone else has, either. (The idea that
we all operate with one is based on some highly dubious a priori psychology,
which can be shown to be non-sensical, too.)
'How do you measure "evidence"?'
"Are you asking me what I mean by
the word 'evidence'? I have to ask this since I am sure evidence can't be
measured (except with a tape measure or weighing scales, etc.).
'You'll have to define "traditional"
for us, Rosa. I think Wittgenstein's method has philosophical assumptions,
just like every other human method.'
"By 'traditional', I mean, of
course, philosophy as it has been practiced 'in the west', by the vast
majority of philosophers since Ancient Greek times. And I challenge you to
show us one philosophical assumption that Wittgenstein adopts. And even if per
impossibile you succeed, I
will promptly reject that assumption and criticise Wittgenstein for adopting
it."
[I have omitted the rest of my reply
to LB since it strays into areas that aren't relevant to the purposes
of this Appendix.]
RL (replying to SA):
[I have omitted most of my reply to
SA since it concerns other matters unrelated to this specific
discussion.]
"SA:
'Now I certainly don't expect Rosa
to engage such a challenge -- what we will get is more puffery about "as
soon as you answer my questions" blahblahblah... but I'm not the person
asking for clarification of those chapters, LB, who substantially
agrees with Rosa's "critique" is, and he thinks those chapters are examples
of Hegelian obfuscation.'
"Which questions you have failed to
answer [also in other discussions
on other boards] -- and here
at LibCom there are now two more: 1) You can't respond effectively to my
demonstration that your definition of use-value implies that an
antique chair, left in a cellar, and forgotten about, can't be a use-value;
2) That the only justification you can offer for your odd use of
'contradiction' is tradition.
'No such implication is contained in
Marx's description of a use-value. The inference is particularly and
peculiarly Rosa's. We can state Marx's definition this way: a use-value is
an object that can satisfy a human, want, need, or desire.'
"This is your intentional
definition again, and it implies that the aforementioned chair can't
be a use-value. Or do you suppose that this chair, which no one knows
about is satisfying 'a human, want, need, or desire'?
"But you now alter your earlier
definition. It's no longer:
'A use-value is an object that
satisfies a human want, need, desire....'
"But:
'a use-value is an object that can
satisfy a human, want, need, or desire....'
"Ok, so I want it to be the case
that wood is a use-value for lightning. So, it is. QED."
[Again, I have omitted several more
exchanges between myself and several others for the same reason.]
SA (replying to RL):
"I haven't ducked a thing. I've
refused to engage in your absurd, irrelevant discussions about whether
or not a chair hidden in an attic that nobody knows about is a use-value. You have ducked all practical inquiries regarding your
[assertion] -- that there are exchange-values without use-values...."
RL (replying to SA):
"SA:
'I haven't ducked a thing. I've
refused to engage in your absurd, irrelevant discussions about whether or
not a chair hidden in an attic that nobody knows about is a use-value.'
"But my conclusions followed
from your changing definitions of use-value. First you tried to
palm this off on us:
'A use-value is an object that
satisfies a human want, need, desire....'
"Then this:
'a use-value is an object that can
satisfy a human, want, need, or desire....'
"The first, since it's in the
present continuous tense, implies that if no one knows about that chair,
then they can't want, need or desire it. So, it can't be a use-value.
The second implies that if I want something to be a use-value, it is --
so if I want wood to be a use-value for lightning, it is.
Your definitions sunshine; you deal with them."
[Again, I have omitted several
paragraphs from my reply to SA for the same reason.]
RL (replying to SA):
"Whimped out, I see... No
worries, SA, I'll just link to these threads the next time you
try to con the members of [any other] board into thinking you have answered
my questions."
SA (replying to RL
-- and here comes the extreme abuse I generally receive from this
'comrade' (and others) -- indeed, on one board, he even accused me of being a cop
in disguise!):
"GFY [Go F*ck Yourself -- RL]
Rosa, nobody's whimped out. There's just no point engaging with a
pathological shirker like you. I've answered every point you've
raised.... Go troll somewhere else."
RL (replying to SA):
"SA:
'There's just no point engaging
with a pathological shirker like you.'
"In other words, you can't
answer this question (which I have been asking you now for at least two
years, here and at RevLeft):
"Assuming
you are 100% right about Marx and the 'dialectic' -- in that case, other
than merely copying his use of 'contradiction', what is your
justification for using it? And I predict that you will deflect
attention from it and/or avoid it some more -- since you can't answer it
without admitting that the only reason you have for using
'contradiction' in the way you do is a slavish adherence to tradition.
'I've
answered every point you've raised and showed how nothing you raise
makes any practical difference to Marx's critique of capitalism.'
"Not [in] the above, nor have
you shown how or why your intentional 'definition' of use-value does not
imply that an antique chair, forgotten about in a cellar, has no use-value."
The discussion breaks off at this point -- with SA
slinking away and retreating into a by-now-familiar dialectical sulk.
Several of Marx and Engels's works listed below have
been linked to the Marxist Internet Archive -- MIA --, but since Lawrence & Wishart
threatened legal action over copyright infringement, several of them might
fail to work.
However, all
of their
published works can now be accessed
here
and
here.
Hence, over the
next few months I will be progressively
linking directly to the first of the
above sites.
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here.]
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